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100 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
When a radiographic examination is
warranted for a 10-year old child, the most
effective way to decrease radiation exposure
is to
A. use a thyroid collar and lead apron.
B. apply a radiation protection badge.
C. use high speed film.
D. decrease the kilovoltage to 50kVp.
E. take a panoramic film only.
Myxedema is associated with
A. insufficient parathyroid hormone.
B. excessive parathyroid hormone.
C. insufficient thyroid hormone.
D. excessive thyroid hormone.
Condensing osteitis in the periapical
region is indicative of a/an
A. acute inflammation of the pulp.
B. pulpal abscess.
C. chronic inflammation of the pulp.
D. early apical abscess formation.
E. None of the above. .
An ankylosed tooth is usually

A. nonvital.
B. associated with a root fracture.
C. infraerupted.
D. found in the permanent dentition.
For which of the following pathological conditions would a lower central incisor tooth be expected to respond to heat, cold and electric pulp test?
A. Apical cyst.
B. Acute apical abscess.
C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. 

D. Chronic apical periodontitis.
The microscopic appearance of the central
giant cell granuloma of the jaws is similar
to that of lesions which occur in
A. hyperparathyroidism.
B. Paget's disease.
C. cleidocranial dysplasia (dysostosis).
D. hyperpituitarism. .
B (brown tumor)
Radiographically, the opening of the
incisive canal may be misdiagnosed as a
1. branchial cyst.
2. nasopalatine cyst.
3. nasolabial cyst.
4. periradicular cyst.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the a
On a bite-wing radiograph of posterior teeth,
which of the following is most likely to be
misdiagnosed as proximal caries?
A. Cemento-enamel junction.
B. Marginal ridge.
C. Carabelli cusp.
D. Calculus.
E. Cemental tear
In children, the most common cause of a
fistula is a/an
A. acute periradicular abscess.
B. suppurative periradicular
C. acute periodontal abscess.
D. dentigerous cyst.
A large carious exposure occurs on a
permanent first molar of a 7-year old. There is
no periapical involvement and the tooth is
vital. The treatment should be to
A. cap the exposure with calcium
hydroxide and place zinc-oxide and
B. perform a pulpotomy and place
calcium hydroxide.
C. perform a pulpectomy.
D. extract the tooth and place a space
In a 4-year old child, the primary central
incisor has discoloured following a traumatic
injury. The treatment of choice is
A. pulpotomy.
B. pulpectomy.
C. observation.
D. extraction
A Le Fort I or Guerin fracture is a
A. fracture of the zygomatic arch.
B. horizontal fracture of the maxilla.
C. fracture of the malar complex
involving the floor of the orbit.
D. pyramidal fracture of the maxilla.
E. craniofacial dysjunction.
To prevent mesial drift of a permanent first molar, the ideal time to place a distal extension space maintainer is
A. as soon as the tooth erupts through
the gingival tissue.
B. after the permanent second molar has
C. immediately after extraction of the
primary second molar.
D. as soon as the extraction site of the
primary second molar has completely
A radiopaque area within the alveolar process
containing several rudimentary teeth suggests
A. periapical cemento-osseous
B. ameloblastoma.
C. compound odontoma.
D. complex odontoma.
E. Pindborg tumor
The minimum time to wait before placing
composite restorations after the
completion of a bleaching (whitening)
treatment is
A. 1 to 2 hours.
B. 24 to 48 hours.
C. 1 to 2 weeks.
D. 4 to 5 weeks
In an ideal Class I occlusion, the cusp of which
mandibular tooth is in contact with the central
fossa of the maxillary second molar?
A. Mesiobuccal cusp of the first molar.
B. Distobuccal cusp of the first molar.
C. Mesiobuccal cusp of the second molar.
D. Distobuccal cusp of the second molar
Which of the following is an indication for a
pulpotomy on a primary tooth?
A. Radiographic evidence of internal root
B. Involvement of interradicular bone with no
C. Involvement of interradicular bone with a
D. Signs and symptoms of pulpitis
A child has received a successful inferior
alveolar nerve block using 1.5ml of
lidocaine 2% with 1:100000 epinephrine.
However, during placement of a rubber
dam clamp on the first permanent molar,
the child complains that the “tooth ring” is
hurting. Which of the following is the
most appropriate management?
A. Wait 15 minutes until more profound
anesthesia is achieved.
B. Anesthetize the lingual nerve with
the remaining lidocaine.
C. Anesthetize the long buccal nerve
with the remaining lidocaine.
D. Proceed with treatment without
rubber dam.
Vitamin D is activated in the

A. skin upon ultraviolet radiation from the
B. liver upon hydroxylation.
C. kidney upon hydroxylation.
D. intestinal mucosa upon absorption
A cast partial denture replacing teeth 3.5 - 3.8
and 4.5 - 4.8 was permanently relined with
acrylic resin. At the delivery appointment,
when the rests of the framework are fully
seated on the abutment teeth the denture base
does not contact the supporting tissues. The
most likely cause of the problem is
A. the denture reline resin shrunk during
B. excess pressure was placed on the
rests during the impression
C. excess pressure was placed on the
denture base area during the
impression procedure.
D. the patient’s tissues have remodelled
Methyl methacrylate resins will perform better
than composite resins for long span,
temporary bridges because of superior
A. hardness.
B. fracture toughness.
C. wear resistance.
D. dimensional stability.
Which of the following bone lesions of the
mandible is/are malignant?
1. Osteosarcoma.
2. Osteochondroma.
3. Ewing's tumor.
4. Fibrous dysplasia.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Which of the following materials is most
likely to initiate a hypersensitivity
A. Titanium.
B. Gold.
C. Nickel chromium.
D. Chrome cobalt.
E. Silver amalgam.
What is the alloy of choice for the framework
of a resin-bonded fixed dental prosthesis?
A. Nickel-chromium.
B. Gold-palladium.
C. Gold-silver.
D. Gold-platinum-palladium.
When restoring an endodontically treated tooth,
the post

A. reinforces the root.
B. needs to end within 1mm of the apex.
C. retains the core.
Polyvinylsilopane impression materials have
A. polymerization shrinkage.
B. dimensional stability.
C. by-product formation.
D. linear expansion.
Incomplete tooth fracture
A. can readily be diagnosed using
B. most commonly involves the
supporting cusps.
C. is associated with medium to largesized
D. elicits dull, prolonged pain on
The etiologic agent for necrotizing ulcerative
gingivitis (NUG) is
A. bacterial.
B. viral.
C. fungal.
D. protozoan
A 60 year old patient in chronic renal failure presents with bilateral radiolucent mandibular lesions. Histological analysis reveals that these are giant cell lesions. This patient should be evaluated for
A. hyperparathyroidism. 
B. hyperthyroidism. C. hyperpituitarism. D. hypoparathyroidism.
Patients with known prion diseases such as Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease are characterized by
A. the disease being transmissible through air or casual contact with an infected patient.
B. needing no additional sterilization precautions in the management of the patient.
C. the disease usually being fatal within one year.
D. having an incubation time of 3-6 months for the disease
A periodontal screening and recording (PSR)
score of 3 for a sextant indicates that the
pockets are NOT deeper than
A. 3.0mm.
B. 3.5mm.
C. 4.0mm.
D. 5.5mm.
E. 6.0mm.
Which of the following require prophylactic antibiotics prior to dental procedures causing a bacteremia?
A. Implanted cardiac pacemakers.
B. Prosthetic cardiac valves.
C. Coronary artery bypass grafts.
D. Cardiac stents one year after placement
The terminal plane relationship of primary
second molars determines the
A. arch length between permanent second
B. future anteroposterior positions of
permanent first molars.
C. vertical dimensions of the mandible upon
eruption of permanent first molars.
D. amount of leeway space that is available
for permanent premolars and canines.
Naloxone reverses respiratory depression caused by
A. meperidine.
B. lorazepam.
C. alcohol.
D. phenobarbital
A. nexolone- opioid antagonist
When performing a frenectomy, a minimal
amount of anesthetic solution is used to prevent
A. distortion of the tissues.
B. sloughing.
C. secondary bleeding.
D. irritation.
In a normally developing occlusion, spaces
between primary incisors are called
A. physiological spaces.
B. primate spaces.
C. leeway spaces.
D. freeway spaces
Which of the following impression materials is
the LEAST flexible when set?
A. Polyvinyl siloxane.
B. Condensing silicone.
C. Polyether.
D. Polysulfide
In which of the following situations can topical
corticosteroids be used?
A. Angular cheilitis.
B. Candidiasis.
C. Herpes labialis.
D. Erosive lichen planus.
E. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
During matrix placement for a Class II cavity
preparation, a wedge is placed to
1. separate the teeth.
2. adapt the matrix to the gingival margin.
3. aid in the creation of a contact.
4. absorb moisture.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
The most efficient cutting instrument used in the root canal is a
A. barbed broach.
B. reamer.
C. k-type file.

D. Hedstrom file
In restoring occlusal anatomy, the protrusive
condylar path inclination has its primary
influence on the morphology of
A. cusp height.
B. anterior teeth only.
C. mesial inclines of maxillary cusps and
distal inclines of mandibular cusps.
D. mesial inclines of mandibular cusps and
distal inclines of maxillary cusps.
In composite resin restorations,
polycarboxylate cements are used as a base
because they are
A. sedative to a hyperemic pulp.
B. neutral in colour.
C. biocompatible.
D. None of the above.
Odontoblast nuclei displacement into adjacent
dentinal tubuli is thought to be

1 a reversible pathologic condition.
2 due to increased intrapulpal tissue pressure.
3 due to contraction of collagen fibres.
4 more frequent following the use of air coolant
rather than water coolant.
5 one of the first histological changes following
operative trauma.

a (1) (2) (3)
b (1) and (3)
c (2) and (4)
d (4) only
e All of the above.
A zinc oxide and eugenol cement placed
beneath a metallic restoration serves as a
1. thermal insulator.
2. electrical insulator.
3. cavosurface margin seal.
4. medicinal benefit to the pulp.
A. (1) (3) (4)
B. (2) (3) (4)
C. (1) (2) (4)
D. (1) (2) (3) .
Prior to the placement of polycarboxylate
cement as a base for a restoration, the cavity
preparation should be
A. painted with cavity varnish.
B. cleaned with hydrofluoric acid.
C. thoroughly dried with warm air.
D. cleaned with water and air dried
The physiologic rest position of the mandible
1. a position determined by the musculature.
2. a fairly constant position throughout life.
3. used in determining occlusal vertical
4. used when making a centric interocclusal
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Polycarboxylate cement may be used as a base
material beneath a metallic restoration
A. its thermal conductivity is similar to
dentin and enamel.
B. its thermal diffusivity is similar to
dentin and enamel.
C. its compressive strength when set
will resist forces of condensation.
D. All of the above
Pain upon vertical percussion on the incisal edge of an anterior tooth may indicate the possible presence of
A. chronic pulpitis.
B. hyperemia.
C. necrosis.
D. periradicular periodontitis.
Radiolucent lesions of the jaws can be seen in
1. hyperparathyroidism.
2. multiple myeloma.
3. fibrous dysplasia.
4. hyperthyroidism.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above
Lancinating paroxysmal pain in the posterior part of the tongue, tonsil, nasopharynx and pharynx is most likely diagnostic of
A. Ménière's disease.
B. trigeminal neuralgia.
C. sphenopalatine neuralgia.
D. glossopharyngeal neuralgia. 

E. psychotic glosso pyrosis.
Which of the following sites for squamous cell
carcinoma has the best prognosis?
A. Lower lip.
B. Retromolar area.
C. Gingiva.
D. Buccal mucosa.
E. Hard palate
When a patient experiences continuous pain in
the maxillary premolar and molar areas and
there is no evidence of dental infection, the
most likely diagnosis is
A. trigeminal neuralgia.
B. acute maxillary sinusitis.
C. impacted maxillary canine.
D. impacted maxillary third molar.
E. glossopharyngeal neuralgia
Loss of taste to the anterior two thirds of the
tongue and a lack of secretion of
submandibular glands indicates nerve damage
to the
A. mandibular division of cranial V.
B. long buccal nerve.
C. chorda tympani nerve.
D. cranial VII.
For an adult patient, the recommended time
interval between bitewing radiographic
examination for the detection of dental caries is
A. 6 months.
B. 12 months.
C. 24 months.
D. dependent upon caries risk.
E. None of the above.
Which of the following lesions is most likely to occur in the floor of the mouth?
A. Pleomorphic adenoma.
B. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma.
C. Lymphangioma.
D. Ranula.
E. Granular cell myoblastoma.
The apical region of a non-vital tooth with a
deep carious lesion may radiographically
1. widening of the periodontal space.
2. loss of lamina dura.
3. a circumscribed radiolucency.
4. calcification of the periodontal membrane.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Which of the following combinations of
milliamperage and kilovoltage will give Xradiation
with the maximum penetration?
A. 10kVp - 65ma
B. 85kVp - 5ma
C. 90kVp - 10ma
D. 65kVp - 15ma
E. 75kVp - 40ma
Intensifying screens are used when exposing
extra-oral radiographic films to
A. improve detail.
B. decrease exposure time.
C. decrease scatter radiation.
D. increase the quantity of X-rays
necessary to produce a certain
photographic effect on silver.
E. None of the above.
Image sharpness of radiographs can be
improved by

A. increasing the object-film distance.
B. using a larger focal spot.
C. using a larger diaphragm opening.
D. increasing the target (source)-film
A radiolucent area in a radiograph occurs as a result of
1. decreased density of tissue.
2. increased density of tissue.
3. more radiation affecting the silver halide
4. increased exposure time.
A. (4) only
B. (2) and (3)
C. (1) and (3)
D. (1) only
E. None of the above
In the early stage, a periradicular abscess can
be differentiated from a lateral periodontal
abscess by
A. pain.
B. type of exudate.
C. tenderness to percussion.
D. response of pulp to electrical
E. radiographic examination
Metastasis is most likely to occur in
A. squamous cell carcinoma.
B. basal cell carcinoma.
C. ameloblastoma.
D. complex odontoma.
E. odontogenic fibroma
The main purpose of collimation of an x-ray
beam is to

A. permit the use of lower kilovoltage
during exposure.
B. filter out useless short rays.
C. permit use of the long cone technique.
D. reduce the diameter of the primary beam.
E. reduce exposure time.
Multiple supernumerary teeth are most
commonly found in
A. cherubism.
B. cretinism.
C. hypothyroidism.
D. cleidocranial dysplasia.
E. Down's syndrome
A radicular cyst
A. enlarges rapidly.
B. infiltrates bone.
C. contains fluid.
D. cannot cause cortical bone
E. is associated with a vital tooth.
Which of the following is NOT a sign or
symptom of the myofascial pain dysfunction
A. Pain.
B. Muscle tenderness.
C. Limitation of jaw motion.
D. "Clicking" or "popping" noise in the
E. Radiographic changes of the joint
A patient with a white blood cell count of
34,000/mm3 has a differential of lymphocytes
62%, lymphoblasts 4% and polymorphonuclear
leukocytes 34%. The most likely form of
leukemia is
A. aleukemic.
B. granulocytic.
C. monocytic.
D. lymphocytic.
E. plasma cell.
A syphilitic gumma is most commonly found
on the
A. lip.
B. tongue.
C. palate.
D. buccal mucosa.
E. gingiva
A mandibular radiograph displaying a “cotton-wool”' appearance and hypercementosis is suggestive of
A. fibrous dysplasia.
B. osteopetrosis.
C. osteogenesis imperfecta.

D. Paget’s disease.
E. cleidocranial dysplasia
The term used to describe epithelial changes including nuclear hyperchromatism, alteration of nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio and abnormal mitoses is
A. acanthosis.
B. hyperkeratosis.
C. dysplasia.
D. parakeratosis.
E. hyperparakeratosis
The radiologic change most suggestive of
multiple myeloma is
A. multiple radiolucent lesions.
B. multiple radiopaque lesions.
C. diffuse “ground glass” appearance.
D. generalized hypercementosis
A. punched out
A pontic replacing a mandibular first molar
should be designed so that it(s)
1. gingival surface is concave and adapts
closely to the ridge.
2. has open gingival embrasures.
3. conceals the porcelain to metal junction
on its gingival surface.
4. gingival surface is convex in all
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above
A patient suddenly becomes pale and sweaty
after an injection of 4ml of lidocaine 2% with
epinephrine l:l00,000. The radial pulse is slow
and steady. The respiration is slow. The blood
pressure is 80/60. What is the most probable

A. A toxic reaction to lidocaine.
B. A toxic reaction to epinephrine.
C. An allergic reaction to the local
D. Incipient syncope.
E. An impending adrenal insufficiency.
A 20-year old male presents with a three-day
history of an acute generalized gingivitis. He
has malaise, fever and bilateral cervical
lymphadenopathy. A blood examination reveals
Hb: 8.9g/100ml
Platelets: 82,000/mm3
Red blood cell count: 3,900,000/mm3
White blood cell count: 870,000/mm3
Normal Values:
Hb: 14-18g/100ml
Platelets: 150,000-400,000/mm3
Red blood cell count: 4-5million/mm3
White blood cell count: 5,000-10,000/mm3
The most likely diagnosis is
A. thrombocytopenic purpura.
B. acute myelogenous leukemia.
C. infectious mononucleosis.
D. acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
If an odontogenic infection involves the pterygomandibular space, the most obvious clinical sign will be
A. trismus.
B. facial swelling.
C. swelling in the submandibular area.
D. rise in body temperature above 39C
Which of the following drugs are classic antagonists for curare over-dosage?
A. Anticholinesterases.
B. Ganglionic stimulants.
C. Ganglionic blocking agents.
D. Alpha adrenergic blocking agents.
E. Beta adrenergic blocking agents.
Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
(AIDS) may be characterized by
1. candidiasis.
2. rapid weight loss and night sweats.
3. extreme malaise, fever or chills.
4. a smooth and red tongue.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above
A 12-year old child presents with
characteristic tetracycline discoloration of the
maxillary and mandibular incisors and
permanent first molars. The probable age at
which this child received tetracycline therapy
A. 6 years.
B. 4 years.
C. 1 year.
D. before birth
The psychomotor recovery time from nitrous
oxide sedation is
A. immediate.
B. 1 to 2 minutes.
C. 10 minutes.
D. 30 minutes.
When sutures are used to reposition tissue over
extraction sites, they should be
1. placed over firm bone where possible.
2. interrupted, 15mm apart.
3. firm enough to approximate tissue flaps
without blanching.
4. tight enough to produce immediate
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Primate spacing in the primary dentition is
observed between
1. maxillary canines and first molars.
2. maxillary canines and lateral incisors.
3. mandibular canines and first molars.
4. mandibular canines and lateral incisors.
A. (1) and (3)
B. (1) and (4)
C. (2) and (3)
D. (2) and (4)
E. (4) only
The anterior component of force may be
observed clinically as
A. distal movement of a permanent
mandibular cuspid.
B. mesial movement of a permanent
maxillary first molar.
C. A. and B.
D. None of the above
The organisms associated with a carious
pulpitis are
A. streptococci.
B. staphylococci.
C. spirochetes.
D. viruses.
Hypothyroidism affects the dental
developmental pattern by
A. interfering with jaw growth.
B. delaying the eruption timetable.
C. causing sclerotic bone to form over
the occlusal surface of erupting teeth.
D. accelerating the eruption timetable
A single tooth anterior crossbite found in a 9
year old should
A. self-correct.
B. be treated with a removable
C. have 2 arch orthodontic treatment.
D. be treated in the complete permanent
E. be observed and treated when the
cuspids have erupted.
The significant factor in the correction of an
anterior cross-bite is the
A. age of patient.
B. depth of cross-bite.
C. shape of the tooth involved.
D. space available mesiodistally.
The treatment of a Class II, Division 1
malocclusion has the best prognosis when
A. there is labial tipping of the
maxillary incisors.
B. there is a satisfactory relationship of
maxillary and mandibular apical
C. there is no archlength(tooth size)
D. There is a short lower anterior face
E. All of the above
Loops and helices in wires are used in
orthodontic appliances to provide
A. a decreased force.
B. a greater range of activation.
C. more precise control of tooth
D. All of the above.
Mandibular condylar region grows by
A. sutural and interstitial proliferation.
B. interstitial and appositional proliferation.
C. appositional and sutural proliferation.
D. interstitial proliferation only.
E. appositional proliferation only.
A Class II dental occlusion in the mixed
dentition will likely
A. develop into a Class I occlusion after
normal exfoliation of the primary molars.
B. worsen with forward growth of the
C. develop into a Class I occlusion with late
mandibular growth.
D. develop into a skeletal malocclusion with
growth of the maxilla and mandible.
E. not change as the maxilla and mandible
An exchange of calcium ions between saliva
and enamel is
1. affected by fluoride.
2. a component of remineralization and
3. important in maintenance of tooth
4. pH dependent.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above
Class II malocclusions can be prevented by
A. maintaining the integrity of the
primary dentition.
B. preventing thumbsucking and lip
biting habits.
C. correcting mouth breathing as early
as possible.
D. None of the above.
The sequence of eruption of the mandibular
permanent teeth is normally
1. central incisor.
2. lateral incisor.
3. canine.
4. first premolar.
5. second premolar.
6. first molar.
7. second molar.
A. (6)(1)(2)(4)(5)(3)(7)
B. (6)(1)(2)(3)(5)(4)(7)
C. (1)(6)(2)(3)(4)(5)(7)
D. (6)(1)(2)(3)(4)(5)(7)
In the mandibular dental arch of a 12-year old
boy, the permanent first molars are in contact
with the first premolars and the crowns of the
second premolars have erupted lingually. The
likely cause is
A. ankylosis of the mandibular second
B. lack of space.
C. teeth too large for the dental arch.
D. premature loss of deciduous second
E. faulty lingual eruption of the second
Thumbsucking in most cases does not cause
permanent harm to the dentition if the habit is
A. discontinued before four years of age.
B. discontinued before eight years of age.
C. practised only at night.
D. is light in intensity.
E. None of the above.
The enamel structures most resistant to the
action of acids are
A. cuticles.
B. lamellae.
C. rods.
D. interprismatic substances.
Gingival crevicular fluid
A. never varies in volume.
B. is a transudate.
C. is derived from mast cells.
D. is an exudate.
E. B. and D.
After a tooth surface has been completely
cleaned, the new mucoprotein coating which
forms on the surface is called
A. pellicle.
B. plaque.
C. materia alba.
D. primary cuticle.
E. Nasmyth's membra
Trauma from occlusion may be diagnosed
radiographically by evidence of
A. cemental tears.
B. horizontal bone loss.
C. widening of the periodontal ligament
D. narrowing of the periodontal
ligament space
The most important diagnostic element in
assessing the periodontal status of a patient is
A. the results of vitality testing.
B. the radiographic appearance.
C. the depth of periodontal pockets.
D. the mobility of the teeth.