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127 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Which of the following is a reason microorganisms are useful in many different research laboratories?
A. They are easy to see and count
B. They have fairly complex structures and are expensive
C. The reproduce quickly and grow in large numbers
D. They live everywhere so contaminants from the environment are not a problem
C. The reproduce quickly and grow in large numbers
_________ is the concept that living organisms arise from non-living material.
Spotaneous generation
The concept that human and animal diseases are caused by microorganisms is called ___________.
Germ theory
Why is the period from 1874 to 1917 called the golden age of microbiology?
Microbiology was at the forefront of biomedical research in medicine and biology.
Who discovered the fungus Penicillium produced an antibiotic called penicillin in 1929?
Alexander Flemming
Who laid the foundation of aseptic techniques that prevent contamination by unwanted microbes?
Louis Pasteur
Who was the first person to use a microscope to observe living cells?
Anton van Leeuwenhoek
Are yeast prokaryotes or eukaryotes?
Eukaryotes
Prokaryotes do not have which of the following:
A. Cell membrane
B. Nucleus
C. Cytoplasm
D. Ribosomes
B. Nucleus
The nucleus of a eukaryote does not contain...
A. Nuclear membrane
B. Nucleoid
C. Nucleolus
D. Nuclear pores
E. None of the above
B. Nucleoid
What type of microscope are prokaryotes usually viewed with?
Light microscope
In what year did Christian Gram develop the differential gram staining procedure?
1884
Acid-fast staining is commonly used to stain...
A. B. subtilis
B. E. coli
C. M. tuberculosis
D. S. aureus
C. M. tuberculosis
Gram positive bacteria stain _______ while gram negative bacteria stain _______.
Purple; Pink
What are the functions of the bacterial cell wall?
Provide mechanical strength, define cell shape, and protect against osmotic lysis
What is the most important component of the bacterial cell wall?
Peptidoglycan
A peptidoglycan layer that is about 50 nm thick is commonly seen in....
gram-positive bacteria
Aside from peptidoglycan, what other component makes up a large percentage of the gram positive cell wall?
Teichoic acid
What is the periplasmic space?
The space located between the plasma membrane and outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria and contains hydrolytic enzymes and binding proteins involved in nutrient acquisition.
Gram-negative bacteria have much of this found on their outer membrane...
lipopolysaccharides (LPS)
Describe the orientation of the phospholipid bilayer of plasma membranes.
Hydrophobic tails point towards one another, hydrophilic heads point towards outward or towards the cytoplasm of the cell
True or False: Eukaryotic cells have a membrane-enclosed nucleus.
True
This is a waxy substance that is a part of the Mycobacterium cell wall.
Mycolic acid
All of the following participate in adherence except_______.
A. Slime layers
B. axial filaments
C. fimbriae
D. Pili
E. capsules
B. axial filaments
Which of the following is not true of fimbriae and pili?
A. They are involved with adherene.
B. They are both made up of pilin subunits.
C. Pili are needed for bacterial conjugation.
D. They are made only by gram-positive bacteria.
D. They are made only by gram-positive bacteria
What is bacterial conjugation?
A process in which genetic material is transferred from a donor to a recipient by means of a pilus.
Describe the orientation of lophotrichous flagella.
A tuft of flagella at one end of a bacterial cell.
What is the size of a prokaryotic ribosome?
70S
What is a live attenuated vaccine?
A vaccine made of intact virions which are rendered non-infectious.
The protein coat and lipid envelopes are components that help to protect the viral...
A. capsid
B. genome
C. tegument
D. spikes
B. genome
The protein subunit that assembles in a highly organized manner to form a capsid is the _________.
Capsomere
What are the two major types of symmetry found in viruses?
Icosahedral and helical
The tobacco mosaic virus (TMV) has ________ capsids.
helical
A virus that is specific for a bacterial host is called.....
phage
Retroviruses use what enzyme to convert RNA into DNA?
transcriptase
Which of the following is not an example of a virus associated with persistent infections of humans?
A. Epstein-Barr Virus
B. HIV
C. Influenza virus
D. Herpes simplex virus type I
C. Influenza virus
What is active viremia?
Replication of viruses in the blood
ID50 refers to the number of organisms required for....
50% of exposed individuals to show signs of infection
The herpes virus family are ________ _________ _____ viruses.
Large, enveloped DNA
The hepatitis A virus is a __________ ____________ _____ virus.
small, non-enveloped RNA virus
What distinguishes microbiology from other fields of biology?
The size of the organism studied and the techniques employed in their study.
Who provided evidence needed to discredit the concept of spontaneous generation?
Pasteur
A typical fungus consists of a mass called _________ made up of many threadlike structures called _________.
mycelium; hyphae
Fungal hyphae are sometimes separated into smaller compartments by cross walls called....
septa
Define morbidity.
The relative number of individuals affected by a particular disease during a set period of time within a given population.
Define pandemic.
Worldwide spread of an infectious disease.
What is the function of viral capsids?
protect the viral genetic material and aid in its transfer between host cells.
Properties that a pathogen possesses that permit establishment and evasion of the host defenses are called...
virulence factors
Which of the following pathogens is mismatched with the disease that it causes?
A. Bordetella pertussis; whooping cough
B. Clostridium perfringens; gas gangrene
C. Vibrio cholerae; cholera
D. Salmonella enterica; typhoid fever
D. Samonella enterica; typhoid fever
Which of the following diseases is not likely to have been acquired through a mucus-membrane associated port of entry?
A. tetanus
B. tuberculosis
C. gonorrhea
D. cholera
A. tetanus
Which of the following is not a characteristic of exotoxins?
A. highly antigenic
B. causes DIC
C. converted to toxoids for vaccine use
D. unstable at high temperatures
D. Causes DIC (disseminated intravascular clotting)
"Lock jaw" is a symptom of infection with....
Clostridium tetani
True or false: Outbreaks can be classified by the rate of increase of new cases.
True
What is incidence?
The number of new cases of a particular disease within a specified time period.
What types of studies may sometimes identify the index case of a disease?
Descriptive epidemiological studies
Unicellular fungi are known as....
Yeasts
Coenocytic hyphae do not have...
Cross walls
The reproductive structures of bread mold where gametes are produced are called...
Gametangia
The fused hyphae containing haploid nuclei from 2 individuals is called...
Heterokaryotic
All of the following are examples of deep mycoses except...
A. histoplasmosis
B. coccidiomycosis
C. pityriasis
D. Aspergillosis
C. pityriasis
Yeast infections are most commonly caused by what fungi?
Candida albicans
What is the major advantage of cephalosporins over penicillins?
The are resistant to beta-lactamase enzyme activity
What is the process used to generate thousands of drugs daily with the aid of computer programs?
Combinatorial chemistry
What was the first antibiotic used against viruses?
The sulfa drug derivative thiosemicarbazone
What antibiotic compounds are composed of peptide fragments and used to disrupt the bacterial plasma membrane?
Bacitracin, Maginins, and Defensins
Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A. acyclovir; genital and oral herpes simplex infections
B. amantadine; influenza A
C. griseofluvin; fungal infection of the skin, hair, and nails
D. Peptide fragments; inhibition of peptidoglycan in gram negative bacteria
E. Ribavirin (Nucleoside analog): Lassa fever infections
D. Peptide fragments; inhibition of peptidoglycan in gram negative bacteria
What does the broth dilution test measure?
MBC
What does the E test measure?
MIC
What does the Kirby-Bauer test measure?
Zone of inhibition
What are three bacteria that can cause sinusitis?
Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus influenzae
Which of the following statements about diphtheria is incorrect?
A. Toxemia can make diphtheria life threatening
B. A potent inhibitor of protein synthesis
C. The bacteria are gram-negative rods
D. Causes pharyngitis
C. The bacteria are gram-negative rods
Chlamydia psittaci infections may be caused by....
inhalation of bird droppings
________ is often associated with strep throat caused by Group A strepococci.
A. diphtheria
B. Tuberculosis
C. whooping cough
D. Q fever
E. Scarlet fever
E. Scarlet fever
How does parainfluenza differ from influenza?
It is more stable, It replicates in the cytoplasm, and It is associated with little antigenic drift or antigenic shift
"Walking pneumonia" is associated with what bacteria?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
What antibiotics are usually the treatment of choice for TB?
Pyrazinamide, isoiazid, and rifampin
True or false: The spikes of envelope glycoproteins are found on the interior of the membrane.
False
Describe the structure of a icosahedral virion.
Resembles a solid geometrical shape with 20 identical, equilateral faces
True or false: Hyphae form in year by budding.
False
Asexual reproduction in fungi involves the use of...
conidia
Dermatophytosis of the feet (Athlete's foot) is also known as...
tinea pedis
True or false: The potato blight, Phytophthora infestans which was the cause of the irish famine is a water mold belonging to the class oomycetes.
True
Which of the following is not a fungal infection of the respiratory tract:
A. Pneumocystis pneumonia
B. histoplasmosis
C. coccidioidomycosis
D. Aspergillosis
E. None of the above
E. None of the above
What are three methods that can contain the spread of communicable diseases?
isolation, quarantine, and vector control
What are resistance islands?
Location in the bacterial genome where antibiotic resistance genes integrate and accumulate.
What bacteria accounts for more than 90% of vancomycin resistance?
Enterococcus faecalis
What is required by the bacteria to acheive vancomycin resistance?
Five separate genes to alter peptidoglycan to an insensitive form
Which of the following is not an example of a persistent bacterial infection:
A. mycobacterium tuberculosis; tuberculosis
B. Chlamydia trachomatis; pelvic inflammatory disease
C. Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi; typhoid fever
D. Helicobacter pylori; gastric ulcers
E. None of the above
E. None of the above
What is a unique characteristic of Corynebacterium's cell division?
Snapping
True or false: Alpha group of bacteria cultured on blood agar causes incomplete hemolysis of blood cells leaving a greenish hue around the colonies.
True
Which of the following is not a characteristic of mycobacterium tuberculosis?
A. It is responsible for more deaths than any other pathogen
B. It is a spore forming obligate aerobic rod
C. Multi-drug resistant strains have emerged
D. It produces mycolic acid which protects the bacterium from host defense
E. It produces tubercules
B. It is a spore-forming obligate aerobic rod
Tubercules...
A. Are white patches seen on the chest X-ray of TB patients
B. May remain dormant for years and then become active again
C. contain live Mycobacterium
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
True or false: Helibacter pylori which spreads through oral-oral or oral-fecal contact is an endogenous form of gastrointestinal infection.
False
Vibrio cholera is a gram negative. facultatively anaerobic rod responsible for "rice water" stool and can be transmitted to humans in what ways?`
Contaminated food or water, or livestock
What cut of meat may have the largest number of contaminating microbes per gram?
Ground beef
True or false: Clostridium perfringens causes perfringens food poisoning, the symptoms of which are abdominal cramps and diarrhea.
True
Which of the following is not a characteristic of typhoid fever?
A. Humans are the only reservior of the etiological agent
B. Infections are treated with tetracycline to control diarrhea.
C. It is a persistent fever induced by endotoxins
D. Hemorrhaging and perforation of the intestinal wall lining may occur
E. It is caused by Salmonella enterica serotype typhi
B. Infections are treated with tetracycline to control diarrhea.
Flagella of the Enterobacteriaceae used for antigen classification are collectively known as ____ antigens.
A. O
B. A
C. H
D. F
E. K
C. H
Salmonella infections are characterized by all of the following except...
A. typhoid fever
B. gastroenteritis
C. chronic infections
D. enteric fever
E. bacillary dysentery
E. bacillary dysentery
______ is a term used to describe a urinary tract infection involving the kidneys, where as _________ describes involvement of the bladder.
pyelonephritis; cystitis
Prostatitis is characterized by all of the following except...
A. urgent and frequent urination
B. blood in urine
C. low fever
D. back pain
B. blood in urine
Glomerulonephritis is caused by _________, a bacterial pathogen causing leakage of blood and protein in urine.
E. coli
Which of the following is not a sexually transmitted disease?
A. herpes simplex virus
B. rubella virus
C. Chlamydia trachamatis
D. HIV
E. papillomavirus
B. rubella virus
True or false: Primary syphilis involves an incubation time of 3 weeks for the appearance of gummas(?) which disappear in 4-6 weeks.
False
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the human papillomavirus:
A. enveloped
B. double-stranded DNA
C. more than 70 genotypes identified
D. icosahedral
E. non-specific integration into host genome
A. enveloped
Which of the following is not associated with bacterial meningitis?
A. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
E. Staphlococcus aureus
B. Clostridium botulinum
Which of the following organisms is responsible for epidemic typhus?
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Rickettsia typhi
C. Rickettsia prowazekkii
D. Rickettsia richettsi
E. Clostridium tetani
C. Rickettsia prowazekkii
The simplest virus or naked virus consists of:
A. Nucleic acid
B. Protein coat capsid
C. Both a protein coat capsid and nucleic acid
D. None of the above
C. Both a protein coat capsid and nucleic acid
The general pattern of viral multiplication consists of how many stages?
A. 5
B. 3
C. 1
D. 4
A. 5
These infectious agents are known to cause a number of neurodegenerative diseases in humans and animals such as scraple in sheep.
A. Viruses
B. Viroids
C. Prions
D. Virusoids
C. Prions
Lysogeny is the relationship between a host and a....
Temperate phage
Endocytosis and fusing with the plasma membrane of a host cell are both...
ways that a virus can enter a host cell
In 1884, Mycobacterium tuberculosis was reported as a _____ shaped bacteria.
Rod
Acid-fast staining is commonly used to stain...
A. B. subtilis
B. E. coli
C. M. tuberculosis
D. S. aureus
C. M tuberculosis
True or false: The cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria is a major site of ATP synthesis in aerobes.
True
Which of the following helps protect bacteria from lysis in dilute solution and helps to determine cellular morphology (shape)?
A. Plasma membrane
B. Capsule
C. Gas vacuoles
D. Cell wall
D. cell wall
True or false: The basic composition of the membrans of prokaryotic organelles are the small as their plasma membrane.
False
Which of the following statements about viruses is untrue?
A. Viruses are acellular
B. Viruses consist of one or more molecules of DNA or RNA enclosed in a coat of protein and sometimes more complex layers.
C. Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites.
D. Viruses replicate by binary fission.
D. Viruses replicate by binary fission.
Virus morphology does not include which of the following characteristics?
A. size
B. shape
C. Presence or absence of an envelope
D. Host range
D. Host range
Non-enveloped viruses more often gain access to eukaryotic host cells by....
Endocytosis
Which statement is not true regarding viral envelopes?
A. The envelope proteins are virus specific
B. The envelope lipids and carbohydrates are derived from the host.
C. They are typically lipid bilayers with embedded proteins
C. They are typically lipid bilayers with embedded proteins.
What is lysogeny?
Then the viral genome is incorporated into the host chromosome but does not result in lysis of the host cell.
Which of the following correlate with exponential phase?
A. Also called log phase
B. Rate of growth is constant and also called as balanced growth
C. Population is most uniform in terms of chemical and physical properties during this phase.
D. Exponential growth- all cellular components are synthesized at a constant rate.
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
What is the Kreb's cycle "acceptor" molecule that begins the cycle?
A. Oxaloacetate
Why is oxygen necessary for electron transport phosphorylation to occur in the mitochondria?
It picks up the hydrogen at the end of the chain to form water.
What year was weaponzing Bacillus anthracis delivered through the U.S. postal system?
2001
True or false: Widal test for Typhoid fever can be done by agglutination test.
True