Crcst Review

Front 1

Soiled instruments and other items are received in the _____ area of the Central Service Dept.

A. preparation

B. packaging

C. decontamination

D. sterilization

Back 1

Decontamination

Front 2

_____is the first step in the sterilization process.

a. receiving

b. sorting

c. soaking

d. cleaning

Back 2

Cleaning

Front 3

Central Service Techs must wear special attire referred to as _____to minimize their exposure to bloodborne pathogens and other contaminants.

a. ppe

b. osha

c. scrubs

d. cdc

Back 3

PPE

Front 4

Instrument sets and other required instrumentation needed for all surgical procedures for an entire day are usually pulled (collected):

a. two days before they will be used

b. the day or evening before they will be used

c. the morning of the planned surgery

d. early morning (for morning procedures) and early afternoon (for afternoon procedures) on the day of surgery

Back 4

the day or evening before they will be used

Front 5

What type of air pressure is required for decontamination areas?

a. negative

b. neutral

c. forced air

d. positive

Back 5

negative

Front 6

The use of analytical skills to solve problems and make decisions is a component of which of the following knowledge and skills?

a. communication abilities

b. facility system responsibilities

c. employability skills

d. safety practices

Back 6

employability skills

Front 7

Nosocomial infections are:

a. most likely to occur during international travel

b. caused by drug resistant organisms

c. those without known cures

d. those which occur in the course of being treated in a hospital

Back 7

those which occur in the course of being treated in a hospital

Front 8

The human resources tool that identifies major tasks performed by persons in specific positions is called a:

a. job duty list

b. job specification

c. task summary review

d. job description

Back 8

job description

Front 9

In the future, which of the following will more frequently become a requirement for working in a Central Service department?

a. on-the-job training

b. experience

c. formal education

d. reference from facility administrator

Back 9

formal education

Front 10

Which of the following is the most popular title for the Central Service department head?

a. coordinator

b. director

c. manager

d. supervisor

Back 10

director

Front 11

The largest customer of Central Service is:

a. the emergency department

b. labor and delivery

c. material management

d. the operating room

Back 11

the operating room

Front 12

Which of the following is NOT a growing trend in Central Service?

a. decentralization of central service responsibilities

b. the use of more reusable and more comlex devices

c. satellite-processing units with centralized management

d. consolidation into entire integrated delivery networks

Back 12

decentralization of central service responsibilities

Front 13

In Central Service, the concept of "one-way flow of materials" refers to the movement of products:

a. from central service to surgical areas

b. from surgical areas to central service

c. from soiled areas to clean processing areas within central service

d. from clean processing areas to soiled areas in central service

Back 13

from soiled areas to clean processing areas within central service

Front 14

Surgical instruments should be inspected:

a. before they are cleaned

b. after they are cleaned

c. after they are sterilized

d. during storage

Back 14

after they are cleaned

Front 15

The sterile storage area in a central service department should be restricted to:

a. central service managers and supervisors

b. operating room personnel

c. central service employees only

d. properly attired personnel meeting facility requirements

Back 15

properly attired personnel meeting facility requirements

Front 16

cardio

Back 16

heart

Front 17

chole

Back 17

bile

Front 18

cranio

Back 18

skull

Front 19

cysto

Back 19

bladder

Front 20

derma

Back 20

skin

Front 21

gastro

Back 21

stomach

Front 22

gyne

Back 22

uterus/womb

Front 23

hepat

Back 23

liver

Front 24

herni

Back 24

rupture

Front 25

hyster

Back 25

uterus/womb

Front 26

lipo

Back 26

fat

Front 27

litho

Back 27

stone

Front 28

rhino

Back 28

nose

Front 29

arthro

Back 29

joint

Front 30

endo

Back 30

within

Front 31

hemi

Back 31

half

Front 32

para

Back 32

near, beside

Front 33

peri

Back 33

around, about

Front 34

post

Back 34

after

Front 35

supra

Back 35

above

Front 36

ectomy

Back 36

surgical removal

Front 37

ostomy

Back 37

surgical creation of a new opening

Front 38

otomy

Back 38

incision into an organ

Front 39

plasty

Back 39

surgical restoration or repair

Front 40

rrhaphy

Back 40

to suture

Front 41

oscopy

Back 41

visual exam

Front 42

cise

Back 42

to cut

Front 43

excision of the colon

Back 43

colectomy

Front 44

forming an opening into the colon

Back 44

colostomy

Front 45

instrument to cut skin

Back 45

dermatome

Front 46

excision of hemorrhoids

Back 46

hemorrhoidectomy

Front 47

crushing of a stone

Back 47

lithotripsy

Front 48

surgical repair of the nose

Back 48

rhinoplasty

Front 49

surgical repair of the tympanic membrane

Back 49

tympanoplasty

Front 50

The term "hemi" is a

a. prefix

b. root

c. suffic

d. noun

Back 50

prefix

Front 51

The term "excise" means

a. to repair

b. to open

c. to cut out

d. examine

Back 51

to cut out

Front 52

Which of the following means "beside or near"?

a. para

b. peri

c. parta

d. pana

Back 52

para

Front 53

Which of the following surcial abbreviations might be used relating to a fractured bone?

a. CABG

b. BSO

c. ORIF

d. TAH

Back 53

ORIF

Front 54

The term "interosto" means

a. within the colon

b. between the toes

c. within the bladder

d. between the ribs

Back 54

between the ribs

Front 55

The term "hypo" means

a. quickly

b. above

c. below

d. measured

Back 55

below

Front 56

The majority of medical terms are of either ___ or ___ origin.

a. greek or French

b. greek or latin

c. latin or French

d. latin and english

Back 56

Greek or Latin

Front 57

Which of the following tells a primary meaning of a word:

a. prefix word element

b. root word element

c. suffix word element

d. combining vowel

Back 57

root word element

Front 58

The purpose of a combining vowel is to:

a. tell the primary meaning of a word

b. suggest the meaning of the root word element

c. ease pronunciation

d. ease spelling

Back 58

ease pronunciation

Front 59

The last word element in a medical term is the:

a. prefix

b. suffix

c. root

d. analog

Back 59

suffix

Front 60

The root element, "gastro", refers to the:

a. colon

b. heart

c. muscles

d. stomach

Back 60

stomach

Front 61

The suffix, "ectomy", refers to:

a. surgical removal

b. inflammation

c. surgical revision

d. visual examination of organs

Back 61

surgical removal

Front 62

"Hyperglycemia" refers to:

a. a malignant tumor

b. tissue death of an artery

c. high blood sugar

d. enlargement of the heart

Back 62

high blood sugar

Front 63

The term "rhinoplasty," refers to:

a. surgery of a muscle wound

b. surgical repair of the nose

c. removal of a cyst

d. incision of the stomach

Back 63

surgical repair of the nose

Front 64

"Dermopathy" is a(an):

a. skin disease

b. inflammation of the liver

c. fluid-filled sack

d. inflammation of a joint

Back 64

skin disease

Front 65

"Lithotripsy" refers to:

a. aspiration of fatty tissue

b. surgical removal of the ovary

c. crushing of a stone

d. visual examination of a joint

Back 65

crushing of a stone

Front 66

"Subcutaneous" refers to:

a. low sugar content in the blood

b. displacement of the pelvic joint

c. beneath the skin

d. without infection: sterile

Back 66

beneath the skin

Front 67

The term, "periosteal elevator," refers to:

a. surgical removal of tissue near the thyroid

b. surgical removal of one-half of the stomach

c. an instrument for cutting skin

d. an instrument used to remove tissue around the bone

Back 67

an instrument used to remove tissue around the bone

Front 68

The term, "BKA" refers to a surgical procedure involving:

a. treatment of a fractured bone without a surgical incision

b. surgical removal of both the fallopian tubes and ovaries

c. surgical removal of the leg below the knee

d. a type of hip joint reconstruction

Back 68

surgical removal of the leg below the knee

Front 69

The term "CR" relates to a surgical procedure for:

a. treating a fractured bone without a surgical incision

b. creating a new blood supply to an area of the heart

c. surgical removal of the uterus

d. surgical removal of part of the prostate gland

Back 69

treating a fractured bone without a surgical incision

Front 70

This system give the body shape and support

a. muscular

b. nervous

c. skeletal

d. circulatory

Back 70

skeletal

Front 71

This tissue connects one bone to another.

a. tendon

b. muscle

c. cartilage

d. ligament

Back 71

ligament

Front 72

These muscles control involuntary movements like breathing, digestion, etc.

a. smooth

b. cardiac

c. skeletal

d. fascia

Back 72

smooth muscle

Front 73

This surgical procedure consists of removing an ear bone that has thickened and no longer transmits sound waves and replacing it with an artificial implant to improve hearing.

a. tympanoplasty

b. stapedectomy

c. auditory implantation

d. myringotomy

Back 73

stapedectomy

Front 74

More than 55% of blood is made up of this yellowish liquid

a. platelets

b. red blood cells

c. white blood cells

d. plasma

Back 74

plasma

Front 75

This organ filters the blood to remove amino acids and neutralize some harmful toxins

a. kidney

b. pancreas

c. liver

d. gall bladder

Back 75

liver

Front 76

This surgical procedure removes the uterus

a. hysteroscopy

b. hysterectomy

c. dilatation and curettage

d. bilateral-salpingoophorectomy

Back 76

hysterectomy

Front 77

This gland stimulates body growth

a. adrenal

b. thyroid

c. pancreas

d. pituitary

Back 77

pituitary gland

Front 78

The lining of the uterus.

a. vagina

b. endometrium

c. fimbriae

d. skin

Back 78

endometrium

Front 79

This surgical procedure removes tissue or displaced bone from the srist area to release pressure on the median nerve.

a. carpal tunnel repair

b. ulner nerve transposition

c. arthrotomy

d. fasciotomy

Back 79

carpal tunnel repair

Front 80

The largest part of the human brain is the:

a. brain stem

b. cerebellum

c. cerebrum

d. spinal cord

Back 80

cerebrum

Front 81

This surgical procedure is the removal of a testicle

a. transurethral resection

b. prostatectomy

c. orchiopexy

d. orchiectomy

Back 81

orchiectomy

Front 82

The "throat"

a. esophagus

b. larynx

c. trachea

d. pharnyx

Back 82

pharnyx

Front 83

This surgical procedure is the removal of the gall bladder

a. cholecystectomy

b. colectomy

c. parotidectomy

d. gastectomy

Back 83

cholecystectomy

Front 84

The hip joint is an example of a:

a. gliding joint

b. ball and socket joint

c. pivot joint

d. hinge joint

Back 84

ball and socket joint

Front 85

This tissue covers the body's external surface

a. epithelial tissue

b. connective tissue

c. muscular tissue

d. nervous tissue

Back 85

epithelial tissue

Front 86

The brain center of a cell

a. cell membrane

b. cytoplasm

c. nucleus

d. DNA

Back 86

nucleus

Front 87

Cartilage is replaced by bone through a process called

a. ossification

calcification

c. osmosis

d. cancellous formation

Back 87

ossification

Front 88

The white portion of the eye is called the:

a. retina

b. iris

c. pupil

d. sclera

Back 88

sclera

Front 89

The "voice box":

a. pharynx

b. larynx

c. mouth

d. trachea

Back 89

larnyx

Front 90

Microorganisms reproduce by a process called:

a. repopulation

b. binary fission

c. replication

d. bilateral reproduction

Back 90

binary fission

Front 91

For safety purposes, central service techs should consider all microorganisms in the decontamination area;

a. gram-positive

b. gram-negative

c. manageable

d. potentially infectious

Back 91

potentially infectious

Front 92

The part of a cell that controls cell function is the:

a. cytoplasm

b. nucleus

c. cell membrane

d. capsule

Back 92

nucleus

Front 93

A mode of bacterial transmission that would take place when an infectious agent was transmitted through an item such as food or water is called:

a. contact

b. common vehicle

c. airborne

d. vector-borne

Back 93

common vehicle

Front 94

_____is an example of a fungus:

a. pneumonia

b. tuberculosis

c. athlete's foot

d. Herpes simplex type 2

Back 94

athlete's foot

Front 95

Agency which may intervene in a matter of worker protection even if there are no specific regulations covering the situation:

a. OSHA

b. EPA

c. FDA

d. AORN

Back 95

OSHA

Front 96

Regulations under the Clean Air Act are administered by

a. OSHA

b. FDA

c. EPA

d. AORN

Back 96

EPA

Front 97

Agency which imposes very strict labeling requirements on manufacturers of chemicals used by Central Service departments

a. OSHA

b. FDA

c. EPA

d. AAMI

Back 97

EPA

Front 98

Healthcare Regulations and Standards provide consistency of departmental activities by outlining.

a. minimal performance standards

b. equal pay practices

c. productivity time lines

d. none of the above

Back 98

a. minimal performance standards

Front 99

Established national emissions standards for EO used by hospitals are regulated

a. in all states

b. in Washington DC

c. in the western states

d. there are no established national emission standards

Back 99

there are no established national emission standards

Front 100

Chemical indicators are FDA ____ devices

a. class I

b. class II

c. class III

d. not regulated by FDA

Back 100

class II

Front 101

Heart valves and pacemakers are examples of FDA ___ medical devices

a. class I

b. class II

c. class III

d. not regulated by FDA`

Back 101

class III

Front 102

Under current regulations who is required to report suspected medical device-related deaths to the FDA?

a. device manufacturer

b. hospitals

c. all of the above

d. none of the above

Back 102

all of the above

Front 103

Standards and regulations help set levels of ___ in our departments

a. quality

b. safety

c. efficiency

d. all of the above

e. none of the above

Back 103

all of the above

Front 104

Medical device reporting is regulated by the:

a. NFPA

b. EPA

c. WHO

d. FDA

Back 104

FDA

Front 105

Each year, approximately ____patients develop a healthcare associated infection.

a. 1 million

b. 2 million

c. 10 million

d. 20 million

Back 105

2 million

Front 106

Watches and other jewelry should not be worn in the Central Service department work areas because:

a. they harbor bacteria

b. they are expensive

c. they may be damaged

d. they may be misplaced or stolen

Back 106

they harbor bacteria

Front 107

During handwashing, hands should be lathered and scrubbed for at least:

a. 10 seconds

b. 15 seconds

c. 1 minute

d. 2 minutes

Back 107

15 seconds

Front 108

To protect themselves from splashes and spills, central service techs assigned to the decontamination area should wear:

a. double cloth gowns

b. blue surgical gowns

c. fluid resistant gowns

d. sterile gowns

Back 108

fluid resistant gowns

Front 109

The main theory of Standard Precautions is:

a. pts in high risk categories may be infectious

b. pts diagnosed with a specific disease may be infectious

c. pts are generally healthy unless they show symptoms of an infectious disease

d. pts may pose a risk of infection whether they have been diagnosed with an infectious disease or not

Back 109

Patients may pose a risk of infection whether they have been diagnosed with an infectious disease or not

Front 110

Which of the following is NOT a requirement of the OSHA bloodborne pathogen standard?

a. provide hepatitis B vaccine to employees at not cost

b. observe standard precautions

c. keep biohazard areas locked

d. use engineering controls to prevent biohazard exposures

Back 110

keep biohazard areas locked

Front 111

Following standard precautions protocols is required by:

a. the FDA

b. the NFPA

c. the EPA

d. OSHA

Back 111

OSHA

Front 112

Departmental dress codes apply to:

a. everyone entering CS

b. only hospital employees

c. only persons who will be spending more than 10 mins in the CS work area

d. only visitors such as sales reps, maintenance personnel, etc

Back 112

everyone entering the CS department

Front 113

Inanimate objects that can transmit bacteria are called:

a. transmission devices

b. fomites

c. carriers

d. framiseals

Back 113

Fomites

Front 114

Floors in the CS department should be:

a. wet mopped daily

b. wet mopped weekly

c. swept daily and wet mopped weekly

d. wept daily

Back 114

wet mopped daily

Front 115

The absence of microorganisms that cause disease is called:

a. infection prevention

b. infection control

c. asepsis

d. HIA control

Back 115

asepsis

Front 116

Know what is dirty, know what is clean, know what is sterile, keep the three conditions separate, and remedy contamination immediately are:

a. the principles of asepsis

b. the basics of the bloodborne pathogen standard

c. the principles of infection prevention and control

d. the basics of environmental control

Back 116

the principles of asepsis

Front 117

What color should biohazard labels/signs be?

a. red/orange

b. orange/yellow

c. orange/blue

d. green/black

Back 117

red/orange

Front 118

The decontamination area of the CS department should have:

a. 10 air exchanges per hr

b. 15 air exchanges per hr

c. 20 air exchanges per hour

d. no air exchanges because it is a biohazard area

Back 118

10 air exchanges per hour

Front 119

Which of these traffic control/dress code requirements applies to the OR?

a. biohazard

b. unrestricted

c. semi-restricted

d. restricted

Back 119

restricted

Front 120

Which of the following is a system used to treat the final rinse water used for cleaning?

a. water conductivity

b. sanitization

c. deionization

d. sterilization

Back 120

deionization

Front 121

Bluish or rainbow type stains are caused by___ in the water

a. chlorides and solids

b. iron and silicates

c. calcium

d. fluoride

Back 121

iron and silicates

Front 122

The ideal level of silicates in water used for cleaning is ____ ppm or less.

a. 200

b. 150

c. 100

d. 50

Back 122

100

Front 123

Purified water should have a ph of ___

a. 4.5-5.5

b. 5.5-6.5

c. 6.5-7.5

d. 7.5-8.5

Back 123

6.5-7.5

Front 124

Tap water should ideally have a chloride concentration of ____ ppm or less

a. 200

b. 150

c. 100

d. 50

Back 124

100

Front 125

Water purification usually involves the use of a:

a. pre filter

b. post filter

c. pre filter or post filter

d. pre and post filter

Back 125

pre and post filter

Front 126

Water that is turbid is:

a. hot

b. tepid

c. clear

d. cloudy

Back 126

cloudy

Front 127

Water softeners are used to remove ___ in the water.

a. iron and pyrogens

b. silicates and pyrogens

c. chloride and iron

d. calcium and mgnesium

Back 127

calcium and magnesium

Front 128

Deionized water is used for:

a. sterile irrigation

b. heating/cooling therapy units

c. injection

d. steam sterilizers

Back 128

heating/cooling therapy units

Front 129

Which of the following can be removed from water when a reverse osmosis process is used?

a. bacteria

b. pyrogens

c. endotoxins

d. all of the above

Back 129

all of the above

Front 130

Multi enzymatic cleaning products containing lipase are useful for cleaning:

a. protein soils

b. starches

c. fats

d. sugars

Back 130

fats

Front 131

Which of the following kills microorganisms?

a. soaps

b. detergents

c. germicidal detergents

d. enzyme presoaks

Back 131

germicidal detergents

Front 132

The process of pre cleaning should begin:

a. as soon as devices reach the CS area

b. immediately after the completion of an invasive procedure

c. immediately after instruments are inspected

d. before items are sorted

Back 132

immediately after the completion of an invasive procedure

Front 133

The main purpose of manual cleaners is to:

a. kill microorganisms

b. remove soil

c. reduce cleaning costs

d. provide back-ups if automated equipment is not working

Back 133

remove soil

Front 134

which of the following techniques for brushing instruments should be used?

a. brushing should be done under water

b. brushing should be done above water

c. brushing should be done against the grain of the device

d. brushes made of wire are the best because of their exceptional cleaning ability

Back 134

brushing should be done under water

Front 135

What is the preferred pH for detergents used for most cleaning processes?

a. low pH

b. high pH

c. neutral pH

d. it depends on the water temp and exposure time

Back 135

neutral pH

Front 136

Which of the following is an example of regulated medical waste?

a. discarded sterilization wraps

b. blood soaked sponges

c. used copier toner cartridges

d. general trash from the surgery dept.

Back 136

blood soaked sponges

Front 137

Which of the following statements about the use of mechanical washers is NOT true?

a. multi-level trays should be separated

b. trays with lids should be opened

c. instruments should be disassembled and opened

d. all items should be washed on the same cycle

Back 137

all items should be washed on the same cycle

Front 138

Water must be degassed each time the ultrasonic cleaner's tank is changed, because:

a. excess bubbles from filling reduce the energy of the cavitation process

b. excess bubbles reduce the effectiveness of the detergent

c. excess bubbles decrease the temp of the tank

d. excess bubbles make it difficult to see items being cleaned

Back 138

excess bubbles from filling reduce the energy of the cavitation process

Front 139

Specialized clothing or equipment worn by an employee for protection against a hazard is called?

a. restricted apparel

b. safety apparel

c. hazard equipment

d. personal protective equipment

Back 139

personal protective equipment

Front 140

Written cleaning instructions for surgical instruments should be provided by:

a. the mechanical washer manufacturer

b. the instrument manufacturer

c. the detergent manufacturer

d. the healthcare facility

Back 140

the instrument manufacturer

Front 141

Pyrogens:

a. are fever-producing substances

b. are microorganisms that have survived sterilization

c. cause CJD

d. are soil particles

Back 141

are fever producing substances

Front 142

Softened water:

a. increases the likelihood of mineral scale deposits

b. decreases the likelihood of mineral scale deposits

c. is not compatible with detergents

d. can cause rusting of metal instruments

Back 142

decreases the likelihood of mineral scale deposits

Front 143

The desired solution for cleaning instruments:

a. soap

b. steam

c. a disinfectant

d. a detergent

Back 143

a detergent

Front 144

These are used to breakdown fatty tissue on instruments:

a. protease enzymes

b. lipase enzymes

c. amylase enzymes

d. neutral pH cleaners

Back 144

lipase enzymes

Front 145

Instrument lubrication is performed:

a. immediately before use

b. after sterilization

c. after cleaning

d. before cleaning

Back 145

after cleaning

Front 146

To prevent coagulation of proteins, water temperature should be:

a. below 43C (110F)

b. above 43C (110F)

c. below 100C (212F)

d. below 24C (75F)

Back 146

below 43C (110F)

Front 147

Detergents used in mechanical cleaners should be:

a. low alkaline

b. low acid

c. low temperature

d. low foaming

Back 147

low foaming

Front 148

Aluminum items should be cleaned:

a. using a circular motion

b. using a to and fro motion with the grain

c. using a stiff metal brush

d. using a water spray

Back 148

using a to and fro motion with the grain

Front 149

Powered surgical instruments:

a. can not be immersed

b. can be immersed

c. should be cleaned at the point of use

d. should be cleaned using a mechanical washer

Back 149

can not be immersed

Front 150

The use of heat to kill all microorganisms, except spores, is called:

a. sterilization

b. thermal disinfection

c. high level disinfection

d. mechanical disinfection

Back 150

thermal disinfection

Front 151

These chemicals are used on animate (living tissue) to slow the growth of microorganisms:

a. glutaraldehydes

b. disinfectants

c. halogens

d. antiseptics

Back 151

antiseptics

Front 152

Items that are introduced directly into the bloodstream or other normally sterile areas of the body are classified as:

a. critical items

b. semi critical items

c. non critical items

d. equipment

Back 152

critical items

Front 153

The process by which all forms of microorganisms are completely destroyed is called?

a. high level disinfection

b. thermal disinfection

c. sterilization

d. chemical disinfection

Back 153

sterilization

Front 154

Iodophors are a member of this disinfectant family

a. halogens

b. quaternary ammonium compounds

c. alcohol

d. phenolics

Back 154

halogens

Front 155

Phenolics are classified as:

a. intermediate to low level disinfectants

b. intermediate to high level disinfectants

c. high level disinfectants

d. sterilants

Back 155

intermediate to low level disinfectants

Front 156

Which of the following are classified as high level disinfectants?

a. glutaraldehyde and phenolics

b. glutaraldehyde and OPA

c. quaternary ammonium compounds and phenolics

d. halogens and OPA

Back 156

glutaraldehyde and OPA

Front 157

Thermal disinfection is accomplished using:

a. heated chemicals

b. heated glutaraldehyde

c. prolonged high pressure steam

d. heated water

Back 157

heated water

Front 158

How long must alcohol remain in wet contact with an item to achieve a reasonable level of disinfection?

a. 3 mins

b. 5 mins

c. 10 mins

d. 20 mins

Back 158

5 minutes

Front 159

Which of the following would be the best choice for high level disinfection of instruments?

a. phenolics

b. chlorine

c. iodophors

d. OPA

Back 159

OPA

Front 160

Instrument marking tape should be wrapped approximately __ around the instrument.

a. 1 to 1 1/2

b. 1 1/2 to 2

c. 2 to 2 1/2

d. 2 1/2 to 3

Back 160

1 to 1 1/2

Front 161

Which of the following is NOT an acceptable form of instrument marking?

a. laser etching

b. acid base etching

c. electric etching (engraving)

d. heat fused nylon

Back 161

electric etching (engraving)

Front 162

The purpose of a suction stylet is to:

a. unclog the suction during surgery

b. clean the suction in the decontamination area

c. facilitate the sterilization process

d. provide a measuring guide for the surgeon

Back 162

unclog the suction during surgery

Front 163

Kerrison laminectomy rongeurs should be tested using:

a. tissue paper

b. a plastic dowel rod

c. rubber testing material

d. an index card

Back 163

an index card

Front 164

Scissors with tungsten carbide cutting edges are usually identified by:

a. black handles

b. silver handles

c. gold handles

d. the letters "TC"

Back 164

gold handles

Front 165

The first step to inspect the insulation of a laparoscopic instrument is to:

a. check the collar at the distal tip

b. try to slide the insulation back

c. check the handle for chipping or cracking

d. visually check the instruments shaft

Back 165

check the collar at the distal tip

Front 166

Which of the following steps happens first when processing flexible endoscopes?

a. leak testing

b. high level disinfecting/sterilizing

c. manual cleaning

d. drying

Back 166

leak testing

Front 167

Which of the following should be used to thoroughly rinse (remove) all traces of disinfectant from an endoscope's channels?

a. forced air

b. water containing approved sterilant

c. filtered water

d. a heated glutaraldehyde

Back 167

filtered water

Front 168

The purpose of using a decontamination battery or cord when cleaning powered surgical instruments is:

a. to keep fluid from entering the unit

b. to keep functioning batteries and cords clean

c. to prevent electrical shock

d. to test the unit while cleaning

Back 168

to keep fluid from entering the unit

Front 169

Endoscopes are often processed in a mechanical unit called:

a. an ultrasonic cleaner

b. a washer decontaminator

c. a flush pulse endoscope reprocessor

d. an automatic endoscope reprocessor

Back 169

an automatic endoscope reprocessor

Front 170

The endoscope that would be dispensed for a procedure that required visualization of the lower part of the large instestine would be a:

a. colonoscope

b. sigmoidoscope

c. gastroscope

d. ureteroscope

Back 170

sigmoidoscope

Front 171

Loaner instruments should:

a. be decontaminated if they appear soiled upon arrival

b. be sterilized using a low temp process

c. be decontaminated before use

d. not be used

Back 171

be decontaminated before use

Front 172

Information regarding bleaning processes for endoscopes should be provided by:

a. the SGNA

b. APIC

c. the instrument manufacturer

d. the OR staff

Back 172

the instrument manufacturer

Front 173

Which of the following statements about endoscopes is true:

a. not all endoscopes can be processed in an AER

b. ultrasonic cleaning is the process of choice for endoscopes

c. flexible endoscopes are not easily damaged

d. all endoscopes should be steam sterilized

Back 173

not all endoscopes can be processed in an AER

Front 174

Electronic testing of laparoscopic insulation should be done:

a. in the decontamination area prior to cleaning

b. in the clean assembly area prior to set assembly

c. at the factory or onsite repair unit

d. in the OR at the end of the procedure

Back 174

in the clean assembly area prior to assembly

Front 175

The FDA classifies sterilization packaging as a

a. Class I medical device

b. Class II medical device

c. Class III medical device

d. class IV medical device

Back 175

class II medical device

Front 176

Which of the following is NOT an acceptable sterilization packaging material?

a. muslin

b. barrier cloth

c. canvas

d. twills

Back 176

canvas

Front 177

Wicking materials are used to:

a. dry instruments before sterilization

b. allow air removal, steam penetration and facilitate drying

c. cushion instruments from the extreme force in steam sterilizer chambers

d. hold water away from the bottom of instrument trays

Back 177

allow air removal, steam penetration and facilitate drying

Front 178

When arranging plastic-paper pouches in the sterilizer, the pouches should be arranged:

a. paper-to-plastic

b. paper - to - paper

c. plastic to plastic

d. the way in which the most packages can be placed in the sterilizer

Back 178

paper to plastic

Front 179

The relative humidity of the CS dept should be:

a. less than 75%

b. less than 60%

c. less than 50%

d. less than 35%

Back 179

less than 75%

Front 180

Some plastics including formulations of spun-bonded polyolefin are intended for use solely in these sterilization processes:

a. high temperature

b. low temperature

c. liquid

d. flash

Back 180

low temperature

Front 181

When placing ring-handled instruments in an instrument tray, you should:

a. lock the handles to prevent damage

b. arrange the instruments in alpha order

c. arrange the instruments in order of use

d. unlock the handles and open the instruments

Back 181

unlock the handles and open the instruments

Front 182

The process by which unwrapped instruments are steam sterilized for immediate use when an emergency situation arises is called:

a. emergency sterilization

b. flash sterilization

c. core sterilization

d. rapid reprocessing

Back 182

flash sterilization

Front 183

Endotracheal tubes and anesthesia breathing circuits are examples of:

a. critical devices

b. semi critical devices

c. non critical devices

d. surgical instruments

Back 183

semi critical devices

Front 184

A material that removes electrons from another substance is called?

a. an oxidizing agent

b. a demagnetizer

c. an atom

d. a molecule

Back 184

an oxidizing agent

Front 185

Before an item can be placed in liquid chemical sterile processing system they must be:

a. heated

b. filled with air

c. sterilized

d. cleaned

Back 185

cleaned

Front 186

Which of the following statements about flash sterilization is true?

a. it is the sterilization method of choice or metal instruments

b. it is recommended to be used as a primary sterilization process by AAMI and AORN

c. it reduces turnaround time because cleaning is not required

d. it should be used only in emergencies

Back 186

it should be used only in emergencies

Front 187

Both AORN and the Joint Commission recommend that?

a. the use of flash sterilization be minimized or decreased

b. flash sterilization be performed in only one sterilizer per facility

c. healthcare facilities get FDS approval for flash sterilization

d. only CS techs operate flash sterilizers

Back 187

the use of flash sterilization be minimize or decreased

Front 188

Implantable devices:

a. should be flash sterilized in extended cycles

b. should only be sterilized using Ethylene Oxide

c. should not be flash sterilized

d. should be discarded if not used

Back 188

should NOT be flash sterilized

Front 189

The transport of flash sterilized items is difficult because:

a. they have no protective wrapping

b. they are wet

c. they are hot

d. contained in heavy trays

Back 189

they have no protective wrapping

Front 190

Heat sensitive items:

a. cannot be flash sterilized

b. should be disposable

c. must not be immersed

d. should not be used

Back 190

cannot be flash sterilized

Front 191

When processing flexible endoscopes in a liquid chemical sterile processing system, you should?

a. pressurize the scope before starting the machine

b. use tap water as a pre rinse

c. connect channels to special connectors that allow liquid to flow through them

d. run the cycle twice to ensure that proper microbial kill has taken place

Back 191

Connect channels to special connectors that allow liquid to flow through them