Network Security Fundamentals

Front 1

What are three characteristics of Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)?

Back 1

It can span several years

It targets sensitive proprietary information

It uses advanced tools and techniques

Front 2

What type of attackers break into a computer system without the owner's permission and publicly disclose the vulnerability?

Back 2

Black hat hackers

Front 3

What are three reasons why it is difficult to defend against today's attackers?

Back 3

Increased speed of attacks

Simplicity of attack tools

delays in security updating

Front 4

Why can brokers command such a high price for what they sell?

Back 4

The vulnerability was previously unknown and is unlikely to be patched quickly.

Front 5

How would you describe the term "security" in a general sense?

Back 5

The necessary steps to protect a person or property from harm

Front 6

_____ ensures that only authorized parties can view the information.

Back 6

Confidentiality

Front 7

What are the 3 successive layer in which information security is achieved?

Back 7

Products

Procedures

People

Front 8

What is a person or element that has the power to carry out a threat?

Back 8

Threat agent

Front 9

_____ ensures that individuals are who they claim to be.

Back 9

Authentication

Front 10

What is the difference between a hacktivist and a cyberterrorist?

Back 10

The aim of a hacktivist is not to incite panic like cyberterrorists.

Front 11

What are 3 goals of information security?

Back 11

Foil Cyberterrorism

Prevent data theft

limit access control

Front 12

Which act requires enterprises to guard protected health information and implement policies and procedures to safeguard it?

Back 12

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

Front 13

Why do cyberterrorists target power plants, air traffic control centers, and water systems?

Back 13

They can cause significant disruption by destroying only a few targets.

Front 14

What are the steps of the Cyber Kill Chain

Back 14

Reconnaissance

Weaponization

Delivery

Exploitation

Installation

Command & Control

Actions on Objectives

Front 15

An organization that purchased security products from different vendors is demonstrating which security principle?

Back 15

Diversity

Front 16

Who could be classified as an "insider"

Back 16

Business partners

Contractors

Employees

Front 17

What are attackers called who belong to a network of identity thieves and financial fraudsters?

Back 17

Cybercriminals

Front 18

What is an objective of state-sponsored attackers?

Back 18

To spy on citizens

Front 19

An example of _____ is not revealing the type of computer, operating system, software, and network connection a computer uses.

Back 19

Obscurity

Front 20

The _____ is primarily responsible for assessing, managing, and implementing security.

Back 20

Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)

Front 21

A(n) ________ requires a user to transport it from one computer to another.

Back 21

Virus

Front 22

What are three actions a virus can take?

Back 22

Cause a computer to crash

erase files from a hard drive

reformat the hard disk drive

Front 23

Which malware locks up a user's computer and then displays a message that purports to come from a law enforcement agency?

Back 23

Ransomware

Front 24

What is an attempt to influence a user by coercion?

Back 24

Intimidation

Front 25

A user who installs a program that prints out coupons but in the background silently collects her passwords has installed a _____.

Back 25

Trojan

Front 26

What should you do to completely remove a rootkit from a computer?

Back 26

Reformat the hard drive and reinstall the operating system.

Front 27

What are three examples of a logic bomb?

Back 27

Erase all data if John Smith's name is removed from the list of employees

Reformat the hard drive three months after Susan left the company

If the company's stock price drops below $10, credit Jeff with 10 additional years of retirement credit

Front 28

What is it called when a user makes a typing error when entering a URL that takes him or her to an imposter website?

Back 28

Typo Squatting

Front 29

Which of these is a general term used for describing software that gathers information without the user's consent?

Back 29

Spyware

Front 30

What are three true statement about keyloggers?

Back 30

Hardware keyloggers are installed between the keyboard connector and computer keyboard USB port

Keyloggers can be used to capture passwords, person info etc

Software keyloggers can be designed to send captured information automatically back to the attacker through the internet

Front 31

The preferred method today of bot herders for command and control of zombies is _____.

Back 31

Hypertext Transport Protocol (HTTP)

Front 32

A watering hole attack is directed against _____.

Back 32

Users who access a common website

Front 33

______ sends phishing messages only to wealthy individuals.

Back 33

Whaling

Front 34

What is an unsolicited instant messaging called?

Back 34

Spim

Front 35

Michelle pretends to be the help desk manager and calls Steve to trick him into giving her his password. What social engineering attack has Michelle performed?

Back 35

Impersonation

Front 36

How can an attacker use a hoax?

Back 36

A hoax could convince a user that a bad Trojan is circulating and that he should change his security settings.

Front 37

What are three useful items can dumpster diving provide?

Back 37

Calendars

Memos

Organizational Charts

Front 38

______ is following an authorized person through a secure door.

Back 38

Tailgating

Front 39

What are three reasons why adware is scorned?

Back 39

It can interfere with a user's productivity

It displays objectionable content

It can cause a computer to crash or slow down

Front 40

What is the term used for an attacker who controls multiple zombies in a botnet?

Back 40

Bot Herder

Front 41

What are 3 reasons why securing server-side web applications is difficult?

Back 41

Although traditional network security devices can block traditional network attacks, they can't always block web application attacks

Many web application attacks exploit previously unknown vulnerabilities

By design, dynamic server-side web applications accept user input that can contain malicious code.

Front 42

What are three HTTP header attacks?

Back 42

Referer

Response Splitting

Accept-Language

Front 43

What is another name for a locally shared object?

Back 43

Flash Cookie

Front 44

Browser plug-ins _______.

Back 44

Can be embedded inside a webpage but add-ons cannot

Front 45

An attacker who manipulates the maximum size of an integer type would be performing what kind of attack?

Back 45

Integer overflow

Front 46

What kind of attack is performed by an attacker who takes advantage of the inadvertent and unauthorized access built through three succeeding systems that all trust one another?

Back 46

Transistive

Front 47

Why can't traditional network security devices be used to block web application attacks?

Back 47

Traditional network security devices ignore the content of HTTP traffic, which is the vehicle of Web application attacks

Front 48

What do attackers use buffer overflows to do?

Back 48

Point to another area in data memory that contains the attacker's malware code.

Front 49

What is unique about a cross-site scripting (XSS) attack compared to other injection attacks?

Back 49

XSS does not attack the web application server to steal or corrupt its information.

Front 50

What is a cookie that was not created by the website being viewed called?

Back 50

Third-party cookie

Front 51

What is the basis of an SQL injection attack?

Back 51

To inject SQL statement through unfiltered user input.

Front 52

What are three actions that can be performed through a successful SQL injection attack?

Back 52

Display a list of customer telephone numbers

Discover the names of different fields in a table

Erase a database table

Front 53

Which markup language is designed to carry data?

Back 53

XML

Front 54

What type of attack involves an attacker access files in directories other than the root directory?

Back 54

Directory Traversal

Front 55

Which type of attack modifies the fields that contain the different characteristics of the data that is being transmitted?

Back 55

HTTP header

Front 56

What is a session token?

Back 56

A random string assigned by a web server

Front 57

What are three types of DoS attacks?

Back 57

SYN flood

Ping flood

Smurf

Front 58

What type of attack intercepts legitimate communication and forges a fictitious response to the sender?

Back 58

man-in-the-middle

Front 59

A replay attack _______.

Back 59

Makes a copy of the transmission for use at a later time.

Front 60

DNS poisoning _______.

Back 60

Substitutes DNS addresses so that the computer is automatically redirected to another device

Front 61

What type of controls are the processes for developing and ensuring that policies and procedures are carried out?

Back 61

Administrative Controls

Front 62

What are the activity phase controls?

Back 62

Compensating control - Alternative to normal control

Detective Control - discourage attack

Deterrent Control - identify attack

Preventive Control - Prevent attack

Corrective Control - Lessen damage of attack

Front 63

What is NOT designed to prevent individuals from entering sensitive areas but instead intended to direct traffic flow?

Back 63

Barricade

Front 64

What are three motion detection methods?

Back 64

Radio Frequency

Magnetism

Infrared

Front 65

The residential lock most often used for keeping out intruders is the ______.

Back 65

Keyed entry lock

Front 66

A lock that extends a solid metal bar in to the door frame for extra security is the ______.

Back 66

Deadbolt Lock

Front 67

What is true about a mantrap?

Back 67

It monitors and controls two interlocking doors to a room.

Front 68

What are three things that can be used along with fencing as a security perimeter?

Back 68

Rotating Spikes

Roller Barrier

Anticlimb Paint

Front 69

A _____ can be used to secure a mobile device.

Back 69

Cable Lock

Front 70

What are three characteristics of a Protected Distribution System (PDS)?

Back 70

Continuous Monitoring

Carrier can be hidden below a floor

Eliminates the need to seal connections

Front 71

What is the first step in securing an operating system?

Back 71

Develop the security policy

Front 72

What are three steps included in a typical configuration of a baseline?

Back 72

Changing any default settings that are insecure

Eliminating any unnecessary software

Enabling operating system security features

Front 73

What are three Microsoft Windows settings that can be configured through a security template?

Back 73

Account Policies

User Rights

System Services

Front 74

_____ allows for a single configuration to be set and then deployed to many or all users

Back 74

Group Policy

Front 75

A _______ addresses a specific customer situation and often may not be distributed outside that customer's organization.

Back 75

Hotfix

Front 76

What are some advantages of an automated patch update service?

Back 76

Admins can approve or decline updates for client systems, force updates to install by a specific date & obtain reports on what updates each comp needs

Downloading patches from a local server instead of using the vendors online service can save bandwidth and time since each comp doesn't have to connect o an external server

Specific types of updates that the organization does not test, such hotfixes, can automatically installed whenever they become available

Front 77

What are the states of data that Data Loss Prevention (DLP)s examine?

Back 77

Data in-use - data actions being performed

Data in-transit - actions that transmit data across a network

Data at-rest - Data stored on electronic media

Front 78

How does heuristic detection detect a virus?

Back 78

A virtualized environment is created and the code is executed in it

Front 79

What is a list of approved email senders referred to as?

Back 79

A Whitelist

Front 80

What are three statements about Data Loss Prevention (DLP)?

Back 80

It can scan data on a DVD

It can read inside compressed files

A policy violation can generate a report or block the data

Front 81

The Hashed Message Authentication Code (HMAC) _______.

Back 81

encrypts the key and the message

Front 82

What is the latest version of the Secure Hash Algorithm?

Back 82

SHA-3

Front 83

All of the following can be broke mathematically EXCEPT__________.

AES

3DES

SHA

OTP

Back 83

One Time Pad (OTP)

Front 84

Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman (ECDH) is an example of ______.

Back 84

in-band key exchange

Front 85

Which of the following key exchanges uses the same keys each time?

Diffie-Hellman Ephermeral (DHE)

Diffie-Hellman (DH)

Diffie-Hellman-RSA (DHRSA)

Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman (ECDH)

Back 85

Diffie-Hellman (DH)

Front 86

Public key systems that generate random public keys that are different for each session are called ________.

Back 86

Perfect forward secrecy

Front 87

What is data called that is to be encrypted by inputting it into a cryptographic algorithm?

Back 87

Plaintext

Front 88

What are the basic security protects for information that cryptography can provide?

Back 88

Integrity

Confidentiality

Authenticity

Front 89

What are the areas of a file in which steganography can hide data in?

Back 89

In data that is used to describe the content or structure of the actual data

In the file header fields that describe the file

In areas that contain the content data itself

Front 90

Proving that a user sent an email message is known as _______.

Back 90

Repudiation

Front 91

A(n) ________ is not decrypted but is only used for comparison purposes.

Back 91

Digest

Front 92

What are three characteristics of a secure hash algorithm?

Back 92

The results of a hash function should not be reversed

The hash should always be the same fixed size

A message cannot be produced from a predefined hash

Front 93

What protection is provided by hashing?

Back 93

Integrity

Front 94

What is the strongest symmetric cryptographic algorithm?

Back 94

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

Front 95

If Bob wants to send a secure message to Alice using an asymmetric cryptographic algorithm, which key does he use to encrypt the message?

Back 95

Alice's public key

Front 96

A digital signature can provide what three benefits?

Back 96

Prove the integrity of the message

Verify the sender

Enforce nonrepudiation

Front 97

What asymmetric cryptographic algorithm is the most secure?

Back 97

RSA

Front 98

What asymmetric encryption algorithm uses prime numbers?

Back 98

RSA

Front 99

The Trusted Platform Module (TPM) ______.

Back 99

Provides cryptographic services in hardware instead of software

Front 100

What has an onboard key generator and key storage facility, as well as accelerated symmetric and asymmetric encryption, and can back up sensitive material in an encrypted format?

Back 100

Hardware Security Module (HSM)

Front 101

A _________ is a specially formatted encrypted message that validates the information the CA requires to issue a digital certificate.

Back 101

Certificate Signing Request (CSR)

Front 102

_______ performs a real-time lookup of a digital certificate's status.

Back 102

Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP)

Front 103

________ are symmetric keys to encrypt and decrypt information exchanged during the session and to verify its integrity.

Back 103

Session keys

Front 104

What is considered the weakest cryptographic transport protocol?

Back 104

SSL v2.0

Front 105

The strongest technology that would assure Alice that Bob is the sender of a message is a(n) _______.

Back 105

Digital Certificate

Front 106

A digital certificate associates _________.

Back 106

The user's identity with his public key

Front 107

What are three things that Digital Certificates can be used for?

Back 107

To encrypt channels to provide secure communication between clients and servers

To verify the identity of clients and servers on the Web

To encrypt messages for secure email communications

Front 108

An entity that issues digital certificates is a _____.

Back 108

Certificate Authority

Front 109

A centralized directory of digital certificates is called a(n)__________.

Back 109

Certificate Repository

Front 110

In order to ensure a secure cryptographic connection between a web browser and a web server, a(n) ______ would be used.

Back 110

Server Digital Certificate

Front 111

A digital certificate that turns the address bar green is a(n) ______.

Back 111

Extended Validation SSL Certificate

Front 112

The ______-party trust model supports CA.

Back 112

Third

Front 113

Public Key Cryptography Standards (PKCS)______.

Back 113

Are a numbered set of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) standards that have been defined by the RSA corporation.

Composed of 15 standards.

Based on the RSA public key algorithm.

Front 114

What are three true statements about hierarchical trust models?

Back 114

The root signs all digital certificate authorities with a single key.

It assigns a single hierarchy with one master CA

The master CA is called the root

Front 115

Where can encryption keys be stored?

Back 115

In tokens

On the user's local system

Embedded in digital certificates

Front 116

Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) _________.

Back 116

Is the management of digital certificates

Front 117

A(n) _________ is a published set of rules that govern the operation of a PKI

Back 117

Certificate Policy

Front 118

What are the parts of the certificate life cycle?

Back 118

Creation-created and issued to user

Suspension-can occur multiple times in the life of a certificate if validity must be temporarily suspended

Revocation-Certificate is no longer valid

Expiration-Certificate can no longer be used

Front 119

_________ refers to a situation in which keys are managed by a third party, such as a trusted CA.

Back 119

Key Escrow

Front 120

________ is a protocol for securely accessing a remote computer.

Back 120

Secure Shell (SSH)

Front 121

What three secure features does a load balancer provide?

Back 121

Hide HTTP error pages

Remove server identification headers from HTTP responses

Block Denial-of-service (DoS) attacks

Front 122

What are the filtering mechanisms found in a firewall rule?

Back 122

Source/Destination Address

Protocol

Direction

Action

Source/Destination Port

Front 123

A(n) __________ can identify the application that send packets and then make decisions about filtering based on it.

Back 123

Application-aware Firewall

Front 124

What are some of the functions of an Internet content filter performs?

Back 124

URL filtering

Malware Inspection

Content Inspection

Front 125

How does Network Address Translation (NAT) improve security?

Back 125

It discards unsolicited packets

Front 126

How does a virtual LAN allow devices to be grouped?

Back 126

Logically

Front 127

Which device is easiest for an attacker to take advantage of in order to capture an analyze packets?

Back 127

Hub

Front 128

What are Three attacks that can be performed against a switch?

Back 128

MAC address impersonation

ARP poisoning

MAC flooding

Front 129

What are three true statements regarding a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ)?

Back 129

It can be configured to have one or two firewalls

It provides an extra degree of security

It typically includes an email or web server

Front 130

What is a true statement about network address translation (NAT) is true?

Back 130

It removes private addresses when the packet leaves the network

Front 131

What are three advantages of a load balancer?

Back 131

Network hosts can benefit from having optimized bandwidth

Network downtime can be reduced

DoS attacks can be detected and stopped

Front 132

A(n) ________ intercepts internal user requests and then processes those requests on behalf of the users.

Back 132

Proxy Server

Front 133

A reverse proxy _____.

Back 133

Routes incoming requests to the correct server

Front 134

What is the preferred location for installation of a spam filter?

Back 134

SMTP server

Front 135

A ______ watches for attacks and sounds an alert only when on occurs.

Back 135

Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS)

Front 136

A multipurpose security device is known as ______.

Back 136

Unified Threat Management (UTM)

Front 137

What are three things that can be used to hide information about the internal network?

Back 137

Subnetting

A Proxy Server

Network Address Translation (NAT)

Front 138

What is the difference between a network intrusion detection system (NIDS) and a network intrusion prevention system (NIPS)?

Back 138

A NIPS can take actions more quickly to combat an attack

Front 139

If a device is determined to have an out-of-date virus signature file, then Network Access Control (NAC) can redirect that device to a network by ______.

Back 139

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) poisoning

Front 140

A firewall using ________ is the most secure type of firewall.

Back 140

Stateful packet filtering

Front 141

Which high-speed storage network protocols used by a SAN is IP-based?

Back 141

iSCSI

Front 142

What Fibre Channel zone is the most restrictive?

Back 142

FC hard zone

Front 143

An attacker can use NetBIOS to determine what three things?

Back 143

Computer names

Contents of the remote name cache

List of resolved names

Front 144

What type of log can provide details regarding requests for specific files on a system?

Back 144

Access log

Front 145

What time of device log contains the most beneficial security data?

Back 145

Firewall log

Front 146

What type of cloud is offered to all users?

Back 146

Public Cloud

Front 147

What are three valid Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) error messages?

Back 147

Host Unreachable

Network Unreachable

Destination Network Unknown

Front 148

Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is used in what attacks?

Back 148

Smurf DoS attack

ICMP redirect attack

Ping of death

Front 149

What version of Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is considered the most secure?

Back 149

SNMPv3

Front 150

What Domain Name System (DNS) attack replaces a fraudulent IP address for a symbolic name?

Back 150

DNS poisoning

Front 151

What is the most secure protocol for transferring files?

Back 151

SFTP

Front 152

What are three techniques for securing a router?

Back 152

Securing all ports

Setting a strong administrator password

Using a meaningful router name

Front 153

What is a true statement about a flood guard?

Back 153

It prevents DoS or DDoS attacks.

Front 154

What are two entries in a firewall log that should be investigated?

Back 154

IP addresses that are being rejected and dropped

Suspicious outbound connections

Front 155

If a group of users must be separated from other users, which is the most secure network design?

Back 155

Connect them to different switches and routers

Front 156

Why is loop protection necessary?

Back 156

It prevents a broadcast storm that can cripple a network

Front 157

What does MAC limiting and filtering do?

Back 157

It limits devices that can connect to a switch

Front 158

In a network using IEEE 802.1x, a supplicant ______.

Back 158

Makes a request to the authenticator

Front 159

What is a true statement regarding security for a computer that boots to Apple Mac OS X and then runs a Windows virtual machine?

Back 159

The Windows virtual machine needs its own security

Front 160

What are three security concerns of a virtualized environment?

Back 160

VMs must be protected from both the outside world and also from other virtual machines on the same physical computer

Physical security appliances are not always designed to protect virtual systems

Live migration can immediately move on virtualized server to another hypervisor

Front 161

Which technology is predominately used for contactless payment systems?

Back 161

Near Field Communication (NFC)

Front 162

Bluetooth falls under the category of _____.

Back 162

Personal Area Network (PAN)

Front 163

What IEEE WLAN has the highest data rate?

Back 163

802.11ac

Front 164

What are some of the technologies found in a wireless broadband router?

Back 164

Firewall

Router

Access Point

Front 165

Why is a rogue AP a security vulnerability?

Back 165

It allows an attacker to bypass many of the network security configurations

Front 166

What are some of the risks when a home wireless router is not securely configured?

Back 166

An attacker can steal data from folders with sharing enabled

Usernames, passwords, and other info sent over the WLAN could be captured by an attacker.

Malware can be injected into a computer connected to the WLAN

Front 167

What Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) method is vulnerable?

Back 167

PIN method

Front 168

If Cora tries to access a free public Wi-Fi at a local coffee shop that requires her to first agree to an Acceptable User Policy (AUP) before continuing, what type of AP has she encountered?

Back 168

Captive Portal

Front 169

What is the unauthorized access of information from a wireless device through a Blue-tooth connection called?

Back 169

Bluesnarfing

Front 170

The primary design of a(n) ______ is to capture the transmissions from legitimate users.

Back 170

Evil Twin

Front 171

What is a vulnerability of MAC address filtering?

Back 171

MAC addresses are initially exchanged between wireless device and the AP in an unencrypted format

Front 172

What are three limitations of turning off the SSID broadcast from an AP?

Back 172

The SSID can easily be discovered, even when not contained in beacon frames, as it is still transmitted in other frames sent by the AP

Turning off the SSID broadcast may prevent users from being able to freely roam from one AP coverage area to another

Some versions of operating systems favor a network that broadcasts an SSID over one that does not.

Front 173

What is the primary weakness of wired equivalent privacy (WEP)?

Back 173

Its usage creates a detectable pattern

Front 174

WPA replaces WEP with _____.

Back 174

Temporal Key Integrity protocol (TKIP)

Front 175

A preshared key (PSK) of fewer than ______ characters may be subject to an attack if that key is a common dictionary word.

Back 175

20

Front 176

A WEP key that is 128 bits in length ______.

Back 176

Has an initalization vector (IV) that is the same length as a WEP key of 64 bits

Front 177

AES-CCMP is the encryption protocol standard used in _________.

Back 177

WPA2

Front 178

What is the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)?

Back 178

A framework for transporting authentication protocols

Front 179

Which technology should be used instead of LEAP?

Back 179

PEAP

Front 180

What are three types of wireless AP probes?

Back 180

Wireless device probe

Dedicated probe

AP probe

Front 181

What are three technologies that are a characteristic of a mobile device?

Back 181

Small form Factor

Local nonremovable data storage

Data synchronization capabilities

Front 182

What are three optional features found on most mobile devices?

Back 182

Digital Camera

Microphone

Removable storage media

Front 183

What type of computer most closely resembles a desktop computer?

Back 183

Laptop

Front 184

Tablet computers are designed for _______.

Back 184

Ease of use

Front 185

One of the first mobile devices was a _______.

Back 185

Personal Digital Assistant (PDA)

Front 186

What are the form factors of an SD card?

Back 186

Standard-Capacity (SDSC)

High-Capacity (SDHC)

eXtended-Capacity (SDXC)

Secure Digital Input Output (SDIO)

Front 187

What are the risks of connecting a mobile device to a public network?

Back 187

Public networks are beyond the control of the employee's organization

Public networks may be susceptible to man-in-the-middle attacks

Replay attacks can occur on public networks

Front 188

Mobile devices using ______ are at increased risk of targeted physical attacks.

Back 188

Location Services

Front 189

What is one reason Android devices are considered to be at a higher security risk than iOS devices?

Back 189

Android apps can be sideloaded

Front 190

What are some of the things a QR code can contain?

Back 190

URL

Email address

Phone number

Front 191

What prevents a mobile device from being used until the user enters the correct passcode?

Back 191

Lockscreen

Front 192

Bob has attempted to enter the passcode for his mobile device, but keeps entering the wrong code. Now he is asked to enter a special phrase to continue. This means that Bob's mobile device is configured to _________.

Back 192

Reset to factory settings

Front 193

What does containerization do?

Back 193

It separates personal data from corporate data

Front 194

What allows a device to be managed remotely

Back 194

Mobile Device Management (MDM)

Front 195

What are some of the security features for locating a lost or stolen mobile device?

Back 195

Remote lockout

Alarm

Thief Picture

Front 196

What enforces the location in which an app can function by tracking the location of the mobile device?

Back 196

Geo-Fencing

Front 197

What are some advantages of a BYOD organization?

Back 197

Flexibility

Increased employee performance

Reduced internal service

Front 198

What mobile device is the smallest?

Back 198

Subnotebook

Front 199

Where does a web-based computer store user files?

Back 199

On the Internet

Front 200

What is the current version of Terminal Access Control Access Control System (TACACS)?

Back 200

TACACS+

Front 201

How is the Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) used?

Back 201

It allows secure web domains to exchange user authentication and authorization data.

Front 202

A RADIUS authentication server requires that the _______ be authenticated first.

Back 202

Supplicant

Front 203

What four actions make up the AAA elements in network security?

Back 203

Identification-Review of credentials

Authentications-Validate credentials as genuine

Authorization-Permission granted for admittance

Access-Right given to access specific resources

Front 204

With the development of IEEE 802.1x port security, the _______ authentication server has seen even greater usage.

Back 204

RADIUS

Front 205

What authentication protocol is available as a free download that runs on Microsoft Windows, Apple Mac OS X, and Linux?

Back 205

Kerberos

Front 206

What is the version of the X.500 standard that runs on a personal computer over TCP/IP?

Back 206

LDAP

Front 207

A user entering her user name would correspond to the ______ action in access control.

Back 207

Identification

Front 208

A process functioning on behalf of the user who attempts to access a file is known as a(n) _________.

Back 208

Subject

Front 209

What is the name given to the individual who periodically reviews security settings and maintains records of access by users?

Back 209

Custodian

Front 210

In the __________ model, the end-user cannot change any security settings.

Back 210

Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

Front 211

What is a true statement about Rule Based Access Control (RBAC)?

Back 211

It dynamically assigns roles to subjects based on rules.

Front 212

_______ in access control means that if a condition is not explicitly met, then access is to be rejected.

Back 212

Implicit Deny

Front 213

What is a set of permissions that is attached to an object?

Back 213

Access Control List (ACL)

Front 214

Which Microsoft Windows feature provides centralized management and configuration of computers and remote users who are using Active Directory?

Back 214

Group Policy

Front 215

A(n) _______ constructs LDAP statements based on user inputs in order to retrieve information from the database or modify its contents.

Back 215

LDAP injection attack

Front 216

What is the least restrictive access control model?

Back 216

Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

Front 217

The principle known as ______ in access control means that each user should be given only the minimal amount of privileges necessary for that person to perform his job function.

Back 217

Least Privilege

Front 218

A(n) ________ is the person who is responsible for the information, determines the level of security needed for the data, and delegates security duties as required.

Back 218

Owner

Front 219

In the Mandatory Access Control (MAC) model, every subject and object _______.

Back 219

Is assigned a label.

Front 220

What authentication factor is based on a unique talent that a user possesses?

Back 220

What you do

Front 221

What are three characteristics of a weak password?

Back 221

A Common Dictionary word

Using personal information

Using a predictable sequence of chracters

Front 222

What attack is an attempt to compare a known digest to an unknown digest?

Back 222

Pre-image attack

Front 223

What algorithm is the weakest for creating password digests?

Back 223

LM (LAN Manager) has

Front 224

How is key stretching effective in resisting password attackis?

Back 224

It takes more time to generate candidate password digests

Front 225

What are reasons why users create weak passwords?

Back 225

Long and complex passwords are difficult to memorize

A security policy requires a password to be changed regularly

Having multiple passwords makes it hard to remember all of them

Front 226

What is a hybrid attack?

Back 226

An attack that slighly alters dictionary words

Front 227

A Time-based One-Time Password TOTP token code is valid _____.

Back 227

For as long as it appears on the device

Front 228

What is a token system that requires the user to enter the code along with a PIN called?

Back 228

Multifactor authentication system

Front 229

What is the name of a U.S. Department of Defense smart card that is used for identification of active-duty and reserve military personnel?

Back 229

Common Access Card

Front 230

Keystroke dynamics is an example of which type of biometrics?

Back 230

Behavioral

Front 231

Creating a pattern of where a user accesses a remote web account is an example of ______.

Back 231

Geolocation

Front 232

What is a decentralized open-source Federated Identity Management (FIM) that does not require specific software to be installed on the desktop?

Back 232

OpenID

Front 233

What are three human characteristics used for biometric identification?

Back 233

Retina

Face

Fingerprint

Front 234

_____ biometrics is related to the perception, thought processes, and understanding of the user.

Back 234

Cognative

Front 235

Using one authentication credential to access multiple accounts or applications is known as _____.

Back 235

Single Sign-on (SSO)

Front 236

What is a disadvantage of biometric readers?

Back 236

Cost

Front 237

What Single Sign-on (SSO) technology depends on tokens?

Back 237

OAuth

Front 238

Why should the account lockout threshold not be set too low?

Back 238

It could result in Denial of Service (DoS) attacks

Front 239

What One-time Password is event-driven?

Back 239

HMAC-based One-Time Password (HOTP)

Front 240

_______ is the process of developing an outline of procedures to be followed in the event of a major IT incident or an incident that directly impacts IT.

Back 240

IT contingency planning

Front 241

Who should be involved in a tabletop exercise?

Back 241

Individuals on a decision-making level

Front 242

The average amount of time that i will take a device to recover from a failure that is not a terminal failure is called the __________.

Back 242

Mean Time To Recovery (MTTR)

Front 243

What are three categories of fire suppression systems?

Back 243

Water sprinkler system

Clean agent system

Dry chemical system

Front 244

What are three things required for a fire to start?

Back 244

A chemical reaction that is the fire itself

a type of fuel or combustible material

sufficient oxygen to sustain the combustion

Front 245

An electrical fire like that which would be found in a computer data center is known as what type of fire?

Back 245

Class C

Front 246

What level of RAID uses disk mirroring and is considered fault-tolerant?

Back 246

Level 1

Front 247

A standby server that exists only to take over for another server in the event of its failure is known as a(n) ________.

Back 247

Asymmetric server cluster

Front 248

What does the abbreviation RAID represent?

Back 248

Redundant Array of Independent Drives

Front 249

What is an example of a nested RAID?

Back 249

Raid 0+1

Front 250

A(n) _______ is always running off its battery while the main power runs the battery charger.

Back 250

On-line UPS

Front 251

What type of site is essentially a duplicate of the production site and has all the equipment needed for an organization to continue running?

Back 251

Hot Site

Front 252

What are three functions a UPS can perform?

Back 252

Disconnect users and shut down the server

prevent any new users form logging on

notify all users that they must finish their work immediately and log off

Front 253

What are three characteristics of a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)?

Back 253

It is updated regularly

It is written

It is detailed

Front 254

What does an incremental backup do?

Back 254

Copies all files changed since the last full or incremental backup

Front 255

What are three basic questions to be asked regarding creating a data backup?

Back 255

What media should be used?

Where should the backup be stored?

What information should be backed up up?

Front 256

The chain of __________ documents that the evidence was under strict control at all times and no unauthorized person was given the opportunity to corrupt the evidence.

Back 256

Custody

Front 257

What is the maximum length of time that an organization can tolerate between data backups?

Back 257

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

Front 258

What data backup solution uses the magnetic disk as a temporary storage area?

Back 258

Disk to Disk to Tape (D2D2T)

Front 259

When an unauthorized event occurs, what is the first duty of the computer forensics response team?

Back 259

To secure the crime scene

Front 260

An event that appears to be a risk but turns out not to be one is called a _________.

Back 260

False positive

Front 261

What are the responses to risk?

Back 261

Transference-3rd party responsible for the risk

Risk Avoidance-identifying the risk and not engaging in the activity

Mitigation-Address the risk & make it less serious

Front 262

What are three approaches to the Simple Risk Model?

Back 262

Preventive-Prevent a loss from occuring

Detective-Monitor activity to determine where practices were not followed

Corrective-Restore the system to prior state before malicious event occured

Front 263

A(n) __________ risk control type would use video surveillance systems and barricades to limit access to secure sites.

Back 263

Operational

Front 264

A statement regarding due diligence would be found in which security policy?

Back 264

Security-related human resource policy

Front 265

What risk category addresses events that impact the daily business of the organization?

Back 265

Operational

Front 266

_______ management covers the procedures of managing object authorizations.

Back 266

Privilege

Front 267

What are three statements describing the characteristics of a policy?

Back 267

Policies define appropriate user behavior

Policies may be helpful if it is necessary to prosecute violators.

Policies identify what tools and procedures are needed

Front 268

__________ is defined as the obligations that are imposed on owners and operators of assets to exercise reasonable care of the assets and take necessary precautions to protect them.

Back 268

Due Care

Front 269

What is a collection of suggestions that should be implemented?

Back 269

Guideline

Front 270

What are three statements that are a guideline for developing a security policy?

Back 270

Notify users in advance that a new policy is being developed and why it is needed

Provide a sample of ppl affected by the policy w/ an opportunity to review the policy and comment on it

Prior to deployment, give users 2 weeks to review the policy and comment

Front 271

What are three things a security policy must do?

Back 271

Balance protection with productivity

Be capable of being implemented and enforced

Be concise and easy to understand

Front 272

Who are three people who should serve on a security policy development team?

Back 272

Senior-level administrator

Member of the legal staff

Member of management who can enforce the policy

Front 273

What policy defines the actions users may perform while accessing systems and net-working equipment?

Back 273

Acceptable user policy

Front 274

________ may be defined as the study of what people understand to be good and right behavior and how people make those judgements.

Back 274

Ethics

Front 275

What are three recommendations that would be found in a password management and complexity policy?

Back 275

Do not use the name of a pet

Do not use a password that is a word found in a dictionary

Do not use personally identifiable information

Front 276

For adult learners, a(n) ______ approach is often preferred.

Back 276

Andragogical

Front 277

Requiring employees to clear their workspace of all papers at the end of each business day is called ______.

Back 277

Clean desk policy

Front 278

What is the security risk of a P2P network?

Back 278

A virus can be transmitted

Front 279

What are three general security recommendations when using social networking sites?

Back 279

Consider carefully who is accepted as a friend

Show "limited friends" a reduced version of your profile

Disable options and then reopen them only as necessary

Front 280

At what point in a vulnerability assessment would an attack tree be utilized?

Back 280

Threat evaluation

Front 281

In the software development process, when should a design review be conducted?

Back 281

As the functional and design specifications are being developed based on the requirements.

Front 282

A(n) __________ attempts to penetrate a system in order to perform a simulated attack.

Back 282

Intrusive vulnerability scan

Front 283

A(n) _________ is an agreement between two parties that is not legally enforceable.

Back 283

Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)

Front 284

A _________ is a systematic and methodical evaluation of t he exposure of assets to attackers, forces of nature, and any other entity that could cause potential harm.

Back 284

Vulnerability assessment

Front 285

What are three things that can be classified as an asset?

Back 285

Buildings

Business partners

Employee database

Front 286

What are the steps in Risk Management?

Back 286

Asset Identification

Threat Evaluation

Vulnerability Appraisal

Risk Assessment

Risk Mitigation

Front 287

What are three true statements regarding vulnerability appraisal?

Back 287

Every asset must be viewed in light of each threat

Each threat could reveal multiple vulnerabilities

Each vulnerability should be cataloged

Front 288

________ constructs scenarios of the types of threats that assets can face in order to learn who the attackers are, why they attack, and what types of attacks may occur.

Back 288

Threat Modeling

Front 289

What is a current snapshot of the security of an organization?

Back 289

Vulnerability appraisal

Front 290

______ is a comparison of the present security state of a system to a standard established by the organization.

Back 290

Baseline reporting

Front 291

What are the states of a port that can be returned by a port scanner?

Back 291

Open

Blocked

Closed

Front 292

What are three true statements regarding TCP SYN port scanning?

Back 292

Instead of using the operating system's network functions, the port scanner generates IP packets itself and monitors for responses

The scanner host closes the connection before the handshake is completed

This scan type is also known as "half-open scanning" because it never actually opens a full TCP connection

Front 293

The protocol File Transfer Protocol (FTP) uses which two ports?

Back 293

20 and 21

Front 294

What are three functions of a vulnerability scanner?

Back 294

Detects which ports are served and which ports are browsed for each individual system

Maintains a log of all interactive network sessions

Detects when an application is compromised

Front 295

What is a true statement about the Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language (OVAL)?

Back 295

It attempts to standardize vulnerability assessments

Front 296

What are three true things about a honeypot?

Back 296

It is typically located in an area with limited security

It is intentionally configured with security vulnerabilities

It can direct an attacker's attention away from legitimate servers

Front 297

What is a true statement about vulnerability scanning?

Back 297

It uses automated software to scan for vulnerabilities

Front 298

If a tester is given the IP addresses, network diagrams and source code of customer applications, the tester is using what technique?

Back 298

White box

Front 299

If a software application aborts and leaves the program open, which control structure it is using?

Back 299

Fail-open