Food Science Final Exam Review

Front 1

What are the two key components of simple fats?

Back 1

Glycerol and fatty acids

Front 2

What is a fatty acid made out of?

Back 2

Fatty acids are organic acids that contain usually between 4 and 22 carbon atoms. (The textbook says 4-24 but her slides say 4-22)

Front 3

True or False: All fatty acids are unsaturated (meaning having a double bond)

Back 3

False, you can have a saturated fatty acid.

Front 4

True or False: When you have an unsaturated fatty acid, there is a double bond present which means there is an ability to add H atoms to the structure.

Back 4

True

Front 5

True or False: Unsaturated fatty acids can only form a cis configuration.

Back 5

False, it can form cis or trans

Front 6

The physical shape of a fatty acid is determined by:

Back 6

# of kinks in a chain

Front 7

True or False: The body recognizes fats by their size

Back 7

False, they recognize fats by their shape, not size

Front 8

What is the most abundant saturated fatty acid in the body?

Back 8

Palmitic acid

Front 9

What is the most abundant monounsturated fatty acid in the body?

Back 9

Oleic acid

Front 10

What is the most abundant polyunsaturated fatty acid in the body?

Back 10

Linoleic, alpha linolenic

Front 11

True or False: The Degree of saturation affects the conformation (shape)

Back 11

True

Front 12

True or False: The physical shape of fatty acids affects crystallization and melting point (physical change) of fatty acids.

Back 12

True

Front 13

Define melting point

Back 13

The temperature at which the crystals of a solid fat melt

Front 14

What are the three things that determine the melting point of a fatty acid?

Back 14

Chain length, Degree of unsaturation, and configuration of double bonds.

Front 15

True or False: short-chained FA’s have higher melting points

Back 15

False. The Longer the FA chain, the higher the melting point.

Ex. 8C with 0 DB= 16 Degrees

10C with 0 DB= 31 Degrees

C= Carbons DB= Double Bond

Front 16

Which has a higher melting point?

10C with 0 DB

or

16C with 0 DB

C= Carbons

DB= Double Bond

Back 16

16C with 0 DB

Because there are more carbons. More Carbon = Higher melting point

Front 17

True or False: unsaturated FA’s have lower melting points when compared to saturated FA's.

Back 17

True

Ex. 16C with 0 DB= 64 Degrees

16C with 1 DB= 1 Degrees

Front 18

True or False: The more double bonds you have, the lower the melting point.

Back 18

True

Ex. 18C with 2 DB= -5 Degrees

18C with 3 DB= -11 Degrees

Front 19

If two fatty acids have different numbers of carbons but have the same number of double bonds, which one will have the higher melting point?

Ex. 16C with 1 DB

18C with 1 DB

Back 19

18C with 1 DB will have the higher melting point because the more carbons a FA has, the higher the melting point.

Ex. 16C with 1 DB= 1 Degrees

18C with 1 DB= 14 Degrees

Front 20

True or False: The configuration of a double bond (whether cis or trans) does not have an effect on melting point of fatty acids.

Back 20

False.

Cis form has a lower melting point than trans

Front 21

What are the 4 types of fat crystals?

Back 21

alpha,beta-prime, intermediate, beta

Alpha: Very fine, unstable.

Beta-prime: very fine and stable, most desirable in foods, smooth texture.

Intermediate: Grainy

Beta: Coarsest form

Front 22

What is the most desirable type of crystal fat?

Back 22

Beta Prime

Front 23

What are the two main essential fatty acids?

Back 23

Omega 6 (Corn, safflower, sunflower, soy)

Omega 3 (Fish oil, flax seed, canola, walnuts, ALA)

Front 24

DHA and EPA are components of which highly unsaturated fatty acid?

Back 24

Omega 3 fatty acids

Front 25

True or False: ALA competes with omega-6 fats

Back 25

True

Front 26

Borage and Evening Primrose have what type of acid?

Back 26

Gamma Linolenic Acid (GLA)

Borage= 24% GLA

Evening Primrose 10% GLA

Front 27

Butter contains 30% of what saturated FA?

Back 27

Butric acid

Front 28

True to False: Triglycerides are considered a carbohydrate.

Back 28

False, they are a lipid

Front 29

Lipids are classified by:

Back 29

the number of FA’s esterified to aglycerol molecule

Front 30

95%of fat in food are in this form

Back 30

Triglycerides

Front 31

What are the two ways a fat can go rancid?

Back 31

The chemical deterioration of a fat caused by the uptake of oxygen (oxidation) or water (hydrolysis).

Hydrolytic

Oxidative

Front 32

Explain Oxidative Rancidity

Back 32

Oxidative rancidity begins when a free radical forms, which often is initiated in a polyunsaturated fatty acid. Its structure is able to form a free radical at any of the three carbons (9,11, or 13). The free radical then combines with two oxygen atoms to form a peroxide. Subsequently, one hydrogen atom is removed from another unsaturated fatty acid, and that hydrogen is added to complete the formation of the hydroperoxide. This process is autocatalytic-that is, it is self-perpetuating. It creates free radicals, peroxides, aldehydes, shorter fatty acids which in turn create a rancid flavor and odor.

Front 33

When does oxidative rancidity occur?

Back 33

When fat is exposed to air (oxygen), heat, or light, metals (iron, copper)

Front 34

Define hydrolytic rancidity

Back 34

Lipolysis (hydrolysis) of lipids to free fatty acids and glycerol, often catalyzed by lipases (book)

Fatty acids break off from glycerol by lipase (slides)

Front 35

True or False: Enzymes are naturally present in fats such as butter and nuts

Back 35

True

Front 36

Acrolein is caused by what type of rancidity?

Back 36

Hydrolytic rancidity

Front 37

Acrolein is formed when fat is ________

Back 37

fried

Front 38

True or False: You can keep butter at room temperature without it going rancid.

Back 38

False, you should never keep butter at room temperature because it will go rancid

Front 39

What type of enzyme breaks down fatty acids?

Back 39

Lipases

Front 40

True or False: Deep fat frying fat accumulates iron from fritters. Iron and heat cause initiation(loss of an electron), then a chain reaction.

Back 40

True

Front 41

True or False: Adding antioxidants will delay oxidation of fatty acids.

Back 41

True

Front 42

What is the vitamin that is closely related to preventing oxidative rancidity of fatty acids?

Back 42

Vitamin E (specifically alpha tocopherol)

Front 43

What are the 5 main functional roles of lipids in foods?

Back 43

Lipids:

1. Provide color

2. Contribute to flavor

3. Influence texture (tenderness and flakiness)

4. Cooking medium

5. Emulsification

Front 44

What temperature should you deep fry fat?

Back 44

350F-375F

Front 45

Fat Frying is what type of process?

Back 45

dehydration process

Front 46

What is the main goal of using fat as a frying medium?

Back 46

1.Fast cooking at high-temperature

2.Reduce fat absorption

Front 47

True or False: One should add large amounts of food to the frying oil to keep the temperature high.

Back 47

False, add small amount

Front 48

True or False: The higher the temperature of frying oil, the shorter the life of the oil is

Back 48

True

Front 49

True or False: Best fry oils have low smoke points of <420 F

Back 49

False, Best fry oils have high smoke point >420 °F

Front 50

What type of oil has the highest smoke point?

Back 50

Safflower oil

Front 51

True or False: Butter has a high smoke point

Back 51

False, it has a low smoke point

Front 52

True or False: Vegetable oils except olive oil have high smoke points, ~450°F; animal fats ~375°F

Back 52

True

Front 53

True or False: You can reuse frying oil without lowering its smoke point

Back 53

False

Front 54

True or False: extra virgin olive oil is oil only from first mechanical pressing of olives

Back 54

True

Front 55

What is: fat rendered from hogs; used in cooking, baking; store in refrigerator

Back 55

Lard

Front 56

What is: the premium type of lard; fat from abdominal cavity around the kidneys

Back 56

Leaf lard

Front 57

What is: fat from beef cattle and sheep

Back 57

Tallow

Front 58

Lard, Leaf lard and tollow are all 80% fat

Back 58

False, they are 100% fat

Front 59

What is: Minimum 80% butter fat, from pasteurized fresh cream

Back 59

Butter

Front 60

How many quarts of milk does it take to make 1 lb of butter?

Back 60

10 quarts

Front 61

1 tablespoon of butter has how many calories and how many grams of saturated fat?

Back 61

100 calories

7g saturated fat

Front 62

True or False: Butter has trans fat

Back 62

False, Only margarine has trans fat

Front 63

If butter is salted, how many mg of sodium is in 1 tablespoon of butter?

Back 63

45-120mg

Front 64

What is the predominant flavor compound of butter?

Back 64

Diacetyl

Front 65

_____ butter is when the water and milk solids have been removed, leaving pure milkfat; clear; sauces, dips, etc.

Back 65

Clarified

Front 66

_____ butter is when clarified butter that’s cooked longer. Milk solids are caramelized then strained for a rich, nutty flavor.

Back 66

Ghee

Front 67

True or False: Margarine had 0 trans fat

Back 67

False, it usually has 3g trans fat

Front 68

True or False: Stick(hard) margarine can replace butter 1:1 in recipes…but it may contain trans fats

Back 68

True

Front 69

What is: Minimum 80% fat from oils (soybean, corn, canola, cottonseed, sunflower oil)

Back 69

Margarine

Front 70

True or False: Regular Margarine has fewer calories than butter.

Back 70

False, they both have ~100 cals/tablespoon

Front 71

True or False: Margarine has no cholesterol

Back 71

True

Front 72

True or False: Butter has no cholesterol

Back 72

False, butter has 30mg of cholesterol

Front 73

Diet margarine has _____ to ______% fewer calories and much more water than butter

Back 73

50,80

Front 74

True or False: Margarine is healthier than butter.

Back 74

False, notnecessarily healthier due to transfats from hydrogenation

Front 75

Define hydrogenation

Back 75

The addition of hydrogen to an unsaturated fatty acid in the presence of a catalyst to reduce the unsaturation of the molecule and raise the melting point.

Front 76

What is the purpose of hydrogenating fats?

Back 76

1. Partial hydrogenation transforms liquid oils into more solid fats to improve shelf life and make fat more plastic and workable

2. Raises the melting point

Front 77

True or False: During hydrogenation, hydrogen atoms are added to unsaturated fats

Back 77

True

Front 78

True or False: Trans fatty acids can form during hydrogenation of fatty acids.

Back 78

True

Front 79

True or False: Hydrogenating fats turns solid fat into liquid

Back 79

False, it turns liquid into solid

Front 80

Hydrogenation lowers the melting point

Back 80

False, it raises the melting point

Front 81

True or False: Completely hydrogenated oils do not contain double bonds and thus do not contain trans fatty acids.

Back 81

True

Front 82

True or False: hydrogenating oils can prevent rancidity.

Back 82

True

Front 83

True or False: hydrogenating oils can decrease plasticity

Back 83

False, increases plasticity

Front 84

True or False: Hydrogenating oils increases storage time and can reduce the chance for rancidity by reducing double bonds.

Back 84

True

Front 85

What is the downside of hydrogenating oils?

Back 85

You lose the health benefits of unsaturated fats

Front 86

_________ are unsaturated fatty acids that change shape during hydrogenation, heating: margarine, deep-fried foods, chips, etc. associated with CVD risks similar to or greater than saturated fats.

Back 86

Trans Fatty acids

Front 87

___________ is the first step in production of lard (from pigs) or tallow (from beef cattle and sheep) is extraction of fat from tissues; steamed to liquefy

Back 87

Rendering

Front 88

__________ is the mechanical pressing of seeds or olives at ambient temperatures

Back 88

Cold Pressing

Front 89

___________ Is steam or hot water to heat seeds to 158°F;loss of natural flavor

Back 89

hot pressing

Front 90

________ removes undesirable gums, proteins, and ketones

Back 90

Refining

Front 91

Degumming, bleaching, deodorizing and controlling crystal size are all part of ________.

Back 91

Refining

Front 92

___________ is the process of chilling an oil to precipitate, filter, and remove any fat crystals

Back 92

Winterizing

Front 93

___________ is when chemicals or enzymes are used to split fatty acids from glycerol, then reorganizes them on glycerol to form different triglycerides with less tendency to form coarse crystals. Usually blend hard fats (palm oil, fully hydrogenated oil) with liquid oils to produce fats with intermediate characteristics.

Back 93

Interesterification

Front 94

Controlling crystal size is considered __________.

Back 94

Tempering

Front 95

careful temp control and agitation to obtain small beta-prime crystals is __________.

Back 95

Controlling crystal size: tempering

Front 96

__________ are substances that are added to foods but are not normally consumed by themselves as foods.

Back 96

Food additives

Front 97

______________ is the legislation governing food additives that placed the burden of proof of safety on the food manufacturer

Back 97

Food Additives Amendment of 1958

Front 98

__________ is the federal legislation establishing the U.S. Food and Drug Administration and defining its responsibilities.

Back 98

Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938

Front 99

What does GRAS stand for?

Back 99

Generally recognized as safe

Front 100

What items are on the GRAS list?

Back 100

Additives that have not undergone a scientific test to prove it is safe for human consumption. If it is not scientifically tested, it goes on the GRAS list.

Front 101

What items are on the Group 1 GRAS list?

Back 101

Prior-sanctioned substances- determined safe prior to 1958; ex.sodium nitrite to preserve luncheon meat

Front 102

What items are on the Group 2 GRAS list?

Back 102

GRAS (generally recognized as safe) by scientific review- based on the history of use or published scientific evidence; Ex. salt, sugar, spices, vitamins, MSG

Front 103

True or False: GRAS items are exempt from 1958 amendment

Back 103

True

Front 104

True or False, Items on the GRAS list can never be removed.

Back 104

False

Front 105

The ___________ clause states no food substance can be considered safe if it is found to produce cancer when fed to man or animal or can be shown to induce cancer by any appropriate test

Back 105

Delaney

Front 106

What are the 5 things a food additive needs to be in order for a manufacturer to be able to use it?

Back 106

1. Performs a useful function

2. Doesn’t obscure poor manufacturing procedures

3. Does not deceive customers

4. Does not reduce nutritive value substantially

5. Can be measured in the food product

Front 107

_____________ ___________ additives are nutrients added to improve or maintain the nutritional value of foods.

Back 107

Nutrient Supplement

Front 108

enrichment nutrients added to grains;iodine added to salt; vitamins A and D added to skim milk; vitamin C in fruit drinks are all examples of what type of food additive?

Back 108

Nutrient supplement

Front 109

Alanine, Thiamin and potassium iodide are often used for which type of food additive?

Back 109

Nutrient supplement

Front 110

_________________ is a food additive that retards food spoilage and prolongs shelf life; prevents color changes.

Back 110

Preservative

Front 111

Antimicrobial are a subclass of what type of food additive?

Back 111

preservative

Front 112

Sugar, salt, nitrites and mold inhibitors are all examples of what type of food additive?

Back 112

Preservative

Front 113

What type of food additive inhibits clostridium botulinum?

Back 113

Preservative, specifically nitrites

Front 114

Antioxidants are a subclass of what type of food additive?

Back 114

preservative

Front 115

___________ prevent rancidity in fats; 27 are in use,including vitamins C and E

Back 115

antioxidants

Front 116

BHA, BHT, and sulfites are what type of food additive?

Back 116

Preservative, specifically antioxidants

Front 117

True or False: Sulfites are safe to use in foods that contain thiamin

Back 117

False, sulfites destroy thiamin and can not be used in foods that are good sources of thiamin

Front 118

People with asthma are often sensitive to this type of food additive.

Back 118

Sulfites

Front 119

True or False: Since 1986, the FDA has prohibited the use of sulfites on food meant to be eaten raw, with the exception of grapes.

Back 119

True

Front 120

What are the two kinds of color additives?

Back 120

Natural

Artificial

Front 121

True or False: Natural food color additives need to be FDA certified.

Back 121

False, they are exempt from certification.

Front 122

Artificial color additives require certification from the FDA and primarily come from ________.

Back 122

Petroleum

Front 123

True or False, natural food color additives can be animal derived.

Back 123

True- Carmine, cochineal extract- made from ground up insects that feed on red cactus berries

Front 124

Turmeric, paprika, saffron,beta-carotene, caramel, annatto, riboflavin, fruit and vegetable juices, grape skin extract are all considered what type of food additive?

Back 124

Natural color additive

Front 125

True or False: artificial color additives are more expensive than natural ones.

Back 125

False, cheaper

Front 126

True or False: Artifical color additives are uniform and extremely potent

Back 126

True

Front 127

True or False: The downside of using artificial color additives is that they are unstable at high processing temperatures and are also sensitive to acids, C02 and do not store as long when compared to natural color additives.

Back 127

False, the exact opposite of the statement.

Front 128

What are the two kinds of certified color additives?

Back 128

Lakes and Dyes

Front 129

What is more stable, lakes or dyes?

Back 129

lakes

Front 130

Lakes are a certified color additive commonly used in what type of foods?

Back 130

fats and oils

Front 131

True or False: Dyes can dissolve in water

Back 131

True

Front 132

True or False: Color additives only enhance appearance without improving health value or safety

Back 132

True

Front 133

Red#3 is allowed in what form?

Back 133

As a Dye in foods. Banned in cosmetics

Front 134

Tartrazine is what food color additive?

Back 134

FD&C Yellow No.5

Front 135

True or False: Natural flavors are rarely used and can be extracted with chemical solvents.

Back 135

True

Front 136

__________ ____________ additives use chemical additives such as alcohols, ethers, aldehydes, and ketones

Back 136

Artificial flavor

Front 137

Cinnamaldehyde, Carvone and Anethol are all types of what additive?

Back 137

Artificial flavor

Front 138

MSG, hydrolyzed soy protein, yeast extract are all examples of what kind of additive?

Back 138

Artificial flavor additive, specifically Flavor enhancers

Front 139

MSG stands for:

Back 139

Monosodium Glutamate

Front 140

Chinese Restaurant Syndrome is associated with what additive?

Back 140

MSG

Front 141

What type of additive is added to foods to bind metals such as copper, iron, calcium? They prevent metals from inducing oxidative changes, preventing: staleness, rancidity, off-flavors

Back 141

Sequestrants (Chelating agents)

Front 142

EDTA,phytates, sorbitol are all examples of what type of additive?

Back 142

Sequestrant (Chelating agents)

Front 143

hydrocolloids are what type of food additive?

Back 143

stabilizer or thickener

Front 144

From pectin, gelatin, seeds, cellulose

From seaweed- agar, algin, carrageenan

From plants- guar gum, gum arabic,locust bean gum, xanthan gum

All of these are what type of additive?

Back 144

stabilizers or thickeners

Front 145

What are the 4 classes of freezing?

Back 145

1. Perishable raw foods

2. Perishable heated or cooked foods

3. Semi-perishable foods

4. Non-perishable foods

Front 146

True or False: perishable raw foods do not require any preparation before freezing.

Back 146

False, they require limited prep like washing, drying, blanching.

Fruits can be coated with sugar to improve texture

Front 147

True or False: Meats, poultry & Fish typically do not require prep prior to freezing

Back 147

True

Front 148

True or False: Emulsions can break and curdle when freezing.

Back 148

True

Front 149

True or False: Starch thickened mixtures curdle during storage.

Back 149

True

Front 150

Changes during freezing... how do foods freeze?

Back 150

Begins at edges and moves inward as mixture chills

Front 151

True or False: Increased concentration of salts/sugars raises the freezing temp of remaining solution

Back 151

false, it lowers

Front 152

Sharp freezing, Air-blast freezing, Indirect contact freezing and Immersion freezing are considered what subclass of freezing?

Back 152

Commercial freezing

Front 153

__________ is preservation of food by heat

Back 153

Canning

Front 154

how long can-canning preserved foods last?

Back 154

Can be stored at room temp for at least 2 years

Front 155

The rate at which bacteria and bacterial spores are destroyed by heat is termed the ___________ ______ __ ________.

Back 155

Logarithmic order of death

Front 156

True or False: Temperature is a key factor in determining the death rate of microorganisms.

Back 156

True

Front 157

Comparison of the rate of death of pathogenic microorganisms over a range of processing temperatures defines what:

Back 157

Thermal death time curves

Front 158

vegetables, meats, and other low-acid foods have the potential for contamination by __________ _________, which is why canning is the chosen method of preservation for these foods.

Back 158

Clostridium botulinum

Front 159

_____________ __________ foods are foods that have been heat processed enough to kill all pathogenic microorganisms and spores.

Back 159

commercially sterile

Front 160

________ canning is processed under pressure to control the processing temperature; 240° to destroy bacteria.

Back 160

Pressure

Front 161

processing done under pressure so that the temperature is elevated enough to kill microorganisms in a reasonable length of time defines:

Back 161

Pressure canning

Front 162

Large, deep kettle for canning high-acid foods at sea level without adding pressure to raise the boiling temperature, defines:

Back 162

water bath canner

Front 163

How do you determine what foods should be pressure canned or not?

Back 163

If the pH is above 4.5 (low-acidic foods) then you use pressure to can.

If the pH is below 4.5 (high-acidic foods) then you use a water bath to can.

Front 164

Fruits and pickles are high acidic foods, what type of canning should be used?

Back 164

Water bath

Front 165

Vegetables and meats are low acidic foods, what type of canning should be used?

Back 165

Pressure

Front 166

What is the original method of preserving food?

Back 166

Drying

Front 167

_________ is an effective means of food preservation if the moisture level of the dried food is sufficiently low to kill harmful microorganisms.

Back 167

Drying

Front 168

_______ is mostly likely the cause of spoilage in dried foods.

Back 168

mold

Front 169

What % moisture does a dried food need to be in order to prevent reabsorption of some moisture?

Back 169

13%

Front 170

True or False: When drying foods, one should use high temperatures.

Back 170

False, one should use mild temperatures such as sunlight

Front 171

Evaporation enhanced when relative humidity is _____(1), air temperature is ______(2) and air is ______ (3)

Back 171

1-low

2-warm

3. circulating above the food

Front 172

What are the 4 methods to prevent color change during the dehydration process?

Back 172

1. Sulfuring– expose cut fruit to smoke from burning sulfur flowers; apricots

2. Blanching– minimizes color changes in dried vegetables.

3. Apples & bananas – dip in acidic juice to avoid color changes.

4. Maillard Reaction – when moisture level drops from 20 to 15%

Front 173

True or False: High concentration of sugar creates an unfavorable osmotic pressure; combined with boiling kills microorganisms. This is a common method of food preservation.

Back 173

True

Front 174

______ is key to forming gel structure in jams & jellies

Back 174

pectin

Front 175

Optimal pectin gel formation: pH of

Back 175

3.3

Front 176

Kimchi is a traditional ________ (country) dish

Back 176

Korean

Front 177

_______ prevents action of Ascorbic acid oxidase

Back 177

blanching

Front 178

________________ is Fermented and salted seasonal vegetables, typically cabbage. Originally used so vegetables would be available throughout the year. Served at almost every meal in Korea.

Back 178

Kimchi

Front 179

Principal myofibrillar protein; long, thin molecule. This defines:

Back 179

Myosin

Front 180

Myofibrillar protein existing primarily in two forms [F (very long) and G (smaller)]. This defines:

Back 180

Actin

Front 181

Very small, least abundant of the three principal myofibrillar proteins. This defines:

Back 181

Tropomyosin

Front 182

Fibrous protein composed of three strands of tropocollagen. This defines:

Back 182

Collagen

Front 183

Yellow connective tissue occurring in limited amounts intramuscularly and in somewhat greater concentrations in deposits outside the muscles. This defines:

Back 183

Elastin

Front 184

A type of connective tissue protein associated with a fatty acid (myristic acid). This defines:

Back 184

Reticulin

Front 185

Undifferentiated matrix of plasma proteins and glycoproteins in which fibrous molecules of collagen and/or elastin are bound. This defines:

Back 185

Ground substance

Front 186

Large, iron-containing compound consisting off four heme-polypeptide polymers linked together; contributes to meat color. This defines:

Back 186

Hemoglobin

Front 187

Purplish-red pigment consisting of heme-containing ferrous iron and 1 polypeptide polymer (globin). This defines:

Back 187

Myoglobin

Front 188

True or False: Hemoglobin and Myoglobin only differ in their protein component.

Back 188

True

Front 189

True or False: Even though hemoglobin has 4 protein polymers and myosin only has 1, myosin is the larger molecule.

Back 189

False, hemoglobin is 4 times larger then myoglobin

Front 190

True or False: Myoglobin contributes 3 times as much color to meat then hemoglobin.

Back 190

True

Front 191

What is the first thing that happens to myoglobin when is makes contact with heat?

Back 191

Myoglobin present in the interior of muscles changes to oxymyoglobin

Front 192

Continued heating of oxymyoglobin converts it into ___________ ___________ ______________ which has a __________ ______ color associated with well-done meats.

Back 192

Denatured globin hemichrome

Greyish brown

Front 193

Hemoglobin reacts with _______ _____ and ______ _____ during high heat cooking which causes a reddish-pink color to the meat.

Back 193

carbon monoxide

nitric oxide

Front 194

True or False: Exposure to light and air causes oxidation of the ferrous iron (2+) to the ferric (3+) state, which results in development of a brownish color.

Back 194

True

Front 195

designation for meat, poultry, fish, and shellfish that have not been chilled below -3.3°C (26°F). This defines:

Back 195

Fresh

Front 196

Statement required on meat, poultry, fish, and shellfish if freezing occurred, but the item is thawed to at least -3.3°C (26°F) before it is purchased. This defines:

Back 196

Previously frozen

Front 197

True or False: Muscle proteins in meat become more tender when heated

Back 197

False, Less tender

Front 198

True or False: When meat fibers are heated to between 40 and 50C (104 and 122 F), myosin becomes less soluble, and hydration of myosin and other muscle proteins decreases.

Back 198

True

Front 199

True or False: The second phase affecting the tenderness of muscle proteins occurs when they reach temp between 40 and 50C (104 and 122 F)

Back 199

False, second phase is between 65 and 75 C (149 and 167F)

Front 200

True or False: Elastin is not modified during heating but collagen molecules slowly change when subjected to moist heat.

Back 200

True

Front 201

Collagen molecules slowly change when subjected to moist heat, because hydrogen bonds begin to break between the component _____________ strands.

Back 201

tropocollagen

Front 202

True or False: When connective tissue is heated, gelatin components of collagen begin to move away from each other.

Back 202

True

Front 203

What type of meat should you use a dry heat method for cooking?

Back 203

Tender cuts of meat, because of their relatively high proportion of muscle protein and reduced quality of collagen

Front 204

What type of meat should you use a moist heat method for cooking?

Back 204

Tough/less tender cuts of meat that have high quality collagen

Front 205

________ enhances water retention, improves juiciness, and promotes tenderness of meat

Back 205

salt

Front 206

True or False: meat can be tenderized by proteolytic enzymes

Back 206

True

Front 207

What is the most common proteolytic enzyme that tenderizes meats?

Back 207

papain

Front 208

True or False: Papain (proteolytic enzyme that tenderizes meat) provides a better texture than mechanical tenderizing.

Back 208

False, enzymes can create a mushy texture

Front 209

What are the 4 kinds of mechanical tenderizer methods for meat?

Back 209

1. Commercially,meat can be run through a tenderizer equipped with needles or blades to cut some of the connective tissue and increase tenderness. Can change the texture but not mushy like the enzymes

2. Pounding with a meat hammer

3. Cubing

4. Meat grinder

Front 210

Defatted soy product usually containing about 70% protein. This defines:

Back 210

soy protein concentrate

Front 211

defatted, highly concentrated (up to 95%) soyprotein; used to make many textured soy products. This defines:

Back 211

Soy protein isolate

Front 212

finely ground soy flakes. This defines:

Back 212

Soy flour

Front 213

Soybean curd. This defines:

Back 213

Tofu

Front 214

fermented cooked soybean product resembling cake. This defines:

Back 214

Tempeh

Front 215

fermented cooked soybean product useful as a spread or in soups. This defines:

Back 215

Natto

Front 216

paste made by fermenting a mold culture with soybeans, salt, and often rice for up to three years. This defines:

Back 216

Miso

Front 217

The end product of a series of steps producing fibers from soybeans. This defines:

Back 217

textured soy protein (TSP/TVP)

Front 218

protein derived from collagen via tropocollagen when heated for an extended period; useful in gel formation. This defines:

Back 218

Gelatin

Front 219

True or False: Gelatin is used in preparing some stabilized foam deserts and whipped gelatin salads

Back 219

True

Front 220

This bacteria causes the exotoxin botulism

Back 220

Clostridium botulinum

Front 221

True or False: Clostridium botulinum has spores that can be cast into soil and water

Back 221

True

Front 222

Clostridium botulinum is commonly seen in what type of foods?

Back 222

Improperly canned low-acid foods

Front 223

True or False: home-canned vegetables and meats should be boiled actively for at least 15 minutes before they are even tasted. Foods must be heated under pressure to kill spores.

Back 223

True

Front 224

True or False: Clostridium botulinum is attracted to high-acidic foods

Back 224

False, attracted to low-acidic foods

Front 225

True or False: Clostridium botulinum is highly lethal without administration of an antitoxin

Back 225

True

Front 226

True or False: Staphylococcal infections are the result of contact with toxins produced by L. monocytogenes

Back 226

False, toxin is produced by S.aureus

Front 227

True or False: Staphylococcus aureus in contaminated protein-rich foods does not produce any toxins.

Back 227

False- can produce an enterotoxin (exotoxin) that causes food-borne illness.

Front 228

Ensure that no one with boils encounters food. This prevention method is for what bacterium?

Back 228

Staphylococcus aureus

Front 229

True or False: Heat treatment will kill S. aureus but not destroy the enterotoxin.

Back 229

True

Front 230

Inadequate refrigeration of meats, egg and potato salads, and cream pastries. These foods are common to what bacterium?

Back 230

Staphylococcus aureus

Front 231

The only protectionagainst this type of infection is to avoid the original contamination. What am I?

Back 231

Staphylococcus aureus

Front 232

This bacterium was not diagnosed until the 1980s, the bacteria was identified in farm animals early in the 20th century . What am I?

Back 232

Listeria monocytogenes

Front 233

This bacterium can cause Septicemia,meningitis, encephalitis, intrauterine or cervical infections which may causes pontaneous abortion or still birth. What am I?

Back 233

Listeria monocytogenes

Front 234

True or False: L. monocytogenes forms deadly spores.

Back 234

False, it does not form spores

Front 235

This bacterium is commonly found in meats, meat products, unpasteurized milk, and soft cheeses

Back 235

Listeria monocytogenes

Front 236

Listeria monocytogenes toxin causes __________ in humans

Back 236

listeriosis

Front 237

True or False: L. monocytogenes only thrive in freezing temperatures.

Back 237

False, they thrive at room temperature

Front 238

True or False: L. monocytogenes stop multiplying in cold temperatures and can only be killed by high heat and pasteurization.

Back 238

True

Front 239

The physical movement or transfer of harmful bacteria from one person, object or place to another. This defines:

Back 239

Cross-contamination

Front 240

Grains, peanuts, silage, and similar plant crops provide ideal hosts for _______ when stored under warm, moist conditions

Back 240

mold

Front 241

HACCP stands for:

Back 241

Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points

Front 242

_______ is a system for analyzing, monitoring, and controlling food safety during production.

Back 242

HACCP (Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points)

Front 243

1. Conduct hazard analysis and risk assessment

2. Determine critical control points (CCP)

3. Establish critical limits

4. Establish monitoring procedures

5. Establish corrective actions

6. Establish verification procedures.

7. Establish record-keeping and documentation procedures

These 7 steps are part of what?

Back 243

HACCP (Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points)

Front 244

_________ is the overall document of standards for food quality established by the ISO. (International Organization of Standardization)

Back 244

ISO 9000

Front 245

True or False: Every country has to follow ISO 9000

Back 245

False, only 91 countries use the ISO 9000 standards

Front 246

True or False: ISO 9000 is a single document of standards for foodquality, established by the ISO.

Back 246

False, ISO is not a single document but actually consists of 5 standards: ISO9000, ISO 9001, ISO 9002, ISO 9003, and ISO 9004

Front 247

What is the purpose of ISO 9000?

Back 247

PROVIDES AN OVERVIEW OF THE REST OF THE DOCUMENTS IN THE SERIES TO DIRECT USERS TO THE PERTINENT ONES FOR SPECIFIC USERS.

Front 248

True or False: The CDC (The Centers for Disease Control) is part of the DHHS (Department of Health and Human Services)

Back 248

True

Front 249

Collaborating to create the expertise, information, and tools that people and communities need to protect their health – through health promotion, prevention of disease, injury and disability, and preparedness for new health threats.

This is the mission of what government agency?

Back 249

CDC

Front 250

In relation to food-related illness- the ________ identifies, responds, tracks, provides training, prevention and control.

Back 250

CDC

Front 251

Which 2 agencies are responsible for assuring our water supplies are safe to drink?

Back 251

EPA (Environmental Protection Agency)

DHS (The Department of Homeland security)

Front 252

What agency has jurisdiction over bottles water?

Back 252

FDA (Food and Drug Administration)

Front 253

What government agency regulates pesticide residue in foods and establishes water quality standards.

Back 253

EPA- Environmental Protection Agency

Front 254

The Safe Drinking Water Act of 1974 authorizes the _______ to regulate the nation’s public drinking water and to protect its sources.

Back 254

EPA

Front 255

The _____ set standards for contaminants; certify labs that analyze water; maintain a contaminant list for priority-setting; research contaminants,

Back 255

EPA

Front 256

____ is a scientific regulatory agency

Back 256

FDA

Front 257

The Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (CFSAN) is part of what government agency?

Back 257

FDA

Front 258

________ Ensures that the domestic and imported food supply (except meat, poultry, eggs) is safe, sanitary, wholesome, and honestly labeled.

Back 258

FDA, specifically the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition

Front 259

1. Ensure safety of food/color additives

2. Regulate labeling of food

3. Regulate safety of dietary supplements, infant formula, medical foods

4. Ensure safety of foods developed through biotechnology

5. Consumer and industry education

6. Also-Inspect establishments, collect and analyze samples, monitor imports, laboratory research

These tasks are completed by what agency?

Back 259

Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (CFSAN)

Front 260

This government agency was founded by president Lincoln in 1862 and includes the Food and Nutrition Services, the Food Safety and Inspection Services (FSIS), and The Agriculture Research Service (ARS).

Back 260

USDA

Front 261

What does USDA stand for?

Back 261

U.S. Department of Agriculture

Front 262

What does EPA stand for?

Back 262

Environmental Protection Agency

Front 263

What does FDA stand for?

Back 263

Food and Drug Administration

Front 264

The Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS) is part of what government agency?

Back 264

USDA

Front 265

The Food and Nutrition Service is part of what government agency?

Back 265

USDA

Front 266

The Agricultural Research Service (ARS) is part of what government agency?

Back 266

USDA

Front 267

Let's move!, SNAP, WIC, Meat and Poultry Hotline, National organic programs, Food Preservation, Home Canning Education, ChooseMyPlate, Steps to a Healthier You, Commodity Food Distribution, Food Safety Gateway, Farm to School Initiatives, are all part of what government agency?

Back 267

USDA

Front 268

What government agency investigates false or misleading advertising for foods and dietary supplements, including weight loss supplements?

Back 268

Federal Trade Commission

Front 269

This government agency prevents price fixing and other unfair practices. It can also issue “cease and desist” orders.

Back 269

Federal Trade Commission

Front 270

Halts Operation that Allegedly Used Fake News Sites to Make Deceptive Claims about Acai Berry Weight-Loss Products

This is an example of the power of what government agency?

Back 270

Federal Trade Commission

Front 271

True or False: The Organic Food Standards only includes foods grown in the U.S.

Back 271

False, it also includes imported foods

Front 272

True or False: Farms must be inspected by approved certifier, however, companies that handle organic food do not have to be certified.

Back 272

False, Farms must be inspected by approved certifier; companies that handle organic food must also be certified

Front 273

True or False: In order to be considered 100% organic, organic meat, poultry, eggs, dairy products must come from animals given no antibiotics or growth hormones

Back 273

True

Front 274

True or False: In order to be considered 100% organic , organic foods must be produced without chemical pesticides and synthetic fertilizers

Back 274

True

Front 275

True or False: In order to be considered 100% organic, no sewage sludge can be used, however, ionized radiation and bio-engineered foods are allowed.

Back 275

False, No sewage sludge, No ionizing radiation; no bioengineered foods

Front 276

True or False: in order for meat to follow the organic standards, no antibiotics or hormones can be used.

Back 276

True

Front 277

True or False: Meat that follows the organic standards can be fed by-products.

Back 277

False

Front 278

True or False: in order for meat to follow the organic standards animals must have access to the outdoors however can be routinely confined.

Back 278

False, Animals must have access to outdoors, sunlight, Cannot be routinely confined

Front 279

True or False: in order for meat to follow the organic standards cattle must have access to a pasture.

Back 279

True

Front 280

True or False: in order for meat to follow the organic standards, pastures must average 10% of their dry intake.

Back 280

False, 30%

Front 281

True or False: In order for meat to follow the organic standards, the farms must be inspected.

Back 281

True

Front 282

True or False: 100% organic means all ingredients are organic. USDA label on packaging

Back 282

True

Front 283

True or False: "Ingredient panel only" means the food is 70% to 94% organic and has a USDA Label on package.

Back 283

False, means the food has less then 70% organic ingredients and "Organic" can only be used on the ingredient panel.

Front 284

True or False: Organic means a minimum of 95% of ingredients are organic. Can have USDA Organic Label on package.

Back 284

True

Front 285

True or False: Made with Organic Ingredients means the food is 70% to 94% organic and has a USDA Label on package.

Back 285

True

Front 286

PLU's on fresh produce indicate how the produce is grown. If the number is 4011 what does that mean?

Back 286

Conventionally grown produce

Front 287

PLU 94011 means?

Back 287

organically grown produce

Front 288

PLU 84011 means?

Back 288

Genetically modified

Front 289

COOL stands for:

Back 289

Country of Origin Labeling

Front 290

True or False: COOL covers beef ,lamb, chicken, goat, pork, fish and shellfish (wild or farm-raised must be specified), fruits and vegetables (fresh and frozen), macadamia nuts, pecans, peanuts, ginseng.

Back 290

True

Front 291

True or False: Processed foods must have a COOL label

Back 291

False

Front 292

True or False: Beef and pork muscle cut, ground beef and ground pork require a COOL label.

Back 292

False, In December 2015, USDA no longer enforce COOL requirements for beef and pork muscle cut, ground beef and ground pork.

Front 293

Dirty dozen or Clean 15: Onions

Back 293

Clean 15

Front 294

Dirty dozen or Clean 15: apples

Back 294

Dirty dozen

Front 295

Dirty dozen or Clean 15: potatoes

Back 295

Dirty dozen

Front 296

Dirty dozen or Clean 15: Strawberries

Back 296

Dirty dozen

Front 297

Dirty dozen or Clean 15: Avocado

Back 297

Clean 15

Front 298

Dirty dozen or Clean 15: Kiwi

Back 298

Clean 15

Front 299

Dirty dozen or Clean 15: Celery

Back 299

Dirty Dozen

Front 300

Dirty dozen or Clean 15: Cantaloupe(domestic) and Watermelon

Back 300

Clean 15

Front 301

Dirty dozen or Clean 15: pineapple

Back 301

Clean 15

Front 302

Dirty dozen or Clean 15: Nectarines (imported)

Back 302

Dirty dozen

Front 303

Dirty dozen or Clean 15: grapes

Back 303

Dirty Dozen

Front 304

Dirty dozen or Clean 15: Grapefruit

Back 304

Clean 15

Front 305

Dirty dozen or Clean 15: Sweet bell peppers

Back 305

Dirty dozen

Front 306

Dirty dozen or Clean 15: Blueberries (domestic)

Back 306

Dirty Dozen

Front 307

Dirty dozen or Clean 15: Spinach, lettuce, kale, greens

Back 307

Dirty Dozen

Front 308

Dirty dozen or Clean 15: Sweet corn

Back 308

Clean 15

Front 309

Dirty dozen or Clean 15: Cabbage

Back 309

Clean 15

Front 310

Dirty dozen or Clean 15: Sweet peas

Back 310

Clean 15

Front 311

Dirty dozen or Clean 15: Peaches

Back 311

Dirty Dozen

Front 312

Dirty dozen or Clean 15: Cucumbers

Back 312

Dirty Dozen

Front 313

Dirty dozen or Clean 15: Asparagus

Back 313

Clean 15

Front 314

Dirty dozen or Clean 15: Mangoes

Back 314

Clean 15

Front 315

Dirty dozen or Clean 15: Eggplant

Back 315

Clean 15

Front 316

Dirty dozen or Clean 15: Sweet potatoes

Back 316

Clean 15

Front 317

Dirty dozen or Clean 15: Mushrooms

Back 317

Clean 15

Front 318

What item on the clean 15 list has the lowest pesticide load?

Back 318

Onions