Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
36 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What characterizes Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
|
- Long, slender, straight or curved
- Acid fast bacilli - Slow grower - Obligate aerobes - Intracellular bacterium |
|
What is unique about the cell wall of Mycobacterium?
|
It is composed of high molecular weight acidic waxes; mycolic acid, Wax D, cord factor, and sulfatides.
|
|
What is the purpose of the complex cell wall of Mycobacterium?
|
- Resists phagocytosis, disinfectants, dessication, and antibiotics.
|
|
What are the virulence factors associated with Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
|
- Complex Cell Wall
- Intracellular (hidden from humoral response) - Siderophores - iron acquisition - Antibiotic Resistance (via chromosomal mutations and genges - Inhibits phagolysosome formation |
|
What proteins are responsible for inhibition of phagosome-lysosome fusion in macrophages?
|
ESAT-6 and CFP-10 (Both are found encoded RD1 region of the chromosome).
|
|
How does transmission of TB occur?
|
Inhalation of respiratory mucus droplets in the air (inoculum size is high, repeated exposures are typically required except in susceptible individuals).
|
|
What is the pathogenesis of primary course of TB?
|
Inhalation of bacteria --> bacteria are small enough to proceed to the alveoli where they invade alveolar macrophages ---> migrate to the lymph nodes where they initiate immune response --> in the lungs, lesions form and granulomas develop --> activate macrophages fight the infection --> bacteria stop growing, and calcification of the lesion occurs.
|
|
What is meant by a secondary TB infection?
|
Reactivation of bacteria already present in the host (more common) or re-infection with M. tuberculosis (in endemic areas; less common).
|
|
What characterizes the tubercles seen in TB?
|
They are granulomas with a central core of M. tuberculosis surrounded by macrophages and T-cells (bacilli cause caseous necrosis); the granulomas can calcify at which point they are known as Ghon complex.
|
|
What describes the immune response regarding TB?
|
CD4+ T-cell response --> they secrete INF-gamma and TNF which activate macrophages --> macrophages secrete inflammatory cytokines (TNF, IL-1, IL-6, IL-8, and GM-CSF) which cause inflammation and granuloma formation.
|
|
What signs/symptoms are associated with active TB infection?
|
- Fever
- Night Sweats - Weight Loss - Cough - Hemoptysis - < appetite - Abnormal CXR |
|
What damage is seen in disseminated tubercuolosis (miliary and extrapulmonary)?
|
- Renal Necrosis and scarring
- Degeneration of spine (Potts' Disease) - Damage to reproductive organs - Meningitis |
|
What stain is used for the direct identification of acid-fast bacilli from bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) or sputum?
|
Ziehl-Neelsen Stain (Acid Fast) or Fluorescent Dye
|
|
What method of detection is now used for the cultivation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in the laboratory?
|
Fluorometric Dectection (4-8 days), isolation of bacteria (3-6 days), drug susceptibility (2-3 days) - total time 10-14 days.
|
|
What is the old method of cultivation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in the laboratory?
|
Lowenstein-Jensen Media (4-8 weeks)
|
|
How is the diagnosis of latent TB made?
|
Tuberculin Skin Testing (PPD) - measure the induration, not the erythema. A positive PPD means there is a current or prior infection.
|
|
For which group of individuals is a 5 mm induration with a PPD interpreted as positive for TB?
|
- HIV patients
- Close contact to case of infectious TB - Patient with abnormal CXR - Immunosuppressed - Organ transplant recipients |
|
For which group of individuals is a 10 mm induration with a PPD interpreted as positive for TB?
|
- Person with clinical conditions that place them at high risk.
- Children < 4 yrs of age - Adolescents exposed to adults at high risk |
|
For which group of individuals is a 15 mm induration with a PPD interpreted as positive for TB?
|
- Individuals with no known risk factors for TB.
|
|
What type of reaction is the response to a PPD?
|
Type IV, delayed-type hypersensitivity
|
|
How does QuantiFERON (TB Gold) work?
|
In vitro assay that uses whole blood from a patient to measure cell-mediated immune response to ESAT-6 and CFP-10 antigens by looking for IFN-gamma production through ELISA. If you possess antigen specific T-cells they will respond to ESAT-6 and CFP-10 producing IFN-gamma.
|
|
What are the advantages of using QuantiFERON (TB Gold)?
|
- Single Patient visit
- Only response to M. tuberculosis - No "booster phenomena" - Eliminates subjectivity - Safe, uses whole blood and results w/in 24 hrs |
|
What is the treatment for active TB infection?
|
Four Drug Treatment Until known susceptibilities:
- Isoniazid - Rifampin - Pyrazinamide - Ethambutol Length of Treatment 6-24 months |
|
What is the meaning of the mnemonic DOTS?
|
Directly Observed Treatment, Short-Course - means that a health care worker directly observe the patient take their anti-TB drugs.
|
|
What characterizes M. avium complex (MAC)?
|
- Major cause of death in AIDS patients
- Can colonize the GI and respiratory tract and then disseminate - Very drug resistent |
|
What characterizes M. kansasii?
|
- Causes pulmonary infection
- Non-communicable - Treat with Isoniazid and Rifampin |
|
What characterizes M. marinum?
|
- "Swimming pool granuloma," ulcer
- Non-communicable - Treat with Rifampin and Ethambutol |
|
What type of mycobacteria is considered to be a rapidly growing mycobacteria?
|
Mycobacterium fortuitum
|
|
What characterizes the Runyon Group IV mycobacteria?
|
Rapidly growing mycobacteria such as M. fortuitum; they are ubiquitous in the environment and opportunistic pathogens (skin lesions, abscesses) - can be a problem following plastic surgery.
|
|
What bacteria is the causative agent of leprosy (Hansen's Disease)?
|
Mycobacterium leprae - intracellular bacterium that grows in macrophages and Schwann Cells (long incubation period).
|
|
What is the transmission associated with M. leprae?
|
Transmitted via aerosolized droplets
|
|
What are the two major forms of leprosy?
|
- Tuberculoid
- Lepromatous |
|
Describe the Tuberculoid form of M. leprae?
|
- Less Severe
- Cell-mediated Immunity (TH1) |
|
Describe the Lepromatous form of M. leprae?
|
- More Severe
- Poor cell-mediated immunity (TH2) - Damage to sensory nerve; loss of feeling leads to injury and secondary infections. |
|
What is the treatment for the Tuberculoid form of M. leprae?
|
- Rifampin
- Dapsone |
|
What is the treatment for the lepromatous form of M. leprae?
|
- Dapsone
- Rifampin - Clofazimine |