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109 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Which of the following body substances is HIV likely to be transmitted by? CATA
a) blood
b) saliva
c) seminal fluid
d) sweat
e) amniotic fluid
f) stool
g) breast milk
h) vaginal secretions
a) blood
c) seminal fluid
e) amniotic fluid
g) breast milk
h) vaginal secretions
*Although note that it is possible for HIV to be transmitted via ALL those sources, however, epidemiologic studies indicate that these are unlikely sources of infection.
Can you get HIV by kissing someone infected with HIV?
Generally no, unless they have a bleeding sore in their mouth, and you have an open cut in your mouth.
If you cannot get HIV from kissing someone, then why is it contraindicated to share a tooth brush with them?
Tooth brushing often can invoke bleeding, which would enable the transmission of the virus from one person to the other.
With current testing and technology, can people get HIV from blood transfusions?
YES! Blood donated during the widows period after infection is infectious even though it tests negative for HIV antibodies. The only thing donating centers can do, is to provide preventative screening prior to donation to prevent HIV positive or HIV at risk people from donating. :(
True of False: Natural condoms, such as lambskin are available for people with latex allergy and protect against HIV.
False: They protect against pregnancy but DO NOT protect against HIV.
What is the window for prophylaxis therapy for those suspected of coming in contact with HIV?
Up to 72 hours with therapy ideally starting immediately after exposure.
How long will recommended prophylaxis therapy for possible HIV infection last for?
a) 1 week
b) 4 weeks
c) 3 months
d) 6 months
b) 4 weeks
How does the HIV virus carry its genetic material?
a) on the DNA
b) on the RNA
c) on the cellulose coating
d) on the plasma protein
b) on the RNA
What is the first thing that you should do in case of a needle stick?
a) notify your supervisor
b) go to the emergency room
c) wash the area
d) milk the needle stick site
c) wash the area with soap and water immediately
What happens during "uncoating"?
a) the HIV cell attach to the uninfected CD4 cell surface
b) the viral core contents are emptied into the host cell
c) HIV enzymes copy the viral genetic material from the RNA to the DNA
d) the viral proteins are copied
b) The viral core contents are emptied into the host cell, a process knows as "uncoating"
CD4 and CD8 cells come from what type of cells?
a) Mature T cells
b) Mature B cells
c) prototype A cells
d) prototype CD4 cells
a) Mature T cells
Clinical category A involves a CD4 count of:
a) > 500
b) 200-499
c) <200
d) <50
a) >500
Clinical category C involves a CD4 count of:
a) > 500
b) 200-499
c) <200
d) <50
c) <200
Clinical category B involves a CD4 count of:
a) > 500
b) 200-499
c) <200
d) <50
b) 200-499
What time period is known as primary infection?
The time of infection with HIV to the production of antibodies.
During what time period is HIV infection characterized by intense viral replication and widespread dissemination of HIV throughout the body?
During the "primary infection".
The higher the viral set point, the ____ the prognosis.
a) better
b) poorer
c) shorter
d) longer
b) poorer
At what point in the person considered to have AIDS?
a) when an opportunistic infection sets in
b) when T cell count drops below 300
c) when CD4 T-cell count drops below 200
d) when KS is identified
c) when CD4 T-cell count drops below 200
Which category condition has implications for entitlements(ie, disability benefits, housing, and food stamps)?
a) Category A
b) Category B
c) Category C
d) Category D
c) Category C
A CD4 percentage of less than ___% of the total lymphocytes is consistent with an AIDS diagnosis.
14%
What does the Viral load laboratory test measure?
a) HIV DNA in the blood
b) HIV DNA in the plasma
c) HIV RNA in the blood
d) HIV RNA in the plasma
d) HIV RNA in the plasma
When advising the patient undergoing HIV testing, you should tell them that the "window period" last from ___ to ___, during which HIV antibodies are not yet present in the blood and may indicate a false negative.
a) 1-3 weeks
b) 3 weeks to 6 months
c) 3 to 6 months
d) 6-12 month
b) 3 weeks to 6 months
Which test is characterized by using less than 1 drop of blood, with test results being available in 20 minutes, with an accuracy of 99.6%?
a) EIA
b) ELISA
c) OraQuick test
d) OraSure test
c) OraQuick test
With antiviral therapy, viral load will continue to decline and drop below detectable levels by ___ to ___ weeks.
16-20
What is pseudo-Cushing's syndrome?
Redistribution of fat from the arms/legs/face to the abdomen and neck.
Why would an HIV infected person want to go on a "drug holiday"?
To take a break from the financial burden and side effects during the time in which the CD4 count is elevated.
Which of the following CD4 counts is indicative of a possible drug holiday?
a) 100
b) 200
c) 500
d) 2500
c) CD4 counts of 500-800 may indicate that antiretroviral medications can be discontinued
What is cited as the most bothersome symptom of HIV/AIDS?
a) nausea
b) weight loss
c) lesions
d) fatigue
d) fatigue
What medication is indicated if an immune reactivation syndrome develops?
a) antibiotics
b) antihistamines
c) anti-inflammatories
d) antipyretics
c) anti-inflammatories
What is the most common infection in people with AIDS?
a) pneumocystis pneumonia
b) clostridium difficile
c) esophageal candidiasis
d) vaginal candidiasis
a) pneumocystis pneumonia(PCP)
What is the causative organism of PCP?
a) P. jiroveci
b) H. pylori
c) P. carinii
d) J. parinini
a) P. jiroveci
What are the signs and symptoms of PCP similar to?
a) the flu
b) classic pneumonia
c) cold stress
d) clostridium difficile
b) classic pneumonia: Non-productive cough, fever, chills, SOB, dyspnea, and occasionally chest pain
The nurse knows that untreated PCP in the patient with AIDS:
a) will self-resolve
b) will cause worsened symptoms of KS
c) will lead to respiratory failure
d) will lead to visual disturbances and hallucinations (neurological effects)
c) will lead to respiratory failure
How is PCP diagnosed?
a) based on symptoms
b) based on chest x-ray
c) based on CD4 count
d) sputum culture
d) sputum culture
What are some of the GI related complications of AIDS?
Loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, oral and esophageal candidiasis and chronic diarrhea.
What type of infection is candidiasis?
a) viral
b) bacterial
c) fungal
d) microbial
c) fungal
Wasting syndrome is characterized by profound weight loss exceeding ___ % of baseline body weight, with chronic diarrhea or weakness for >30 days, and fever in the absence of concurrent illness.
10%
What is the most common HIV-related malignancy?
KS Kaposi's sarcoma
KS is a disease that involves what layer of the blood and lymphatic vessels?
The endothelial layer
The skin lesions associated with KS correlate to a low____.
a) CD4 count
b) RBC count
c) antiviral load
d) antiviral resistance capacity
a) CD4 count
How do infections with B-cell lymphomas differ in those with AIDS?
They occur at a younger than typical age, and are more aggressive and resistant to treatment (ie a higher grade at onset)
Why is chemotherapy an issue for patient with AIDS and cancer?
Because of the immunosuppressive effects of the chemo; this sets the stage for opportunistic infections and severe hematologic toxicity.
The nurse knows that HIV infection in the ____ results in inflammation, atrophy, demyelination, degeneration and necrosis.
CNS ie the brain.
A fungal infection with C. neoformans results in what type of complications?
a) neurologic
b) endocrine
c) GI
d) GU
a) neurologic
What condition of the skin is associated with indurated, diffuse , scaly rash involving the scalp and face?
Seborrheic dermatitis
Up to 60% of patients treated with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMA) develop:
a) neutropenia
b) rash
c) orthostatic hypotension
d) pneumonia
b) rash
People with HIV infections who have a T-cell count of less than 200 should receive chemoprophylaxis against ____ with TMP-SMZ.
a) PCP
b) leukemia
c) c-diff
d) TB
a) PCP
Patients with adverse reactions to TMP-SMZ who need treatment for PCP can be switched to _____.
a) MAC
b) Pentamidine
c) Bactrim
d) Septra
b) Pentamidine
Chemoprophylaxis against disseminated MAC disease is indicated for HIV-infected people with T-cell counts lower than:
a) 50
b) 100
c) 200
d) 300
a) 50
Therapy with octreotide acetate (Sandostatin) is indicated for the treatment of:
a) neutropenia
b) thrombocytopenia
c) PCP
d) diarrhea
d) diarrhea
Which of the following are treatments for KS lesions? CATA
a) surgical excision
b) application of topical chemotherapeutic agents
c) topical liquid nitrogen
d) injections of intraoral lesions with dilute vinblastine
a) surgical excision
c) topical liquid nitrogen
d) injections of intraoral lesions with dilute vinblastine
Is radiation therapy used for KS lesions?
Yes, as a palliative measure to relieve localized pain due to tumor mass (especially in the legs) and for lesions in sites such as the oral mucosa, conjunctiva, face and soles of the feet.
Many people with HIV infection are intolerance to:
a) lactose
b) salt
c) high doses of vitamin C
d) all of the above
a) lactose
What is Advera?
a) respiratory treatment
b) chemotherapeutic agent
c) antiviral agent
d) nutritional supplement
d) nutritional supplement made especially for people with HIV and AIDS
Is oxygen therapy effective at treating patients with dyspnea or SOB related to infections, KS or fatigue?
Yes!
Is the BRAT diet suggested to HIV patients with diarrhea?
Yes!
Why is smoking discouraged to the HIV/AIDS patient?
Because it increases intestinal spasms and motility causing more diarrhea.
What lab tests would be drawn in addition to serum protein and albumin to determine nutritional status?
a) CBC, AST, ALT
b) AST, ALT, BUN
c) CBC, RBC, WBC
d) BUN, H&H
d) BUN and H&H
Which of the following would be suggested to help the HIV/AIDS patient with inbalanced nutrition to improve nutritional status?
a) encourage patient not to rest before meals
b) encourage patient to eat meals when visitors are not present
c) limit fluids 1 hour before and with meals
d) avoid protein rich foods
c) limit fluids 1 hour before and with meals to prevent the patient from getting full early
What is recommended if a pregnant woman tests positive for HIV?
a) therapeutic abortion
b) initiation of antiretroviral agents
c) direct assay testing
d) amniocentesis at 34 weeks gestation to determine if the HIV has been transmitted to the fetus in utero
b) initiation of antiretroviral agents
What might the following signs and symptoms indicate:
decreased mental status, muscle twitching, muscle cramps, irregular pulse, nausea and vomiting, and shallow respirations?
a) neurological infestation
b) electrolyte deficits
c) anemia
d) neurological KS involvement
b) electrolyte deficits
Which of the following is avoided in patients with impaired skin integrity?
a) medicated lotions
b) ointments
c) adhesive tape
d) lotion
c) adhesive tape
True or False: Sitz baths are recommended for cleaning and comfort of excoriated and broken-down perianal areas.
True!
What medication may be indicated for the patient suffering from peripheral neuropathy in addition to opioids?
Tricyclic antidepressants: They have been found to be helpful in controlling the symptoms of neuropathic pain.
How is the patient with oral lesions and a sore throat instructed to use viscous lidocaine?
a) swallow the capsule, being sure not to break it open
b) swish and spit out the solution
c) swish and swallow the solution
d) swallow the solution making sure not to allow it to come in contact with gums
c) swish and swallow the solution
What is cachexia?
Severe weight loss and muscle wasting: Often a complication of HIV/AIDS.
Which of the following should be done to prevent opportunistic infections?
a) frequently disinfect bathroom and kitchen surfaces
b) avoid working with community heath nurses
c) do not share bathrooms
d) disinfect toilets with bleach after bowel movement
a) frequently disinfect bathroom and kitchen surfaces
What should be done if the HIV/AIDS patient doesn't have someone to clean their cat's litter box for them?
a) wear gloves
b) get rid of the cat
c) switch to newspaper derived cat litter
d) switch the cat litter to a dome covered box
a) wear gloves
Which of the following are HIV/AIDS infected people recommended to avoid
a) children
b) people recently vaccinated
c) cats and dogs
d) lactose free daily products
b) people recently vaccinated
During Primary HIV infection, there is a rapid rise in HIV viral load, resulting in what changes in the CD4 and CD8 cell count?
a) increase in CD4 and CD8
b) decrease in CD4 and CD8
c) increase in CD4 and decrease in CD8
d) decrease in CD4 and increase in CD8
d) decrease in CD4 and increase in CD8 counts
Resolution in clinical manifestations coincide with ___ in viral HIV replication.
a) an increase
b) a decrease
c) a pseudo-decrease
d) a baseline viral load establishment
b) a decrease
During which stage can the client remain asymptomatic for 10 years or more?
a) Primary HIV infection
b) Chronic asymptomatic infection
c) AIDS
b) Chronic asymptomatic infection
True or False: All persons with AIDS have HIV, but not all persons with HIV have AIDS.
True!
What does the CD4 count measure?
a) number of immune cells left
b) extent of immune damage
c) effect on the viral load
d) lymphadenopathy involvement
b) extent of immune damage
True or False: Red, bleeding gums and oral mucous membranes related to HIV is caused by candida albicans.
True.
Headache, confusion, delirium, fever, vomiting, hemiparesis and seizures are signs and symptoms of which opportunistic infection?
a) candida albicans
b) mycobacterium avium
c) cryptococcus neoformans
d) toxoplasmosis gondii
d) toxoplasmosis gondii
Fever, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, severe watery diarrhea and electrolyte imbalance are the signs and symptoms of which opportunistic infection?
a) candida albicans
b) mycobacterium avium
c) cryptosporidium
d) toxoplasmosis gondii
c) cryptosporidium
What type of medication are paroxetine and sertaline?
a) antineoplastic
b) antibiotic
c) antifungal
d) antidepressant
d) antidepressant
What type of medication are diphenoxylate hydrochloride and atropine?
a) antivirals
b) appetite stimulants
c) antidiarrheals
d) antifungals
c) antidiarrheals
For what condition related to HIV/AIDS is seizure precautions implemented?
HIV encephalopathy
A client presents with the following signs and symptoms: Night sweats and fatigue, cough, nausea, abdominal pain, and frequent diarrhea. He has a temp of 100.6 and is afraid he might have HIV. What stage of infections is he experiencing?
AIDS: This is the third and last stage of infection. The client is symptomatic (cough, fever, diarrhea), which indicates that his immune system is significantly deficient and he is no longer able to fight off opportunistic infections.
An example of an antiretroviral agent, classified as a fusion inhibitor, that must be injected subcutaneously twice a day is:
a) agenerase
b) combivir
c) Fuzeon(T20)
d) retrovir
c) Fuzeon(T20)
A fungal infection present in almost all patients with AIDS is ____.
Candidiasis
A recommended chemotherapeutic agent for Kaposi's sarcoma is ___.
Alpha-interferon
One of the most frequent systemic side effects of anti-HIV drugs is:
a) osteoporosis
b) hyperglycemia
c) lipodystrophy syndrome
d) pancreatitis
c) lipodystrophy syndrome
The most debilitating GI condition found in 90% of all AIDS patients is:
a) anorexia
b) chronic diarrhea
c) nausea
d) vomiting
b) chronic diarrhea
The nurse is admitting a client diagnosed with protein calorie malnutrition secondary to AIDS. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
a) assess the client's body weight and ask what the client has been able to eat
b) place in contact isolation and don a mask and gown before entering the room
c) have the client collect a clean voided urine specimen for culture
d) teach the client about the importance of consuming adequate calories
a) assess the client's body weight, and ask what the client has been able to eat
The nurse assesses white patchy lesions covering the hard and soft palates of the male client diagnosed with AIDS. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
a) provide a soft-bristle toothbrush for the client to use
b) obtain an order for an antifungal swish-and-swallow medication
c) teach the client to gargle with an antiseptic mouthwash several times a day
d) ask the client if he has been eating a lot of yogurt recently
b) obtain an order for an antifungal swish-and-swallow medication
The female nurse caring for a client who is known to be HIV positive accidentally stuck herself with the stylet used to start an IV line. Which action should the nurse take first?
a) notify the charge nurse, and fill out an incident report
b) go to the employee health nurse to start on prophylactic medication
c) follow up with the employee health nurse to have lab work drawn
d) flush the skin with water, and try to get the area to bleed
d) flush the skin with water, and try to get the area to bleed: The nurse should immediately attempt to get the area to bleed and to remove contaminated blood from the body before the HIV infects the nurse. Then, the nurse should notify the charge nurse, start prophylactic medication and follow up to have lab work done.
The client diagnosed with PCP is being admitted to the ICU. Which order should the nurse question?
a) have the client sign consent for a bronchoscopy
b) Oxygen therapy via nasal cannula at 5-6 L/min
c) Administer trimethoprim sulfa, an antibiotic via IVPB
d) place the client in respiratory isolation
d) place the client in respiratory isolation: standard precautions is all that is needed
The hospice nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with AIDS. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
a) perform a thorough head-to-toe assessment
b) encourage the client to drink nutritional supplements
c) talk with the client about the funeral arrangements
d) request physical therapy to assist with strength training
c) talk with the client about the funeral arrangements: The client on hospice should prepare for death. Physical assessment is not a priority, they are encouraged to eat whatever they want, and physical therapy is not a priority.
Which client diagnosed with AIDS should the nurse on a medical unit assess first after end-of-shift report?
a) the client who has flushed warm skin with tented turgor
b) the client who states that the staff ignores the call light
c) the client who has T 99.9 P 101, R 26 and BP 100/68
d) the client who is unable to provide a sputum specimen
a) The client who has flushed warm skin with tented turgor: flushed warm skin with tented turgor indicates dehydration and the HCP should be notified immediately so fluid orders to correct the dehydration can be given.
During what part of pregnancy through birth is the HIV infection usually transmitted to the fetus?
During labor and birth.
Which of the following decreases the risk of the baby acquiring HIV? CATA
a) Mom takes ATZ
b) baby take ATZ for 6 weeks following birth
c) cesarean delivery is avoided
a) Mom takes ATZ
b) baby takes ATZ for 6 weeks following birth
Cesarean delivery DECREASES the risk of acquiring HIV, and therefore should not be avoided
A nurse is assigned to provide care for an AIDS patient. Infection control guidelines specify that a gown should be worn when the nurse:
a) enters the room to provide client care
b) administers IV medications
c) completes a dressing change
d) administers an IM injection
c) completes a dressing change because of the risk of coming in contact with body fluids
The nurse is assigned to draw blood from a suspected AIDS client. Standard Precautions dictate that she should use:
a) gown, clean gloves, and mask
b) gown, sterile gloves
c) hand hygiene and sterile gloves
d) hand hygiene, gown, and clean gloves
d) hand hygiene, gown, and clean gloves: Stand measures for possible contact with body fluids
What does the ELISA test, test for?
a) HIV
b) AIDS
c) HIV antibodies
d) AIDS antibodies
c) HIV antibodies
When taking the blood pressure of a patient with AIDS, the nurse must:
a) wear clean gloves
b) use barrier techniques
c) wear a mask and gown
d) wash the hands thoroughly
d) wash the hands thoroughly: since there is no risk of contact with blood or body fluids, other protective measures are unnecessary
In addition of Pneumocystis jiroveci, a client with AIDS has a 4 cm ulcer on this leg. Considering the client's total health status, the most critical nursing diagnosis would be:
a) impaired nutrition: less than body's requirements
b) Impaired skin integrity
c) Impaired gas exchange
d) Risk for infection
c) Impaired gas exchange: Pneumocystis jiroveci is a protozoan that causes pneumonia in immunosuppressed hosts, which can cause death in 60% of the clients: their respiratory status is priority!
Are live vaccines (measles, mumps, rubella and varicella) administered to HIV positive children?
Yes, as long as they are not severely immunocompromised.
A clinic nurse is instructing the mother of a child with HIV regarding immunizations. The nurse tells the mother that:
a) the hep B vaccine will not be given to the child
b) pneumococcal and flu vaccines are recommended
c) household members need to avoid receiving the varicella vaccine
d) A Western blot test needs to be performed and the results evaluated before immunizations
b) pneumococcal and flue vaccines are recommended
The poop from an HIV infected infant gets on the day care changing table. What should it be cleaned up with?
a) soap and water
b) iodine
c) bleach
d) vinegar
c) bleach
A newborn infant of a mother who has the HIV infection is tested for the presence of HIV antibodies. An ELISA test is performed and the results are positive. The nurse interprets these results as:
a) positive for HIV
b) negative for HIV
c) indicating the absence of maternal infection
d) indicating the presence of maternal infection
d) indicating the presence of maternal infection: A positive antibody test in a child younger than 18 months of age indicates only that the mother is infected because maternal immunoglobulin G antibodies persist in the infant for 6-9 months and in some cases up to 18 months.
The detection of HIV in the infant of an HIV positive woman is determined via:
a) CD4 cell count
b) Chest x-ray
c) Western blot
d) p24 antigen assay
d) p24 antigen assay
True or False: A woman adopts an HIV infected child. She should avoid kissing the child on the mouth.
True: Although it is not common, HIV can be spread via saliva.
What instructions should be given concerning eating utensils?
Do not share them and wash them in the dishwasher.
What stage of HIV/AIDS involves oral hairy leukoplakia and herpes zoster?
AIDS stage
What part of the body does toxoplasmosis from cat litter or farm animals affect?
a) the joints
b) the brain
c) the PNS
d) the immune system
b) the brain
The nurse knows that the patient taking Amprenavir (agenerase) has to:
a) take their pulse and BP prior to each dose
b) avoid taking foods high in fat concurrently
c) maintain a fluid intake of at least 3500 cc/day
d) monitor for changes in color of urine
b) avoid foods high in fat concurrently because it reduces the blood concentration of this medication