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169 Cards in this Set

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11.01
You want to improve network performance by increasing the bandwidth available to hosts
and limiting the size of the broadcast domains. Which of the following options will achieve
this goal?
A. Managed hubs
B. Bridges
C. Switches
D. Switches configured with VLANs


You want to improve network performance by increasing the bandwidth available to hosts
and limiting the size of the broadcast domains. Which of the following options will achieve
this goal?
A. Managed hubs
B. Bridges
C. Switches
D. Switches configured with VLANs



11.02
The types of ports that can found on a switch are___________________ and
___________________. (Choose two.)
A. VLAN Trunk Protocol
B. Access
C. 802.1Q
D. Trunk


The types of ports that can found on a switch are___________________ and
___________________. (Choose two.)
A. VLAN Trunk Protocol
B. Access
C. 802.1Q
D. Trunk



11.03
Which switching technology reduces the size of a broadcast domain?
A. ISL
B. 802.1Q
C. VLANs
D. STP


Which switching technology reduces the size of a broadcast domain?
A. ISL
B. 802.1Q
C. VLANs
D. STP



11.04
Which of the following are the IEEE version of STP? (Choose 2)
A. 802.1x
B. VLANs
C. 802.1d
D. 802.11
E. 802.1w


Which of the following are the IEEE version of STP? (Choose 2)
A. 802.1x
B. VLANs
C. 802.1d
D. 802.11
E. 802.1w



11.05
You connect a host to a switch port, but the new host cannot log into the server that is
plugged into the same switch. What could the problem be? (Choose two.)
A. The router is not configured for the new host.
B. The STP configuration on the switch is not updated for the new host.
C. The host has an invalid MAC address.
D. The switch port the host is connected to is not configured to the correct VLAN
membership.
E. The STP shut down the port


You connect a host to a switch port, but the new host cannot log into the server that is
plugged into the same switch. What could the problem be? (Choose two.)
A. The router is not configured for the new host.
B. The STP configuration on the switch is not updated for the new host.
C. The host has an invalid MAC address.
D. The switch port the host is connected to is not configured to the correct VLAN
membership.

E. The STP shut down the port



11.06
Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.)
A. They increase the size of collision domains.
B. They allow logical grouping of users by function.
C. They can enhance network security.
D. They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision
domains.
E. They simplify switch administration.
F. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast
domains.


Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.)
A. They increase the size of collision domains.
B. They allow logical grouping of users by function.
C. They can enhance network security.
D. They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision
domains.
E. They simplify switch administration.
F. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast
domains.




11.07
Which of the following is a Layer 2 protocol used to maintain a loop-free network?
A. VTP
B. STP
C. RIP
D. CDP


Which of the following is a Layer 2 protocol used to maintain a loop-free network?
A. VTP
B. STP
C. RIP
D. CDP



11.08
What is the result of segmenting a network with a bridge (switch)? (Choose two.)
A. It increases the number of collision domains.
B. It decreases the number of collision domains.
C. It increases the number of broadcast domains.
D. It decreases the number of broadcast domains.
E. It makes smaller collision domains.
F. It makes larger collision domains.


What is the result of segmenting a network with a bridge (switch)? (Choose two.)
A. It increases the number of collision domains.
B. It decreases the number of collision domains.
C. It increases the number of broadcast domains.
D. It decreases the number of broadcast domains.
E. It makes smaller collision domains.
F. It makes larger collision domains.



11.09
You connect your host to a switch that is running network analyses software. However, you
are not seeing any packets from the server. What do you need to implement on the switch to
see all the packet information?
A. VLANs
B. STP
C. Port Mirroring
D. Authentication


You connect your host to a switch that is running network analyses software. However, you
are not seeing any packets from the server. What do you need to implement on the switch to
see all the packet information?
A. VLANs
B. STP
C. Port Mirroring
D. Authentication



11.10
Which of the following features of a switch will allow two switches to pass network
information?
A. PoE
B. VLANs
C. Trunking
D. STP


Which of the following features of a switch will allow two switches to pass network
information?
A. PoE
B. VLANs
C. Trunking
D. STP



11.11
What are the distinct functions of Layer 2 switching that increase available bandwidth on
the network? (Choose three.)
A. Address learning
B. Routing
C. Forwarding and filtering
D. Creating network loops
E. Loop avoidance
F. IP addressing


What are the distinct functions of Layer 2 switching that increase available bandwidth on
the network? (Choose three.)
A. Address learning
B. Routing
C. Forwarding and filtering
D. Creating network loops
E. Loop avoidance
F. IP addressing



11.12
Which of the following statements is true?
A. A switch creates a single collision domain and a single broadcast domain. A router
creates a single collision domain.
B. A switch creates separate collision domains but one broadcast domain. A router
provides a separate broadcast domain.
C. A switch creates a single collision domain and separate broadcast domains. A router
provides a separate broadcast domain as well.
D. A switch creates separate collision domains and separate broadcast domains. A router
provides separate collision domains.


Which of the following statements is true?
A. A switch creates a single collision domain and a single broadcast domain. A router
creates a single collision domain.
B. A switch creates separate collision domains but one broadcast domain. A router
provides a separate broadcast domain.

C. A switch creates a single collision domain and separate broadcast domains. A router
provides a separate broadcast domain as well.
D. A switch creates separate collision domains and separate broadcast domains. A router
provides separate collision domains.



11.13
What does a switch do when a frame is received on an interface and the destination
hardware address is unknown or not in the filter table?
A. Forwards the switch to the first available link
B. Drops the frame
C. Floods the network with the frame looking for the device
D. Sends back a message to the originating station asking for a name resolution


What does a switch do when a frame is received on an interface and the destination
hardware address is unknown or not in the filter table?
A. Forwards the switch to the first available link
B. Drops the frame
C. Floods the network with the frame looking for the device
D. Sends back a message to the originating station asking for a name resolution



11.14
If a switch receives a frame, and the source MAC address is not in the MAC address table
but the destination address is, what will the switch do with the frame?
A. Discard it and send an error message back to the originating host
B. Flood the network with the frame
C. Add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame out
the destination port


If a switch receives a frame, and the source MAC address is not in the MAC address table
but the destination address is, what will the switch do with the frame?
A. Discard it and send an error message back to the originating host
B. Flood the network with the frame
C. Add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame out
the destination port




11.15
Which of the following help isolate network traffic?
A. hubs
B. VLANs
C. Repeaters
D. Hosts


Which of the following help isolate network traffic?
A. hubs
B. VLANs
C. Repeaters
D. Hosts



11.16
When is STP said to be converged? (Choose two.)
A. When all ports are in the forwarding state
B. When all ports are in the blocking state
C. When all ports are in the Listening state
D. When all ports are in the Learning state


When is STP said to be converged? (Choose two.)
A. When all ports are in the forwarding state
B. When all ports are in the blocking state
(The sequence for a switch convergence is blocking, listening, learning and then forwarding. When all ports are in either the blocking or forwarding state, a switch is “converged” according to Lammle.)
C. When all ports are in the Listening state
D. When all ports are in the Learning state



11.17
In which two states is the MAC address table populated with addresses?
A. Blocked
B. Listening
C. Learning
D. Forwarding


In which two states is the MAC address table populated with addresses?
A. Blocked
B. Listening
C. Learning
D. Forwarding




11.18
You have multiple departments all connected to switches, with cross-over cables connecting
the switches together. However, response time on the network is still very slow because you
have upgraded from hubs to switches. What technology should you implement to improve
response time on the networks?
A. STP
B. VLANs
C. Convergence
D. OSPF


You have multiple departments all connected to switches, with cross-over cables connecting
the switches together. However, response time on the network is still very slow because you
have upgraded from hubs to switches. What technology should you implement to improve
response time on the networks?
A. STP
B. VLANs
C. Convergence
D. OSPF



11.19
Why are switches better than hubs in your network by default?
A. Because they break up broadcast commands by default
B. Because each port on a switch is a broadcast domain
C. Because each port on a switch is a collision domain
D. Because all ports on a hub are broken into broadcast domains by default


Why are switches better than hubs in your network by default?
A. Because they break up broadcast commands by default
B. Because each port on a switch is a broadcast domain
C. Because each port on a switch is a collision domain
D. Because all ports on a hub are broken into broadcast domains by default



11.20
What is a disadvantage of using port spanning?
A. It breaks up broadcast domains on all ports
B. It can create overhead on the switch
C. It makes the switch one large collision domain
D. It makes the switch fast between only two ports instead of all ports


What is a disadvantage of using port spanning?
A. It breaks up broadcast domains on all ports
B. It can create overhead on the switch (FYI -- “port spanning” <=> “port mirroring.”)
C. It makes the switch one large collision domain
D. It makes the switch fast between only two ports instead of all ports



11.21
VLANs break up ________ domains in a Layer 2 switched network.

Broadcast


11.22
Switches, by default, only break up ________ domains.

Collision


11.23
What does trunking provide?

Trunking allows you to make a single port part of multiple VLANs at the same time.


11.24
You need to power a device, such as an access point or IP phone. What protocol can provide
power to these devices over an Ethernet cable?





11.25
You plug a host into a switch port, but the user can’t get to the services it needs. What is
probably the problem?


Power over Ethernet (PoE)


11.26
If a destination MAC address is not in the forward/filter table, what will the switch do with
the frame?


Flood the frame out all ports except the port it was received on


11.27
What are the three switch functions at Layer 2?

Address learning, filtering, and loop avoidance


11.28
If a frame is received on a switch port and the source MAC address is not in the forward/
filter table, what will the switch do?


It will add the source MAC address to the forward/filter table.


11.29
What is used at Layer 2 to prevent switching loops?

Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)


11.30
You need to implement a separate network for contractors and guests working at your
office. Which technology should you implement?


Create a VLAN for Contractor and another VLAN for guests


12.01
You need to install wireless Internet access in an open warehouse environment. After installing
the equipment the technician notices varying signal strengths throughout the warehouse.
A. Turn on broadcast key rotation
B. Change the encryption method used on all the AP’s
C. Change the antenna placement
D. Use channel bonding
E. Use channel shaping


You need to install wireless Internet access in an open warehouse environment. After installing
the equipment the technician notices varying signal strengths throughout the warehouse.
A. Turn on broadcast key rotation
B. Change the encryption method used on all the AP’s
C. Change the antenna placement
D. Use channel bonding
E. Use channel shaping



12.02
What is the frequency range of the IEEE 802.11a standard?
A. 2.4Gbps
B. 5Gbps
C. 2.4GHz
D. 5GHz


What is the frequency range of the IEEE 802.11a standard?
A. 2.4Gbps
B. 5Gbps
C. 2.4GHz
D. 5GHz



12.03
What is the frequency range of the IEEE 802.11g standard?
A. 2.4Gbps
B. 5Gbps
C. 2.4GHz
D. 5GHz


What is the frequency range of the IEEE 802.11g standard?
A. 2.4Gbps
B. 5Gbps
C. 2.4GHz (Both 802.11b and 802.11g broadcast at 2.4GHz)
D. 5GHz



12.04
Which devices can interfere with the operation of a wireless network because they operate
on similar frequencies? (Choose two.)
A. Copier
B. Microwave oven
C. Toaster
D. Cordless phone
E. IP phone
F. AM radio


Which devices can interfere with the operation of a wireless network because they operate
on similar frequencies? (Choose two.)
A. Copier
B. Microwave oven
C. Toaster
D. Cordless phone
E. IP phone
F. AM radio



12.05
Which wireless standard allows you to channel bond to increase bandwidth and uses both
the 2.4Ghz and 5Ghz frequencies?
A. 802.11b
B. 802.11g
C. 802.11a
D. 802.11n


Which wireless standard allows you to channel bond to increase bandwidth and uses both
the 2.4Ghz and 5Ghz frequencies?
A. 802.11b
B. 802.11g
C. 802.11a
D. 802.11n



12.06
How many non-overlapping channels are available with 802.11b?
A. 3
B. 12
C. 23
D. 40


How many non-overlapping channels are available with 802.11b?
A. 3
B. 12
C. 23
D. 40



12.07
How many non-overlapping channels are available with 802.11a?
A. 3
B. 12
C. 23
D. 40


How many non-overlapping channels are available with 802.11a?
A. 3
B. 12
C. 23
D. 40



12.08
What is the maximum data rate for the 802.11a standard?
A. 6Mbps
B. 11Mbps
C. 22Mbps
D. 54Mbps


What is the maximum data rate for the 802.11a standard?
A. 6Mbps
B. 11Mbps
C. 22Mbps
D. 54Mbps



12.09
You need to install wireless on multiple floors of a large building and maintenance area.
What is your first concern before installing the AP’s?
A. Authentication
B. Encryption
C. Channel Overlap
D. AP configuration


You need to install wireless on multiple floors of a large building and maintenance area.
What is your first concern before installing the AP’s?
A. Authentication
B. Encryption
C. Channel Overlap
D. AP configuration



12.10
What is the maximum data rate for the 802.11b standard?
A. 6Mbps
B. 11Mbps
C. 22Mbps
D. 54Mbps


What is the maximum data rate for the 802.11b standard?
A. 6Mbps
B. 11Mbps
C. 22Mbps
D. 54Mbps



12.11
You connect a new host to your companies wireless network. The host is set to receives a
DHCP address and the WEP key is entered correctly, however, the host cannot connect to
the network. What can the problem be?
A. DNS is not configured on the host
B. MAC filtering is enabled on the AP
C. The network has run out of wireless connections
D. The host is enabled to run 802.11b and 802.11g


You connect a new host to your companies wireless network. The host is set to receives a
DHCP address and the WEP key is entered correctly, however, the host cannot connect to
the network. What can the problem be?
A. DNS is not configured on the host
B. MAC filtering is enabled on the AP
C. The network has run out of wireless connections
D. The host is enabled to run 802.11b and 802.11g



12.12
Which is the highest encryption that WPA2 can use?
A. AES-CCMP
B. PPK via IV
C. PSK
D. TKIP/MIC


Which is the highest encryption that WPA2 can use?
A. AES-CCMP
B. PPK via IV
C. PSK
D. TKIP/MIC



12.13
Which additional configuration step is necessary in order to connect to an access point that
has SSID broadcasting disabled?
A. Set the SSID value in the client software to public.
B. Configure open authentication on the AP and the client.
C. Set the SSID value on the client to the SSID configured on the AP.
D. Configure MAC address filtering to permit the client to connect to the AP.


Which additional configuration step is necessary in order to connect to an access point that
has SSID broadcasting disabled?
A. Set the SSID value in the client software to public.
B. Configure open authentication on the AP and the client.
C. Set the SSID value on the client to the SSID configured on the AP.
D. Configure MAC address filtering to permit the client to connect to the AP.



12.14
Which spread-spectrum technology does the 802.11b standard define for operation?
A. IR
B. DSSS
C. FHSS
D. DSSS and FHSS
E. IR, FHSS, and DSSS


Which spread-spectrum technology does the 802.11b standard define for operation?
A. IR
B. DSSS
C. FHSS
D. DSSS and FHSS
E. IR, FHSS, and DSSS



12.15
Which wireless LAN design ensures that a mobile wireless client will not lose connectivity
when moving from one access point to another?
A. Using adapters and access points manufactured by the same company
B. Overlapping the wireless cell coverage by at least 10%
C. Configuring all access points to use the same channel
D. Utilizing MAC address filtering to allow the client MAC address to authenticate with
the surrounding APs


Which wireless LAN design ensures that a mobile wireless client will not lose connectivity
when moving from one access point to another?
A. Using adapters and access points manufactured by the same company
B. Overlapping the wireless cell coverage by at least 10%
C. Configuring all access points to use the same channel
D. Utilizing MAC address filtering to allow the client MAC address to authenticate with
the surrounding APs



12.16
You have installed a point-to-point connection using wireless bridges and omni-directional
antennas between two buildings. The throughput is low. What can you do to improve the link?
A. Replace the bridges with AP’s
B. Replace the omni-directional antennas with Yagi’s
C. Configure 802.11a on the links
D. Install amps to boost the signal


You have installed a point-to-point connection using wireless bridges and omni-directional
antennas between two buildings. The throughput is low. What can you do to improve the link?
A. Replace the bridges with AP’s
B. Replace the omni-directional antennas with Yagi’s
C. Configure 802.11a on the links
D. Install amps to boost the signal



12.17
What does Extended Service Set ID mean (ESS)?
A. That you have more than one access point, and they are in the same SSID connected by
a distribution system
B. That you have more than one access point, and they are in separate SSIDs connected
by a distribution system
C. That you have multiple access points, but they are placed physically in different buildings
D. That you have multiple access points, but one is a repeater access point


What does Extended Service Set ID mean (ESS)?
A. That you have more than one access point, and they are in the same SSID connected by
a distribution system

B. That you have more than one access point, and they are in separate SSIDs connected
by a distribution system
C. That you have multiple access points, but they are placed physically in different buildings
D. That you have multiple access points, but one is a repeater access point



12.18
What is one reason that WPA encryption is preferred over WEP?
A. A WPA key is longer and requires more special characters than the WEP key.
B. The access point and the client are manually configured with different WPA key values.
C. WPA key values remain the same until the client configuration is changed.
D. The values of WPA keys can change dynamically while the system is used.


What is one reason that WPA encryption is preferred over WEP?
A. A WPA key is longer and requires more special characters than the WEP key.
B. The access point and the client are manually configured with different WPA key values.
C. WPA key values remain the same until the client configuration is changed.
D. The values of WPA keys can change dynamically while the system is used.



12.19
How wide are the channels used in 802.11n in order to gain the large bandwidth that the
specification provides?
A. 22MHz
B. 20Mhz
C. 40Mhz
D. 100Mhz


How wide are the channels used in 802.11n in order to gain the large bandwidth that the
specification provides?
A. 22MHz
B. 20Mhz
C. 40Mhz
D. 100Mhz



12.20
802.11n uses MIMO. How does this optimize throughput to gain the high speed advantage
that 802.11n provides?
A. By specifying an acknowledgment of each and every frame, 802.11n provides better
overhead.
B. Several frames are sent by several antennae over several paths and are then recombined
by another set of antennae.
C. One frame at a time is sent, but faster than in 802.11g because multiple antennas are
used (multiple-in, multiple-out).
D. MIMO packs smaller packets into a single unit, which improves throughput.


802.11n uses MIMO. How does this optimize throughput to gain the high speed advantage
that 802.11n provides?
A. By specifying an acknowledgment of each and every frame, 802.11n provides better
overhead.
B. Several frames are sent by several antennae over several paths and are then recombined
by another set of antennae.

C. One frame at a time is sent, but faster than in 802.11g because multiple antennas are
used (multiple-in, multiple-out).
D. MIMO packs smaller packets into a single unit, which improves throughput.




12.27
APs come set up with what type of security enabled by default?

None


12.28
Why would we use WPA instead of basic WEP?

The values of WPA keys can change dynamically while the system is used.


12.29
Which IEEE committee has been sanctioned by WPA and is called WPA 2?

The IEEE 802.11i standard has been sanctioned by WPA and is called WPA version 2.


12.30
The IEEE 802.11b/g basic standard has how many non-overlapping channels?

Three (1, 6, 11)


12.101
Provide the missing information.

Wireless Standard: ?
Frequency: 5 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: 54 Mbps
Transmission Method: OFDM
Range: 35 m indoors/ 120 outdoors

Wireless Standard: 802.11a
Frequency: 5 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: 54 Mbps
Transmission Method: OFDM
Range: 35 m indoors/ 120 outdoors



12.102
Provide the missing information.

Wireless Standard: 802.11a
Frequency: ?
Maximum Data Rate: 54 Mbps
Transmission Method: OFDM
Range: 35 m indoors/ 120 outdoors


Wireless Standard: 802.11a
Frequency: 5 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: 54 Mbps
Transmission Method: OFDM
Range: 35 m indoors/ 120 outdoors



12.103
Provide the missing information.

Wireless Standard: 802.11a
Frequency: 5 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: ?
Transmission Method: OFDM
Range: 35 m indoors/ 120 outdoors


Wireless Standard: 802.11a
Frequency: 5 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: 54 Mbps
Transmission Method: OFDM
Range: 35 m indoors/ 120 outdoors



12.104
Provide the missing information.

Wireless Standard: 802.11a
Frequency: 5 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: 54 Mbps
Transmission Method: ?
Range: 35 m indoors/ 120 outdoors


Wireless Standard: 802.11a
Frequency: 5 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: 54 Mbps
Transmission Method: OFDM
Range: 35 m indoors/ 120 outdoors



12.105
Provide the missing information.

Wireless Standard: 802.11a
Frequency: 5 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: 54 Mbps
Transmission Method: OFDM
Range: ?


Wireless Standard: 802.11a
Frequency: 5 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: 54 Mbps
Transmission Method: OFDM
Range: 35 m indoors/ 120 outdoors



12.111
Provide the missing information.

Wireless Standard: ?
Frequency: 2.4 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: 11 Mbps
Transmission Method: DSSS
Range: s32 m indoors/ 140 m outdoor

Wireless Standard: 802.11b
Frequency: 2.4 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: 11 Mbps
Transmission Method: DSSS
Range: 32 m indoors/ 140 m outdoors



12.112
Provide the missing information.

Wireless Standard: 802.11b
Frequency: ?
Maximum Data Rate: 11 Mbps
Transmission Method: DSSS
Range: 32 m indoors/ 140 m outdoors


Wireless Standard: 802.11b
Frequency: 2.4 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: 11 Mbps
Transmission Method: DSSS
Range: 32 m indoors/ 140 m outdoors


12.113
Provide the missing information.

Wireless Standard: 802.11b
Frequency: 2.4 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: ?
Transmission Method: DSSS
Range: 32 m indoors/ 140 m outdoors

Wireless Standard: 802.11b
Frequency: 2.4 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: 11 Mbps
Transmission Method: DSSS
Range: 32 m indoors/ 140 m outdoors


12.114
Provide the missing information.

Wireless Standard: 802.11b
Frequency: 2.4 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: 11 Mbps
Transmission Method: ?
Range: 32 m indoors/ 140 m outdoors

Wireless Standard: 802.11b
Frequency: 2.4 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: 11 Mbps
Transmission Method: DSSS
Range: 32 m indoors/ 140 m outdoors


12.115
Provide the missing information.

Wireless Standard: 802.11b
Frequency: 2.4 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: 11 Mbps
Transmission Method: DSSS
Range: ?


Wireless Standard: 802.11b
Frequency: 2.4 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: 11 Mbps
Transmission Method: DSSS
Range: 32 m indoors/ 140 m outdoors



12.121
Provide the missing information.

Wireless Standard: ?
Frequency: 2.4 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: 54 Mbps
Transmission Method: OFDM or DSSS
Range: 32 m indoors/ 140 m outdoors

Wireless Standard: 802.11g
Frequency: 2.4 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: 54 Mbps
Transmission Method: OFDM or DSSS
Range: 32 m indoors/ 140 m outdoors



12.122
Provide the missing information.

Wireless Standard: 802.11g
Frequency: ?
Maximum Data Rate: 54 Mbps
Transmission Method: OFDM or DSSS
Range: 32 m indoors/ 140 m outdoors


Wireless Standard: 802.11g
Frequency: 2.4 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: 54 Mbps
Transmission Method: OFDM or DSSS
Range: 32 m indoors/ 140 m outdoors



12.123
Provide the missing information.

Wireless Standard: 802.11g
Frequency: 2.4 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: ?
Transmission Method: OFDM or DSSS
Range: 32 m indoors/ 140 m outdoors


Wireless Standard: 802.11g
Frequency: 2.4 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: 54 Mbps
Transmission Method: OFDM or DSSS
Range: 32 m indoors/ 140 m outdoors



12.124
Provide the missing information.

Wireless Standard: 802.11g
Frequency: 2.4 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: 54 Mbps
Transmission Method: ?
Range: 32 m indoors/ 140 m outdoors

Wireless Standard: 802.11g
Frequency: 2.4 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: 54 Mbps
Transmission Method: OFDM or DSSS
Range: 32 m indoors/ 140 m outdoors



12.125
Provide the missing information.

Wireless Standard: 802.11g
Frequency: 2.4 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: 54 Mbps
Transmission Method: OFDM or DSSS
Range: ?


Wireless Standard: 802.11g
Frequency: 2.4 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: 54 Mbps
Transmission Method: OFDM or DSSS
Range: 32 m indoors/ 140 m outdoors



12.131
Provide the missing information.

Wireless Standard: ?
Frequency: 2.4 or 5 GHz (or both)
Maximum Data Rate: >300 Mbps (with channel bonding)
Transmission Method: OFDM
Range: 70 m indoors/ 250 m outdoors

Wireless Standard: 802.11n
Frequency: 2.4 or 5 GHz (or both)
Maximum Data Rate: >300 Mbps (with channel bonding)
Transmission Method: OFDM
Range: 70 m indoors/ 250 m outdoors



12.132
Provide the missing information.

Wireless Standard: 802.11n
Frequency: ?
Maximum Data Rate: >300 Mbps (with channel bonding)
Transmission Method: OFDM
Range: 70 m indoors/ 250 m outdoors


Wireless Standard: 802.11n
Frequency: 2.4 or 5 GHz (or both)
Maximum Data Rate: >300 Mbps (with channel bonding)
Transmission Method: OFDM
Range: 70 m indoors/ 250 m outdoors



12.133
Provide the missing information.

Wireless Standard: 802.11n
Frequency: 2.4 or 5 GHz (or both)
Maximum Data Rate: ?
Transmission Method: OFDM
Range: 70 m indoors/ 250 m outdoors


Wireless Standard: 802.11n
Frequency: 2.4 or 5 GHz (or both)
Maximum Data Rate: >300 Mbps (with channel bonding)
Transmission Method: OFDM
Range: 70 m indoors/ 250 m outdoors



12.134
Provide the missing information.

Wireless Standard: 802.11n
Frequency: 2.4 or 5 GHz (or both)
Maximum Data Rate: >300 Mbps (with channel bonding)
Transmission Method: ?
Range: 70 m indoors/ 250 m outdoors


Wireless Standard: 802.11n
Frequency: 2.4 or 5 GHz (or both)
Maximum Data Rate: >300 Mbps (with channel bonding)
Transmission Method: OFDM
Range: 70 m indoors/ 250 m outdoors



12.135
Provide the missing information.

Wireless Standard: 802.11n
Frequency: 2.4 or 5 GHz (or both)
Maximum Data Rate: >300 Mbps (with channel bonding)
Transmission Method: OFDM
Range: ?


Wireless Standard: 802.11n
Frequency: 2.4 or 5 GHz (or both)
Maximum Data Rate: >300 Mbps (with channel bonding)
Transmission Method: OFDM
Range: 70 m indoors/ 250 m outdoors



12.141
Provide the missing information.

Wireless Standard: ?
Frequency: 5 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: >6 Gbps (with MU-MIMO and multiple antennas)
Transmission Method: OFDM
Range: 70 m indoors/ 250 m outdoors

Wireless Standard: 802.11ac
Frequency: 5 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: >6 Gbps (with MU-MIMO and multiple antennas)
Transmission Method: OFDM
Range: 70 m indoors/ 250 m outdoors



12.142
Provide the missing information.

Wireless Standard: 802.11ac
Frequency: ?
Maximum Data Rate: >6 Gbps (with MU-MIMO and multiple antennas)
Transmission Method: OFDM
Range: 70 m indoors/ 250 m outdoors


Wireless Standard: 802.11ac
Frequency: 5 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: >6 Gbps (with MU-MIMO and multiple antennas)
Transmission Method: OFDM
Range: 70 m indoors/ 250 m outdoors



12.143
Provide the missing information.

Wireless Standard: 802.11ac
Frequency: 5 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: ?
Transmission Method: OFDM
Range: 70 m indoors/ 250 m outdoors


Wireless Standard: 802.11ac
Frequency: 5 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: >6 Gbps (with MU-MIMO and multiple antennas)
Transmission Method: OFDM
Range: 70 m indoors/ 250 m outdoors



12.144
Provide the missing information.

Wireless Standard: 802.11ac
Frequency: 5 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: >6 Gbps (with MU-MIMO and multiple antennas)
Transmission Method: ?
Range: 70 m indoors/ 250 m outdoors


Wireless Standard: 802.11ac
Frequency: 5 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: >6 Gbps (with MU-MIMO and multiple antennas)
Transmission Method: OFDM
Range: 70 m indoors/ 250 m outdoors



12.145
Provide the missing information.

Wireless Standard: 802.11ac
Frequency: 5 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: >6 Gbps (with MU-MIMO and multiple antennas)
Transmission Method: OFDM
Range: ?


Wireless Standard: 802.11ac
Frequency: 5 GHz
Maximum Data Rate: >6 Gbps (with MU-MIMO and multiple antennas)
Transmission Method: OFDM
Range: 70 m indoors/ 250 m outdoors



13.01
To reduce the possibility of security break-ins from unauthorized users, which should be
implemented?
A. Packet sniffers
B. Firewall
C. Port scanners
D. Intrusion detection system


To reduce the possibility of security break-ins from unauthorized users, which should be
implemented?
A. Packet sniffers
B. Firewall
C. Port scanners
D. Intrusion detection system



13.02
What is the main difference between a private network and a public network?
A. In a private network, everyone has access. In a public network, only authorized users
have access.
B. In a private network, only authorized users have access. In a public network, only
authorized users have access.
C. In a private network, only authorized users have access. In a public network, everyone
that is connected has access.
D. In a private network, everyone has access. In a public network, only the first 100 people
have access.

What is the main difference between a private network and a public network?
A. In a private network, everyone has access. In a public network, only authorized users
have access.
B. In a private network, only authorized users have access. In a public network, only
authorized users have access.
C. In a private network, only authorized users have access. In a public network, everyone
that is connected has access.

D. In a private network, everyone has access. In a public network, only the first 100 people
have access.



13.03
You have a remote user that can connect to the Internet but not to the office via their
VPN client. After determining the problem, which should be your next step?
A. Have the client reboot their host
B. Make sure the user has the correct VPN address and password
C. Have the client reinstall their VPN software
D. Reboot the router at the corporate office


You have a remote user that can connect to the Internet but not to the office via their
VPN client. After determining the problem, which should be your next step?
A. Have the client reboot their host
B. Make sure the user has the correct VPN address and password
C. Have the client reinstall their VPN software
D. Reboot the router at the corporate office



13.04
Which IP Address should you deny into your internetwork?
A. 126.10.10.0/8
B. 168.0.0.0/8
C. 128.0.0.0/8
D. 127.0.0.0/8


Which IP Address should you deny into your internetwork?
A. 126.10.10.0/8
B. 168.0.0.0/8
C. 128.0.0.0/8
D. 127.0.0.0/8 (This is an address from the restriced loopback
local host range.)



13.05
Which of the following is a tunneling protocol?
A. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
B. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)
C. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
D. All of the above


Which of the following is a tunneling protocol?
A. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
B. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)
C. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
D. All of the above



13.06
Which tunneling protocol is based on RSA public-key encryption?
A. SSL
B. L2TP
C. IPSec
D. SSL VPN


Which tunneling protocol is based on RSA public-key encryption?
A. SSL
B. L2TP
C. IPSec
D. SSL VPN



13.07
What is the minimum number of characters you should use when creating a secure password?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 15


What is the minimum number of characters you should use when creating a secure password?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 15



13.08
Which layer of the OSI model does IPSec operate in?
A. Physical
B. Network
C. Transport
D. Application


Which layer of the OSI model does IPSec operate in?
A. Physical
B. Network
C. Transport
D. Application



13.09
Which protocol works in both the transport mode and tunneling mode?
A. SSL
B. L2TP
C. PPTP
D. IPSec


Which protocol works in both the transport mode and tunneling mode?
A. SSL
B. L2TP
C. PPTP
D. IPSec



13.10
Companies that want to ensure their data is secure during transit should follow what
practice?
A. Firewalls
B. Encryption
C. Data accounting
D. Routing table


Companies that want to ensure their data is secure during transit should follow what
practice?
A. Firewalls
B. Encryption
C. Data accounting
D. Routing table



13.11
Which network utilities do not have the ability to encrypt passwords? (Select two.)
A. FTP
B. SSH
C. Telnet
D. SCP


Which network utilities do not have the ability to encrypt passwords? (Select two.)
A. FTP
B. SSH
C. Telnet
D. SCP



13.12
To encode or read an encrypted message, what tool is necessary?
A. Routing table
B. Internet access
C. Encryption key
D. Email address


To encode or read an encrypted message, what tool is necessary?
A. Routing table
B. Internet access
C. Encryption key
D. Email address



13.13
Which keys are known as symmetrical keys?
A. Private
B. Public
C. Diffie-Hellman
D. RSA


Which keys are known as symmetrical keys?
A. Private
B. Public
C. Diffie-Hellman
D. RSA



13.14
Which of the following is not a type of public-key encryption?
A. Diffie-Hellman algorithm
B. RSA Data Security
C. Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)
D. DES


Which of the following is not a type of public-key encryption?
A. Diffie-Hellman algorithm
B. RSA Data Security
C. Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)
D. DES



13.15
Which of the following VPN protocols runs over port 1723 and allows encryption to be
done at the data level, and allows secure access?
A. RAS
B. Radius
C. PPPoE
D. PPTP


Which of the following VPN protocols runs over port 1723 and allows encryption to be
done at the data level, and allows secure access?
A. RAS
B. Radius
C. PPPoE
D. PPTP



13.16
At which stage of PPPoE are the MAC addresses of each of the end points of the connection
given to each other so that a PPP connection can be made?
A. Session
B. Discovery
C. Transport
D. Final


At which stage of PPPoE are the MAC addresses of each of the end points of the connection
given to each other so that a PPP connection can be made?
A. Session
B. Discovery (FYI -- The second stage is the Session stage)
C. Transport
D. Final



13.17
A network administrator wanting to assign passwords to individual files, folders, or printers
would implement which type of security?
A. Building password
B. Group password
C. Share-level security
D. User-level security


A network administrator wanting to assign passwords to individual files, folders, or printers
would implement which type of security?
A. Building password
B. Group password
C. Share-level security
D. User-level security



13.18
Which of the following authentication methods allows for domain level authentication on
both wired and wireless networks?
A. RADIUS
B. TACACS+
C. PKI
D. RDP


Which of the following authentication methods allows for domain level authentication on
both wired and wireless networks?
A. RADIUS (RADIUS is capable of delivering both authentication and encryption in either wired or wireless networks.)
B. TACACS+
C. PKI
D. RDP



13.19
Which user-client-server authentication software system combines user authentication and
authorization into one central database and maintains user profiles?
A. RADIUS
B. TACACS+
C. Kerberos
D. PKI


Which user-client-server authentication software system combines user authentication and
authorization into one central database and maintains user profiles?
A. RADIUS
B. TACACS+
C. Kerberos
D. PKI



13.20
Which of the following is not a Network Access Control method?
A. CHAP
B. 802.1x
C. EAP
D. ICA


Which of the following is not a Network Access Control method?
A. CHAP
B. 802.1x
C. EAP
D. ICA (ICA -- Independent Computing Architecture -- is a protocol to enable remote desktops. It does not control access.)



13.21
What two types of addresses can access control lists filter?

IP addresses and MAC addresses


13.22
Which encryption protocol works with both IPv4 and IPv6?

IPSec


13.23
Which encryption protocol or standard allows you to create a virtual subnet on an intranet?

SSL VPN


13.24
Which user-authentication method uses a public key and private key pair?

PKI


13.25
In an authentication system that uses private and public keys, who should have access to the
private key?

Only the owner of the key


13.26
Which authentication method relies on tickets to grant access to resources?

Kerberos


13.27
In computer security, what does AAA stand for?

Authentication, authorization, and accounting


13.28
Which network-access security method is commonly used in wireless networks?

802.1x


13.29
Which user-authentication method is available only in an all-Windows environment?

MS-CHAP


13.30
Which user-authentication method utilizes the TCP protocol?

TACACS+



14.01
Which of the following is a type of denial of service attack?
A. Ping of Death
B. Stacheldraht
C. SYN flood
D. All of the above


Which of the following is a type of denial of service attack?
A. Ping of Death
B. Stacheldraht
C. SYN flood
D. All of the above



14.02
Which is not a type of threat that can affect your network?
A. Worm
B. Phishing
C. Access control list
D. Rogue access point


Which is not a type of threat that can affect your network?
A. Worm
B. Phishing
C. Access control list
D. Rogue access point



14.03
Which type of virus impacts .COM, .EXE, and .DLL files?
A. File viruses
B. SYN flood
C. Smurf
D. Tribe Flood Network


Which type of virus impacts .COM, .EXE, and .DLL files?
A. File viruses (Though the attacks below may employ a virus or backdoor to create zombie nets, they are DoS attacks… and not machine-specific.)
B. SYN flood
C. Smurf
D. Tribe Flood Network



14.04
Which type of virus uses the Visual Basic macro-scripting language to perform malicious or
mischievous functions in data files?
A. IP spoofing
B. File
C. Macro
D. None of the above


Which type of virus uses the Visual Basic macro-scripting language to perform malicious or
mischievous functions in data files?
A. IP spoofing
B. File
C. Macro
D. None of the above



14.05
Monkey B, Michelangelo, Stoned, and Stealth Boot are examples of which type of virus?
A. IP spoofing
B. Multipartite
C. Macro
D. Boot sector


Monkey B, Michelangelo, Stoned, and Stealth Boot are examples of which type of virus?
A. IP spoofing
B. Multipartite
C. Macro
D. Boot sector



14.06
Which type of virus affects both the boot sector and files on a computer?
A. Mulipartite
B. Macro
C. Tribe Flood Network 2000 (TFN2K)
D. Smurf


Which type of virus affects both the boot sector and files on a computer?
A. Mulipartite
B. Macro
C. Tribe Flood Network 2000 (TFN2K)
D. Smurf



14.07
What is the main difference between a worm and a virus?
A. Worms require user action for replication.
B. Viruses do not require user intervention for replication.
C. Worms can replicate without user intervention.
D. None of the above


What is the main difference between a worm and a virus?
A. Worms require user action for replication.
B. Viruses do not require user intervention for replication.
C. Worms can replicate without user intervention.
D. None of the above



14.08
What kind of attack could a hacker use to target a network that tries to log in to some type
of shared network resource?
A. Packet sniffers
B. Brute-force attack
C. Worm
D. Backdoor


What kind of attack could a hacker use to target a network that tries to log in to some type
of shared network resource?
A. Packet sniffers
B. Brute-force attack (This is the only attack type that “tries to log in.”)
C. Worm
D. Backdoor



14.09
What type of security threat allows an attacker to learn your password through the use of
an email or phone call?
A. Phishing
B. Trust-exploration attack
C. Man-in-the-middle attack
D. Rogue access point


What type of security threat allows an attacker to learn your password through the use of
an email or phone call?
A. Phishing
B. Trust-exploration attack
C. Man-in-the-middle attack
D. Rogue access point



14.10
Which type of policy should be implemented to secure important company documents and
materials when employees leave their workstations?
A. Clean housekeeping
B. Clean desk
C. Security audit
D. Proactive defense


Which type of policy should be implemented to secure important company documents and
materials when employees leave their workstations?
A. Clean housekeeping
B. Clean desk
C. Security audit
D. Proactive defense



14.11
If you implement a set of policies and procedures that define corporate information as
confidential and then train employees on these procedures prevents what type of attack?
A. DoS
B. Man-in-the-middle attacks
C. Smurf
D. Social engineering


If you implement a set of policies and procedures that define corporate information as
confidential and then train employees on these procedures prevents what type of attack?
A. DoS
B. Man-in-the-middle attacks
C. Smurf
D. Social engineering



14.12
If an employee leaves a company voluntarily, what type of interview should be conducted?
A. Entrance
B. Application
C. Exit
D. Manager rating


If an employee leaves a company voluntarily, what type of interview should be conducted?
A. Entrance
B. Application
C. Exit
D. Manager rating



14.13
What defines the appropriate response to a security event on a network?
A. Implementing security procedures
B. Installing a new router
C. Turning off the network
D. HR policy for dress code


What defines the appropriate response to a security event on a network?
A. Implementing security procedures
B. Installing a new router
C. Turning off the network
D. HR policy for dress code



14.14
What type of virus works its way into the master boot record and changes the pointer to
your operating system?
A. DoD virus
B. Boot-sector virus
C. File-system virus
D. Macro virus


What type of virus works its way into the master boot record and changes the pointer to
your operating system?
A. DoD virus
B. Boot-sector virus
C. File-system virus
D. Macro virus



14.15
What process allows you to update your Windows-based operating system?
A. Technet
B. Windows Update
C. Text message
D. Hot fix


What process allows you to update your Windows-based operating system?
A. Technet
B. Windows Update
C. Text message
D. Hot fix



14.16
Why is it important to keep your system patched and up to date?
A. To completely stop your need for security
B. To increase the functionality of your applications
C. To fix system vulnerabilities
D. To make Windows completely safe and worry free


Why is it important to keep your system patched and up to date?
A. To completely stop your need for security
B. To increase the functionality of your applications
C. To fix system vulnerabilities
D. To make Windows completely safe and worry free



14.17
A network administrator wanting to assign passwords to network resources only would
implement which type of security?
A. Building password
B. Group password
C. Share-level security
D. User-level security


A network administrator wanting to assign passwords to network resources only would
implement which type of security?
A. Building password
B. Group password
C. Share-level security
D. User-level security



14.18
Which type of scanning allows an antivirus program to search for a virus even if there is no
definition for it?
A. Update scan
B. Signature-file scan
C. Database scan
D. Heuristic scan


Which type of scanning allows an antivirus program to search for a virus even if there is no
definition for it?
A. Update scan
B. Signature-file scan
C. Database scan
D. Heuristic scan



14.19
What type of files need to be updated in order for your antivirus program to have the latest
information about attacks and viruses?
A. Definition files
B. Email files
C. .doc files
D. .exe files


What type of files need to be updated in order for your antivirus program to have the latest
information about attacks and viruses?
A. Definition files
B. Email files
C. .doc files
D. .exe files



14.20
What type of scan can be done by an antivirus program?
A. Emergency
B. On-demand
C. On-access
D. All of the above


What type of scan can be done by an antivirus program?
A. Emergency
B. On-demand
C. On-access
D. All of the above (Note that in the Emergency mode, only the AV and OS are running. All other applications are shut down. This is accessed via the AV’s emergency disk.)



14.21
The Ping of Death and SYN floods are examples of what types of attack?

Denial of service (DoS)


14.22
How often should you update your virus definitions in your antivirus software?

Once per week


14.23
What is the U.S. Department of Defense standard for individual computers?

Trusted computer system


14.24
What type of virus attacks executable programs?

A file virus


14.25
What kind of tool could a hacker use to intercept traffic on your network?

Packet sniffer


14.26
What type of virus uses Microsoft’s Visual Basic scripting language?

A macro virus


14.27
What is it called when someone intercepts traffic on your network that’s intended for a different
destination computer?


Man-in-the-middle attack


14.28
If someone installed a wireless router on your network without your knowledge, that would
be called___________________.


A rogue access point


14.29
What software application can help automatically ensure that your Windows-based computers
have the most current security patches?


Windows Update


14.30
The two different types of virus scans are ___________________.

On-demand and on-access



15.01
In general, firewalls work by ___________________.
A. Rejecting all packets regardless of security restrictions
B. Forwarding all packets regardless of security restrictions
C. Allowing only packets that pass security restrictions to be forwarded
D. None of the above


In general, firewalls work by ___________________.
A. Rejecting all packets regardless of security restrictions
B. Forwarding all packets regardless of security restrictions
C. Allowing only packets that pass security restrictions to be forwarded
D. None of the above



15.02
Which layer of the OSI model do software firewalls operate in? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Physical
D. Network


Which layer of the OSI model do software firewalls operate in? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Physical
D. Network



15.03
What is the main difference between a network-based firewall and a host-based firewall?
A. A network-based firewall protects the Internet from attacks.
B. A network-based firewall protects a network, not just a single host.
C. A network-based firewall protects the network wires.
D. A network-based firewall protects a CD from data loss.


What is the main difference between a network-based firewall and a host-based firewall?
A. A network-based firewall protects the Internet from attacks.
B. A network-based firewall protects a network, not just a single host.
C. A network-based firewall protects the network wires.
D. A network-based firewall protects a CD from data loss.



15.04
What is one advantage that a stateless firewall has over its stateful counterparts?
A. It’s faster.
B. It utilizes less memory.
C. It’s better at preventing network attacks.
D. It works better on external networks.


What is one advantage that a stateless firewall has over its stateful counterparts?
A. It’s faster.
B. It utilizes less memory.
C. It’s better at preventing network attacks.
D. It works better on external networks.



15.05
A network administrator needs to filter unwanted packets when implementing the company's’
security policies. What should be implemented to help exercise control over future
network traffic?
A. Access control list (ACL)
B. Proxy server
C. Intrusion Prevention System
D. VPN concentrator


A network administrator needs to filter unwanted packets when implementing the company's’
security policies. What should be implemented to help exercise control over future
network traffic?
A. Access control list (ACL) (ACL’s allow routers to filter packets, and give admins greater control over network traffic.)
B. Proxy server
C. Intrusion Prevention System
D. VPN concentrator



15.06
What is the benefit of using a firewall?
A. Protects external users
B. Protects external hardware
C. Protects LAN resources
D. Protects hardware from failure


What is the benefit of using a firewall?
A. Protects external users
B. Protects external hardware
C. Protects LAN resources
D. Protects hardware from failure



15.07
Your company uses a custom TCP port number of 9080 that is hosted on your DMZ server.
Users can no longer access a custom application that uses this port. You’ve verified that
the firewall is permitting this TCP port. Which command can you use to verify the DMZ
server is still accepting connections on TCP port 9080?
A. ping
B. telnet
C. nbtstat
D. netstat
E. ipconfig


Your company uses a custom TCP port number of 9080 that is hosted on your DMZ server.
Users can no longer access a custom application that uses this port. You’ve verified that
the firewall is permitting this TCP port. Which command can you use to verify the DMZ
server is still accepting connections on TCP port 9080?
A. ping
B. telnet
C. nbtstat
D. netstat
E. ipconfig



15.08
Which device can limit traffic on a network and allow access onto specific TCP/IP port
numbers when security is a concern?
A. Hub
B. Firewall
C. DNS
D. Modem


Which device can limit traffic on a network and allow access onto specific TCP/IP port
numbers when security is a concern?
A. Hub
B. Firewall
C. DNS
D. Modem



15.09
Which is not a type of access control list (ACL)?
A. Standard
B. Extended
C. Referred
D. Outbound


Which is not a type of access control list (ACL)?
A. Standard
B. Extended
C. Referred
D. Outbound



15.10
A network administrator is creating an outbound ACL. Which of the following is not a
general access-list guideline that should be followed when the network administrator is
creating and implementing ACLs on the router?
A. Use only one ACL per interface per protocol per direction.
B. Place IP-extended ACLs as far away from the source as possible.
C. Create ACLs and then apply them to an interface.
D. Every list should have at least one permit statement or it will deny all traffic.


A network administrator is creating an outbound ACL. Which of the following is not a
general access-list guideline that should be followed when the network administrator is
creating and implementing ACLs on the router?
A. Use only one ACL per interface per protocol per direction.
B. Place IP-extended ACLs as far away from the source as possible.
C. Create ACLs and then apply them to an interface.
D. Every list should have at least one permit statement or it will deny all traffic.



15.11
What is the best explanation for a DMZ?
A. To separate a security zone for an IPS and IDS server
B. To create a security zone for VPN terminations
C. To create a security zone that allows public traffic but is isolated from the private
inside network
D. To create a security zone that allows private traffic but is isolated from the public
network


What is the best explanation for a DMZ?
A. To separate a security zone for an IPS and IDS server
B. To create a security zone for VPN terminations
C. To create a security zone that allows public traffic but is isolated from the private
inside network

D. To create a security zone that allows private traffic but is isolated from the public
network



15.12
Which of the following are types of services that firewalls can provide? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Content filtering
B. Segregate network segments
C. Signature identification
D. Scanning services
E. All of the above


Which of the following are types of services that firewalls can provide? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Content filtering
B. Segregate network segments
C. Signature identification
D. Scanning services
E. All of the above



15.13
Which type of security device monitors network traffic, looking for signs of an intrusion?
A. Intrusion Detection System
B. Demilitarized zone (DMZ)
C. Firewall
D. VPN concentrator


Which type of security device monitors network traffic, looking for signs of an intrusion?
A. Intrusion Detection System
B. Demilitarized zone (DMZ)
C. Firewall
D. VPN concentrator



15.14
Which of these application-layer protocols is not secure?
A. SSH
B. HTTP
C. HTTPS
D. SNMPv3


Which of these application-layer protocols is not secure?
A. SSH
B. HTTP
C. HTTPS
D. SNMPv3



15.15
Which of these application-layer protocols is secure?
A. SFTP
B. RSH
C. SNMPv1
D. SNMPv2


Which of these application-layer protocols is secure?
A. SFTP (Note that SMTPv3 is secure, but v1 and v2 are not.)
B. RSH
C. SNMPv1
D. SNMPv2



15.16
Changing network configurations, terminating sessions, and deceiving the attacker are
actions that can be taken from what type of security device?
A. Access control list (ACL)
B. Content filtering
C. Security zones
D. Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)


Changing network configurations, terminating sessions, and deceiving the attacker are
actions that can be taken from what type of security device?
A. Access control list (ACL)
B. Content filtering
C. Security zones
D. Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)



15.17
Which of the following are access-control principles that should be followed? (Choose all
that apply.)
A. Use implicit deny or allow.
B. Follow the least-privilege model.
C. Separate out administrative duties.
D. Rotate administrator jobs.
E. All of the above


Which of the following are access-control principles that should be followed? (Choose all
that apply.)
A. Use implicit deny or allow.
B. Follow the least-privilege model.
C. Separate out administrative duties.
D. Rotate administrator jobs.
E. All of the above<.b>



15.18
Which protocol uses port 22 by default?
A. Telnet
B. FTP
C. SSH
D. HTTPS


Which protocol uses port 22 by default?
A. Telnet
B. FTP
C. SSH
D. HTTPS



15.19
A network administrator needs to transfer files from one computer to another. What protocol
would most likely be used in this scenario?
A. Telnet
B. FTP
C. HTTP
D. RCP


A network administrator needs to transfer files from one computer to another. What protocol
would most likely be used in this scenario?
A. Telnet
B. FTP
C. HTTP
D. RCP



15.20
What protocol can be used to transfer files and is similar to FTP but not secure?
A. SCP
B. SFTP
C. SSH
D. TFTP


What protocol can be used to transfer files and is similar to FTP but not secure?
A. SCP
B. SFTP
C. SSH
D. TFTP (This question is phrased odd, since FTP is not secure either.)



15.21
Which type of security device employs a redirection device known as a honeypot?

Intrusion Prevention System


15.22
Which type of firewall keeps track of existing connections passing through it?

Stateful


15.23
If you wanted to ensure that your firewall could block inflammatory email, which type of
service would you look for?


Content filtering


15.24
A firewall’s list of rules that it uses to block traffic is called ___________________.

Access Control List (ACL)


15.25
If you wanted to allow remote access to 500 users, which type of device is recommended?

A VPN concentrator


15.26
If data from one of your subnets should be restricted from entering another subnet, the
subnets should be configured as different ___________________.


Security zones


15.27
Which unsecure protocol uses port 80 by default?

HTTP


15.28
Which unsecure protocol utilizes arbitrary port numbers to complete its work?

FTP


15.29
What port number does Secure Shell (SSH) use by default?

22


15.30
Logging, notification, and shunning are what types of reactions from what type of
security device?


Passive reactions from an IDS