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164 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Is a form of social control or a method of encoring people to behave in a certain way.

Law

The rules of society, which developed naturally, have been codified by being written down. This natural development of law is sometimes referred to as what?

Common Law

What is based primarily on English common law?

The American Legal System

Defines the form of government and its three-branch structure (executive, legislative, and judicial)

Constitutional Law

Is written and enacted by Congress, state legislatures, or local governing authorities in response to a perceived need.

Statutory Law

Within statutory law, some provisions define unacceptable behaviors and government prosecution of those who commit them. These statutes are called what?

Criminal Law (and must clearly describe the unacceptable behavior and set a punishment for it.

Statutes enacted by a municipal (city) or county government are known as what?

Ordinances

Pertains to the legal actions that a person takes to resolve a private dispute with another person

Civil Law

Is the body of law that allows for the creation of public regulatory agencies.

Administrative Law

Is formed by the decisions of the court system (the judicial branch).

Case Law

___ must abide by the limitations that the constitution sets and the case law decisions that interpret those limitations.

Law Enforcement Officers

___Protects individuals from governmental abuse of power and defines law enforcement's authority to act.

The Constitution

____ forms the Constitution's main body.

The Article of the Constitution

Set forth in Article VI, the ____ states that when laws conflict, federal law generally overrules state and local law.

Supremacy Clause

___ can be more restrictive than federal law, but it cannot undermine the federal standard.

State Law

____ affect law enforcement officers more than any other part of the Constitution. Their purpose is to ensure that individual rights are not infringed upon by the government.

The Amendments to the Constituion

The first ten amendments to the U.S. Constitution comprise the?

Bill of Rights

Guarantees the right to be informed of the nature of the charges, receive counsel, undergo a speedy and public trial, confront witnesses, and face an impartial jury.

The Sixth Amendment

Guarantees the right to bear arms.

The Second Amendment

Is best known for prohibiting compelled self-incrimination. It also requires grand jury indictment for capital crimes and prohibits double jeopardy and deprivation of life, liberty, or property without due process of law.

The Fifth Amendment

Protect freedom of speech, press, peaceful assembly, and religion.

The First Amendment

Prohibits unreasonable search and seizure and generally requires a warrant signed by an independent magistrate (Judge).

The Fourth Amendment

Prohibits excessive bails and fines and cruel and unusual punishment.

The Eight Amendment

No state shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges and immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any state deprive any person of life, liberty or property, without due process of law; nor deny any person within its jurisdiction of the equal protection of the law.

The Fourteenth Amendment

Requires the government to be fair when taking someone's life, liberty, or property.

Due Process Clause

Broadly decribes criminal or noncriminal acts that are punishable under Florida Law.

Offense

Are punishable by incarceration and classified as either felony or misdemeanor.

Criminal Offenses

Are punishable by monetary fines or something other than incarceration.

Noncriminal Offenses or Civil Infractions

Is any crime committed for which the maximum penalty is death or incarceration in a state correctional facility for more than one year.

Felony

The highest class of felony, which could include death or life imprisonment without the possibility of parole.

A Capital Felony

Up to life in prison, a fine up to $15,000, or both.

Life Felony

Maximum penalty of 30 Years in prison, a fine up to $10,000, or both. (However, certain __ felonies specifally carry a maximum penalty of life in prison.

First-Degree Felony

Maximum penalty of five years in prison, a fine up to $5,000 or both.

Third-Degree Felony

Maximum penalty of fifteen years in prison, a fine up to $10,000 or both.

Second-Degree Felony

Is any criminal offense with a maximum incarceration penalty in a county jail of up to one year.

Misdemeanor

Carries a maximum penalty of one year in a county jail, a fine of $1,000, or both.

First-Degree Misdemeanor

Carries a maximum penalty of 60 days in a county jail, a fine of $500, or both.

Second-Degree Misdemeanor

An offense for which the only penalty may be a fine, forfeiture, or other civil penalty.

Noncriminal Violation (Civil Infractions)

Maximum penalty for violating a local criminal ordinance

Fine up to $500 or incarceration in a county jail for up to 60 days and/or both.

Occurs when a defense attorney makes a motion to exclude evidence obtained by the police

Suppression Hearing



Occurs when an officer cites into voluntary contact with a citizen under circumstances in which a reasonable person would feel free to disregaurd the police and go about his or her business.

Consensual Encounter

Is something described as a hunch or gut feeling based on the law enforcement training and knowledge.

Mere Suspicion

If the officer has a reasonable suspicion that the person stopped was committing, is committing, or is about to commit a law violation.

Investigative Stop (Terry Stop)

Is the standard of justification needed to support a legal "Terry" stop or investigative detention.




(some times called articulable suspicion or founded suspicion)




Simply means that an officer can articulate, or put in to words, facts that support a suspicion that the person stopped may be involved in a law violation.

Reasonable Suspicion

the court ruled that a law enforcement officer may frisk the exterior clothing of someone lawfully detained if the officer has reasonable suspicion to believe that the person is armed.

Terry vs Ohio

This rule allows the officer to seize the contraband even if it does not feel like a weapon.

Plain Touch/Feel Doctrine

The officer stops the vehicle due to an equipment violation but really wants to investigate other, more serious criminal activity.

Pretext Stops

Is a fair probability or reasonable grounds to believe that someone committed a crime, based on the totality of circumstances.

Probable Cause

In deciding whether the reasonable suspicion or probable cause standard have been met, courts review all factors known to the officer at the time of the incident.

Totality of Circumstances

Sources used to establish probable cause or reasonable suspicion

must be those that the courts recognizes as reliable.

What are the commonly recognized sources for officers to rely on?

The fellow officer rule


Citizen informant


Corroborated (verified) anonymous tips


Reliable and credible confidential information


Line-Ups


Show-Ups

Involves relying on the collective knowledge of other officers when taking law enforcement actions.

Fellow Officer Rule

Is a presentation of series of photographs to a victim or witness in a non-suggestive manner for the purpose of identifying a suspect.

Photographic Array

Is the presentation of a number of individuals, which may include a known suspect, to a victim or witness in a non-suggestive manner for the purpose of identification.

Live Line-Up

Occurs when a law enforcement officer locates a suspect a short time after the commission of an offense and attempts to get a one-on-one identification of the suspect in the field by a victim or witness.

Show-Up

Is a standard used to determine if a criminal defendant is guilty.

Proof beyond a reasonable doubt

Different standards of proof are used in what cases in Florida?

Civil Cases and Administrative Cases

The burden of proof in civil cases is what?

The greater weight (preponderance) of the evidence.




(This is a lesser standard than proof beyond a reasonable doubt).

In administrative proceedings, the burden of proof is what?

Clear and convincing evidence




(This is a lesser standard than proof beyond a reasonable doubt).

Occurs when the government intrudes into a place where a person has a reasonable expectation of privacy.

Search

Occurs when the government affects a person's right to have or control his or her property, usually by physically taking it.

Seizure

Is a court order that authorizes law enforcement to conduct a search and seizure.

Search Warrant

Search warrants must meet what legal requirements?

-Authorized and signed by the judge


-Must be based on the affidavit thats states sufficient facts to establish probable cause that evidence of a crime will be found in the place to be searched.


-The basis of the information in the affidavit must come from reliable sources.



The Supreme Court has ruled that evidence obtained by the government in a violation of the Constitution cannot be used as evidence

Exclusionary Rule

If officers execute a search warrant they believe to be valid and a court later determines the warrant to have a legal error, any seized evidence may still be admitted.

Good Faith Doctrine

Are areas of someone's property where there is no reasonable expectation of privacy.

Open Fields and Abandoned Property

Any contraband can be seized without a warrant as long as these 3 conditions are met:

-The Officer is lawfully present in the place where he or she sees the item


-The item is in plain sight


-The Officer has probable cause to believe that the item is contraband or crime evidence

Probable cause is required for a mobile conveyance search. Sometimes called what?

Carroll Doctrine

Are certain emergencies such as the case of evidence destruction, an emergency scene, or a fresh pursuit that justifies a warrantless entry.

Exigent Circumstances

Is one of the exigent circumstances that permits search and seizure without a warrant.

Destruction of Evidence

Allows an officer to enter a residence or other private place, while chasing a suspect.

Fresh Pursuit

Fresh Pursuit requires what 3 things?

-Probable Cause that the suspect committed a serious crime


-Immediate or continuos pursuit of the suspect


-Probable cause that the suspect is in the premises that is being entered without a warrant

Involves a situation in which officers may make a warrantless entry in order to ensure their own safety or that of the public.

Emergency Scene Exception

Do not require probable cause, reasonable suspicion, or even mere suspicion

Consent Searches

May be valid if the individual has mutual access and control over the area to be searched.

Third Party Search

In cases involving _____, the consent of a parent or guardian will generally overrule objection by the child.

Juveniles

Consent may be withdrawn at anytime during a search. Once withdrawn, officers must what?

Stop searching immediately

Are not designed to search for evidence but to protect the arrested person's property and to protect the officer from accusations of theft.

Inventory Searches

Generally do not require a warrant due to the setting or special conditions

Administrative Searches

When a person is lawfully arrested and taken into custody, he or she may be searched without a warrant.

Incident to Arrest

Is the arrestee's person and area "within the immediate control of the arrestee" at the time of arrest.

The scope of a search incident to arrest

Is limited to the items being searched

The scope of constitutional searches

Is a civil proceeding in which the law enforcement agency asks the court to transfer ownership of the property from the defendent to the government.

Forfeiture

Defined as depriving a person of his or her liberty by legal authority.

Arrest

Is a court order authorizing law enforcement to take the individual named on the warrant into custody to answer for the charges specified in the warrant.

Arrest Warrant

Is a written order that may be issued by a law enforcement officer in lieu of a physical arrest requiring a person accused of violating the law to appear in court at a specified date and time.

Notice to appear

Is a sworn, written statement by law enforcement officer establishing certain facts and circumstances to justify an arrest.

Probable cause affidavit (arrest affidavit)

Is a legal doctrine that permits a law enforcement officer to make arrest of a fleeing suspect who crosses jurisdictional lines.

Fresh Pursuit

As any force that is likely to cause death or great bodily harm.

Deadly Force

Means the suspect is deprived of freedom in a significant way.

Custody

Before a person can be charged with a criminal offense, the officer must have evidence that a crime has been committed. This is a legal principle known as what?

Corpus Delicti (or "body of offense")

Purposely doing what the law declares to be a crime, whether the person's purpose was to commit the crime or to meet its outcome.

Intent

Defines most criminal offenses and requires some forbidden act by the offender

General Intent

Requires an expectation of a particular result, which requires a heightened mental state of intent to commit the act.

Specific Intent

Is present when an intentional act harms an unintended second victim.

Transferred Intent

Imposes criminal liability on defendants when they did not intend for a behavior to cause the resulting harm.

Criminal Negligence

Is consciously doing an act that the person knew or should have known was likely to cause death or great bodily injury.

Culpable Negligence

An act that the law makes punishable

Crime

Knowingly obtaining, using or endeavoring to obtain or use property of another with the intent to temporarily or permanently deprive the other person of the use of property.

Theft

Taking possession of or carrying away of merchandise, money, or negotiable instruments; altering or removing a label or price tag.

Retail Theft

Taking money or property from the victim or custody of the victim.

Robbery

Is any person who has information about some element of the crime or about evidence or documents related to the crime.

Witness

Is a person or entity which suffers an injury as a result of a crime

Victim

Is a person believed to have committed a crime.

Suspect

If the defendant helped another person or other people to commit or attempt to commit a crime, the defendant is a what?

Principal in the first degree

A person who aids or contributes in the commission or concealment of a crime.

Accessory

Accessory after the fact as an offense with all of the following elements:

-An offender commits a felony


-After committing the felony, another person maintains or assists the offender.


-While giving assistance, the person knows that the offender committed the felony.


-The person assist with the intent of helping the offender avoid or escape detection, arrest, trial or punishment

Is an offense when either the person did some act toward committing the crime that went beyond just thinking or talking about it; or the person would have committed the crime except that someone prevented him from doing so, or the person failed.

Attempt

An officer has a responsibilty to investigate and notify the state attorney of any evidence that may point to the suspect's innocence is known as what?

Exculpatory Evidence

Is a suspect or defendant's claim that he or she was not present when the alleged act was committed.

Alibi

A legal defense that is used when the accused does not possess the mental state required to commit a criminal offense because of a reasonably mistaken belief about the facts relating to the circumstances.

Mistake or ignorance of fact

A person faces a threat from another and commits a criminal act in response may have legal defense of what?

Duress or Coercion

A person may legally use force to defend against the use of force by another.

Justifiable use of force

Is a common legal term that describes the justifiable use of force that is necessary to protect oneself.

Self-Defense

Common legal term describing a person's authority to take reasonable steps, including the use of force (except deadly force) to the extent that a person reasonably believes is pessary to protect his or her possessions from trespass or theft or to stop these acts.

Defense of property

Occurs when a law enforcement officer uses undue persuasion or fraudulent means to induce a person to commit a crime he or she would not have otherwise committed.

Entrapment

Any mental disorder so severe that it prevents a person from having legal capacity and excuses the person from criminal or civil responsibility.

Insanity

A criminal defendant will be judged on his or her present ability to assist counsel by participating in the criminal defense. A person deemed ___ at the time of trial cannot legally stand trial or testify.

Mental Incompetence

Bars the state from prosecuting an individual after a certain period of time has elapsed since the criminal act occurred.

Statute of limitations

Is information that is allowed in court, while proof is the effect produced by that information.

Evidence

Is that which proves a fact without an inference or presumption and which, is true in itself, conclusively establish that fact.

Direct Evidence

Requires an inference or presumption to establish a fact.

Circumstantial or Indirect Evidence

Is witness statements tending to prove or disprove facts about the case.

Testimonial Evidence

Is anything written or printed which is offered to prove or disprove facts pertaining to the case.

Documentary Evidence

Refers to actual objects which may be offered to prove facts about a case

Physical or Real Evidence

Are the objects obtained by the defendant as a result of committing the crime.

Fruits of a Crime

Are items used by the the defendant to commit the crime

Instrumentalities

Is anything that is illegal to possess

Contraband

The legal requirements that must be met before a jury is allowed to see or hear about the evidence.

Admissibility of Evidence

Is a statement other than one made by the declarant while testifying at a trial or hearing, offered in evidence to prove the truth of the matter asserted.

Hearsay

Are unplanned, spontaneous statements that occur during or after a shocking event, or having suffered an injury, and may be relied upon for truthfulness.

Excited Utterances

Occurs when an Officer is found guilty of committing a crime and is sentenced to incarceration or other penalties.

Criminal Liability

Is responsibility for a wrongful act or an omission that injures a person or property and most often involves negligence.

Civil Liability

A civil wrong in which the action or inaction of a person or entity violates the rights of another person or entity.

Tort

Is failure to use due or reasonable care in a situation that results in harm to another.

Negligence

The defendant unreasonably failed in the duty he or she was obligated to perform.

Breach of Duty




Breach- Means A Failure of some kind

The legal phrase for the link between the breach of duty and harm caused (damages).

Proximate Cause

Designed to compensate for the actual property damage, harm, or injury that the plaintiff suffers.

Compensatory Damage

Damages awarded in addition to actual damages when the defendant acted with recklessness, malice, or deceit.

Punitive Damage

An unlawful interference with the fundamental rights of another person, such as the rights to due process and equal protection under the law.

Civil Rights Violation

When an officer acts or purports to act in the performance of official duties under any law, ordinance, or regulation, he or she is acting under what?

Color of the law

Arises in cases in which the officer committed an intentional or a negligent tort in violation of the employing agency 's orders or policy.

Direct Liability

Occurs when one person or entity is held liable for the negligent actions of another person even though the first person or entity was not directly responsible for the injury.

Vicarious Liability

Neglecting to perform what the law or duty requires.

Omission

Is derived from the common law idea that the king and his agents can do no wrong.

Sovereign Immunity

The range of reasonable and foreseeable activities that an employee does while carrying out the employer's business.

Acting within the scope of employment

Protects government officials...from liability for civil damages insofar as their conduct does not violate clearly established statutory or constitutional rights of which a reasonable person would have known.

Qualified Immunity

When sudden peril requires instinctive action, an officer is not required to use the same degree of care as when there is time to reflect.

Emergency Doctrine

When the creditor is entitled to possession of collateral after default, the creditor may go to court and obtain an order entitling the creditor to possession. This order is called what?

Writ of Replevin

Florida law permits a creditor to take possession of the collateral after default without a court order, if that can be done without breach of the peach. This is called what?

Self-Help Repossession

Any person under the age of 18 or any person who is alleged to have committed a violation of law occurring prior to the time that person reached the age of 18 years.

Child, Juvenile, or Youth

Is a juvenile who has been found by the court to have committed a violation of the following: Sexual battery, prostitution, lewdness and indecent exposure, sexual performance by a child, or obscenity.

Juvenile Sexual Offender

Is a description of the suspect's name, and any additional information that would help apprehend the suspect.

BOLO (Be On The Look Out)

An officer may issue a notice to appear except what following circumstances?

-The accused fails to identify him/herself


-Accused refused to sign the NTA


-The officer has reasons to believe that the accused constitutes an unreasonable risk of bodily injury to the accused or others.


-Accuse may not respond to the notice


-If the accused is wanted in any jurisdiction


-Accused has failed to respond to previous NTA's

Tennessee law which allowed law enforcement officers to use what ever force was necessary to stop fleeing felons.

Tennessee vs. Garner

The landmark decision in suspect interrogation was what?

Miranda decision in 1966

What are the four elements to the Miranda decision?

-Custody


-Interrogation


-Understanding


-Free and voluntary waiving of rights

Includes questioning initiated by law enforcement that is directly or indirectly intended to elicit an incriminating response.

Interrogation

In order to carry out this intent, the offender agreed, conspired, combined, or confederated

Conspiracy

The offender commanded, encouraged, hired, or requested the other person to engage in specific conduct which would constitute the commission of the offense or attempt to commit the offense.

Solicitation

Is a possible excuse against civil or criminal liability. Defendants who use this defense argue they should not be held liable because the acts in question were committed with the victims ____ and permission.

Consent

Evidence is offered in court for 3 basic reasons

-To prove or disprove a crime


-To support or undermine other evidence


-To help determine an appropriate sentence

Which amendment requires grand jury indictment for capital crimes and prohibits double jeopardy and deprivation of life, liberty, or property without due process of law.

The Fifth Amendment

Guarantees the right to be informed of the nature of the charges, receive counsel, confront witnesses, and face an impartial jury

The Sixth Amendment