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311 Cards in this Set

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  • Back
Why might fiber be important to monogastrics?
Colonic bacteria convert fiber to butyrate, a compound that feeds colonic mucosa
Soluble fiber will blunt or moderate glucose absorption in the small intestine
Are there more or less microbes in the human body than human cells?
There are about 10x more microbes in the human body than there are human cells
How do microbes impact dietary needs of monogastrics?
Nutritionists must study the relationship between the diet, the animal, and the microbes.
With what dietary factor is obesity associated?
Intake of excess energy
Is obesity more commonly diagnosed in companion animals, equines, or ruminants?
Companion animals and equines.
What is the relationship between obesity and the length of the animal's life?
obesity can decrease the length of an animal's life
True or False: The greater the deviation from optimum body weight and BCS, the greater the incidence and severity of a variety of disorders.
Name 7 types of disorders that have increased incidence in obese animals
1) traumatic & degenerative orthopedic disorders
2) cardiovascular disease including increased anesthetic and surgical risk
3) hepatic & endocrine dysfunction (diabetes)
4) impaired immune function and increased incidence of neoplasia
5) impaired reproductive efficiency
6) increased gastrointestinal disorders
7) increased dermatological disorders
How is obesity diagnosed in animals?
1) Weight, visual assessment, BCS
2) must rule-out underlying metabolic disorders
What is the most common metabolic disorder that causes animals to become obese?
What is the pathogenesis of obesity?
Intake of dietary energy exceeds energy expenditure.
True or False: Some breeds are more susceptible to obesity than others.
True, especially in dogs and horses
Are fixed animals more or less likely to become obese than sexually active animals?
Spayed and neutered animals are more likely to become obese than sexually active animals.
True or False: Animals are designed to adapt to both excess feed and starvation conditions equally well.
False. Animals are designed to adapt to starvation conditions rather than overabundance.
What does the type of obesity depend on?
the number and type of adipocytes in the body.
What is hypertrophic obesity?
increased size of fat cells
What is hyperplastic obesity?
increase in number of cells and size.
True or False: Animals of all ages can develop hyperplastic obesity.
False: Only growing animals (youth) can develop hyperplastic obesity.
True or False: Fat cell numbers can increase in adulthood.
False: Fat cell numbers do NOT increase in adulthood
True or False: Fat cells do not die.
When does overnutrition result in bigger problems?
In growth rather than in adults
What is RMR?
Resting Metabolic Rate
Is RMR normal in obese animals?
Yes, it appears to be.
What is the difference between animals that are obese versus animals that are thin?
Voluntary activity usually. Metabolism is usually not messed up.
How is animal obesity treated?
Starts with convincing the owner that the animal is obese, helping them perceive what obesity is, educating them about associated consequences, and gaining their commitment concerning the weight loss goal. The weight loss program itself includes diet, exercise and owner support.
What is the preferred method of weight loss?
Safe, controlled as opposed to starvation.
What animals should never be put on a diet?
A late gestation female.
Can a female in gestation be put on a diet?
Preferably not, but NEVER put a late gestation female on a diet.
What results from negative energy balance?
Self catabolism
What are NEFAs?
Non-esterified fatty acids (aka Free Fatty Acids)
When are NEFAs cleaved from triglycerides in fat cells?
1) under the influence of low insulin/glucose
2) under the influence of stress hormones (epinephrine)
What organ receives NEFAs that are circulating in the blood?
What can happen to NEFAs after they get to the liver?
1) They can be re-esterified into a triglyceride
2) NEFAs can go into mitochondria and be burned for energy
3) NEFAs can go into mitochondria and be partially oxidized to form ketone bodies
Why might the liver form ketones?
To feed hungry tissues in the absence of sufficient glucose
What molecule helps NEFAs get into mitochondria?
What must be present in order for NEFAs to be completely oxidized in mitochondria?
How are triglycerides packaged for release from the liver?
They are packaged into low density proteins.
Name 3 ketones
beta hydroxy butyrate
Which animals have a problem releasing triglycerides from liver?
Dairy cows, pregnant ewes, and cats
Which species does NOT have a problem with releasing triglycerides from liver?
What do dairy cows, pregnant ewes, and cats develop if they have excess fat in their livers?
What does lipidosis mean?
fatty liver
Where do horses accumulate triglycerides sometimes?
in the blood
What is hyperlipidemia?
Excess triglycerides in the blood.
What conditions are associated with inadequate energy intake?
Idiopathic hepatic lipidosis
Hepatic lipidosis in dairy cows
Equine Hyperlipidemia
Bovine Spontaneous Ketosis
Bovine Secondary Ketosis
Ketosis and Displaced Abomasum
Pregnancy Toxemia (sheep)
Periparturant hypoglycemia (dogs & cats)
What is idiopathic hepatic lipidosis?
Unique syndrome of cats and cows characterized by accumulation of excess triglycerides in liver parenchymal cells
What do cats and cows have in common?
-Evolved on a diet w/ low soluble CHO/ low glucose, thus both rely on gluconeogenesis rather than glucose absorption from the gut.
-Very little fat is made de novo in the liver, thus limited capacity to export lipoproteins.
-Obesity is a risk factor for lipidosis
-Fat release from adipose is poorly regulated.
What happens if you stress a fat cat or cow?
You get a massive release of triglycerides to provide energy. The liver can't export the triglycerides fast enough, so they accumulate and the liver begins to fail.
Why do cats act anorexic when undergoing hepatic lipidosis?
Even though the body is in negative energy balance, the liver says, "I am well fed because there are too many triglycerides in here."
What is the etiology of idiopathic hepatic lipidosis in cats?
-History of obese cat w/ acute food or stress event.
-Rapid weight loss
-Pre-existing metabolic disorders
What is an example of a pre-existing metabolic disorder that could cause idiopathic hepatic lipidosis in cats?
Diabetes mellitus
What clinical signs are used to diagnose idiopathic hepatic lipidosis?
-Obese patient (but can occur in non-obese patients)
-Anorexia, jaundice, hepatomegaly, weight loss, hepatic encephalopathy
-Hyperbilirubinemia, elevated ALKP
-Hypoalbuminemia, anemia, muscle wasting
-Fatty liver on histopathology
What is the #1 therapy for idiopathic hepatic lipidosis?
Force feed high protein, high fat diet.
How can a diet be force fed to an animal?
NG tube, PEG tube, parenterally
Which dairy cows are susceptible to hepatic lipidosis?
Dairy cow freshens with BCS ≥4
When might a dairy cow get hepatic lipidosis?
In association with weight loss, usually in early lactation, but may start in dry period
What symptoms/factors are associated with hepatic lipidosis in dairy cows?
anorexia, depression, weight loss, poor response to therapy for metritis, mastitis, DA
How should hepatic lipidosis be managed in dairy cows?
Force feeding: fresh cow drenches (combination of feed, proprionate), calcium, electrolytes, fluids, insulin, B vitamins, IV fluids & dextrose
What is the prognosis of dairy cows with hepatic lipidosis?
Very poor
How can hepatic lipidosis be prevented in dairy cows?
Avoid long dry periods, balance dry cow ration, monitor dry cow feed intake
Which equines are most likely to get hyperlipidemia?
Fat ponies in late pregnancy and early lactation.
What symptoms are associated with equine hyperlipidemia?
depression, weight loss, anorexia
How is hyperlipidemia diagnosed?
Can't see through the serum - horses should not have fat in their blood.
What is the treatment for equine hyperlipidemia?
IV fluids and heparin
IV dextrose
Why is heparin given IV to equines with hyperlipidemia?
It activates lipoprotein lipase which clears fat from the blood.
Why is dextrose given IV to equines with hyperlipidemia?
It helps them to burn fat in the Krebs cycle.
Why is insulin given to equines with hyperlipidemia?
Try to reduce the release of lipid from adipocytes.
How can equine hyperlipidemia be prevented?
Appropriate late gestation rations
What risk factor predisposes dairy cows to spontaneous ketosis?
high producing dairy cow at peak lactation
What are the 2 common clinical presentations of bovine spontaneous ketosis?
1) common ketosis
2) nervous ketosis
What symptoms are associated with common bovine spontaneous ketosis?
off feed, firm feces, decreased milk production
What symptoms are associated with nervous bovine spontaneous ketosis?
salivation, wandering, blind, hyperaesthesia, circling
What does hyperaesthesia mean?
Exaggerated sensations, animals act jumpy
How is bovine spontaneous ketosis diagnosed?
Some people can smell acetone in the air around these cows,
Can measure ketone concentrations in urine, serum, or with a milk ketone dipstick.
Should there be a higher concentration of ketones in the blood or in the urine?
In the urine because kidneys concentrate ketones
How do you tell when a cow's not eating?
-She's not chewing cud
-Has infrequent ruminal contractions
-Decreased feces, decreased milk
-Flank will look depressed (hollowed out)
How is bovine spontaneous ketosis treated?
-500ml glucose IV
-4-8oz of propylene glycol PO
+/- glucocorticoids
Why might glucorticoids be administered to cows in spontaneous ketosis?
To upregulate gluconeogenesis.
When are glucocorticoids contraindicated in bovines with spontaneous ketosis?
It will cause abortion in a pregnant cow.
What risk factors can lead to bovine secondary ketosis?
Any disease of early lactation cows
What are the signs, diagnosis, and treatment of bovine secondary ketosis?
the same as primary ketosis, except fix the primary disease
Is subclinical ketosis in the late dry period or early lactation a risk factor for displaced abomasums?
There is increasing evidence that subclinical ketosis at these times is a a significant risk factor.
What are risk factors for pregnancy toxemia in sheep?
multiple lambs and stressful events in the last weeks of gestation
What are clinical signs of pregnancy toxemia in sheep?
CNS depression, circling, ataxia, or down
rapidly progressive
How is pregnancy toxemia in sheep diagnosed?
ketones detected in serum or urine (ketonuria, ketonemia)
How is pregnancy toxemia in sheep treated?
Remove lambs by parturition or c-section
IV dextrose (100-200mls)
1-2oz propylene glycol
IV fluids
Oral Ca
What is important in determining how lamb are removed from a sheep with pregnancy toxemia?
Is the ewe or lambs more valuable? To save ewe, get rid of lambs; to save lambs, induce parturition/C-section.
What is the prognosis for sheep with pregnancy toxemia?
poor to guarded
How can pregnancy toxemia be prevented in sheep?
add grain to late gestation ration and avoid late gestation stress
Why is grain added to the ration of late gestation sheep?
To increase energy intake without increasing volume of DMI
In what species is periparturant hypoglycemia a problem?
dogs and cats
What is periparturant hypoglycemia and what is the concentration of glucose in the blood?
A clinical hypoglycemia (blood glucose <45mg/dl)
How often and in whom does periparturant hypoglycemia occur?
It occurs infrequently in bitches in the last 2-3 weeks of gestation....
What are 4 general diet considerations for common gastrointestinal disorders in small animals?
1) highly digestible diets
2) fiber-enhanced diets
3) fat-restricted diets
4) hypo-allergenic diets
What common gastrointestinal disorders can highly digestible diets cause?
vomiting, diarrhea, pancreatic insufficiency, pancreatitis, inflammatory bowel disease, flatulence
What common gastrointestinal disorders can fiber-enhanced diets be involved in?
obesity management, colonic function, diabetics, constipation
How does fiber help both diarrhea and constipation?
Fiber adds bulk to watery diarrhea, fiber absorbs water to help reduce constipation
With what common gastrointestinal disorder are fat-restricted diets used?
obesity management
In what cases are hypoallergenic diets indicated?
When a dog or cat is allergic to a protein, it may help to hydrolyze proteins to a low molecular weight.
Does NRC have a nutrient requirement for fiber in dog and cat diets?
What kind of term is "fiber-enhanced" in dog & cat foods?
It's a marketing term
What are 2 common methods to manage feeding dogs and cats with GI disease?
1) NPO is often prescribed for vomiting, enteritis, and pancreatitis
2) Small frequent meals can be prescribed for vomiting, enteritis, and pancreatic insufficiency
When is the NPO feeding management method contraindicated in dogs and cats with GI disease?
w/in 3-5 days of NPO the GI tract loses enzymatic activity, w/in 7-10 days the GI wall thins
How much ingesta is required to maintain the integrity of a 20lb dog's GI mucosa?
Maybe about 10mls
What is lymphangietasia?
dilation of lymph vessels causing chyle to be too high in the blood
When is MCT oil used?
When fat is not absorbed correctly in the GI.
What is MCT oil?
medium chain triglyceride oil
Where do Omega 3 and Omega 6 Fatty Acids get their names?
The numbers refer to the location of the last double bond of a polyunsaturated fatty acid. The double bond is either 3 or 6 carbons from the end.
Which fatty acids are anti-inflammatory?
Omega 3
Which fatty acids are pro-inflammatory?
Omega 6
What is the general guideline concerning omega 3 and omega 6 fatty acids?
Increase intake of omega 3 fatty acids relative to omega 6 fatty acids
What are some sources of omega 3 fatty acids?
walnuts, flaxseed oil, canola oil, fatty fish, and fish oils
What are 3 omega 3 fatty acids?
alpha-linolenic acid
eicosapentaenoic acid
docosahexaenoic acid
What are some sources of omega 6 fatty acids?
corn oil, safflower oil, soybean oil, cottonseed oil, sunflower oil, borage oil, black current seed oil, and meat, poultry and eggs from high grain diets
What are 3 omega 6 fatty acids?
linoleic acid
gamma-linolenic acid
arachidonic acid
What animals can have problems associated with grain overload?
What is the pathogenesis of grain overload?
Excess grain in rumen causes rapid increase in VFA production by microbes; drop in rumen pH; shift in microbes to more lactate producers and fewer lactate users, dead gram negative bacteria release LPS (endotoxin), increase rumen osmolarity (shift of fluid from vascular space to rumen); dehydration and endotoxic shock
What are the clinical signs of grain overload in ruminants?
off feed, enlarged abdomen/rumen, (sloshes when they walk around or percuss fluid), +/- diarrhea, down
How is grain overload in ruminants diagnosed?
history and rumen pH<5
How is rumen pH measured?
Either with a stomach tube or with a rumen tap.
What must be avoided if a stomach tube is used to measure rumen pH?
How is grain overload in ruminants treated?
IV fluids and bicarb, rumen lavage, oral antacids (MgO), parenteral antibiotics, give hay and no grain
Why are parenteral antibiotics given to ruminants with grain overload?
To protect the liver and rumen wall
Is rumen lavage easy or difficult?
What animals are prone to low milk fat syndrome?
Dairy cows with too much grain in their diets
How much fat and protein is normally in dairy cow milk?
3.5% fat; 3% protein
What is protein: fat inversion?
When there is less milk fat than milk protein in milk from dairy cows.
How does conventional wisdom explain protein: fat inversion in milk?
The condition is due to too much grain (propionate), not enough fiber (acetate) or both. Acetate, being a 2-carbon VFA is used to make fat; propionate, a 3-carbon VFA, is used to make glucose, which in mammary tissue is used to synthesize lactose.
What does protein:fat inversion in milk suggest?
Poor rumen health
What is the current biohydration theory concerning protein: fat inversion in milk?
CLA (trans-10, cis-12 conjugated linoleic acid) produced by rumen microbes is a potent inhibitor of fatty acid synthesis in the mammary gland.
What can acute laminitis in horses or cows be secondary to?
grain overload
True or False: Laminitis in the horse or cow can commonly occur without GI disturbances.
What is the pathogenesis of laminitis?
bacterial toxins (+/- histamine) damage vascular bed in laminae of hoof
What are clinical signs of laminitis?
increased digital pulses, unwillingness to move, hardship grooves in dorsal hoof wall, horse: ventral rotation of the tip of P3
How long does it take for the hoof to grow from coronet band to the tip?
1 year
What do hardship grooves in the dorsal hoof wall result from?
Multiple dietary insults
What is fructan?
Soluble fiber that has to be digested in the large intestine of horse.
True or False: only horses that eat grain can founder.
False: horses that eat only pasture can also get laminitis
True or False: Ulcers in horses and cattle are associated with grain feeding and stress.
What is the pathogenesis of ulcers?
mucosal injury (potentially from helicobacter, an organism that inhabits mucosal lesions) and erosion of the mucosa. The injury may erode through the mucosa to the serosa/muscularis layer.
What are clinical signs of ulcers in equids?
poor appetite, poor condition, poor performance, and colic
How are ulcers diagnosed?
endoscopy or response to therapy, might also see blood with stool (prior to rectal palpation)
How are ulcers treated?
Feed more hay, less grain
In ruminants and hindgut fermenters, what limits how much fat can be added to the diet?
Fat can have a negative effect on microbes because fat makes everything slippery.
How much fat intake should ruminants be limited to?
6% DMI
How much fat intake should horses be limited to?
12-15% DMI
Name 4 disorders that are associated with dietary protein.
1) Acute and Chronic Renal Failure
2) Dietary Hypersensitivity
3) Ammonia and NPN Toxicosis
4) Protein-Energy Malnutrition (PEM)
Briefly, how does renal disease result in clinical disease?
One of the kidney's jobs is to filter blood and eliminate compounds by excreting them with urine. When >2/3 of the kidney is damaged, it is unable to remove toxins effectively and results in clinical disease
True or False: Renal dysfunction results in excesses of fluids, electrolytes, hormones, and metabolic waste products.
False: Renal dysfunction results in excesses OR deficits of fluids, electrolytes, hormones, and metabolic waste products.
Why does renal dysfunction result in excesses or deficits of fluids, electrolytes, hormones, and metabolic waste products?
Because the excretion, retention, production, or degradation of these substances are altered.
What things can damage renal function directly?
toxins, infectious diseases, congenital disorders, neoplastic disorders, and immunologic disorders
What are 5 pre-renal causes of renal dysfunction?
shock, hemorrhage, dehydration, anesthesia, blood flow obstruction
What are 3 post-renal causes of renal dysfunction?
calculi, tumors, paralysis
What nutritional factor is associated with increased renal blood flow that results in renal damage?
Diets high in protein
How do diets high in protein cause increased renal blood flow?
Dietary protein excess increases the glomerular filtration rate.
How do diets excessively high in protein result in renal damage?
-increased renal blood flow
-increased GFR
-breakdown of proteins into amino acids stimulates the secretion of glucagon;
-results in proteinuria and glomerulosclerosis
-increases acid load and proteinaceous wastes to be handled by damaged renal tissue
-results in uremia or worsens the uremic state
How does increased GFR develop into glomerulosclerosis?
transcapillary pressure results in glomerulosclerosis
How can diets be adjusted to beneficially manage renal disease?
Restriction of protein intake and provision of high quality protein.
True or False: There is no evidence that a restricted diet w/ high BUN is beneficial.
How do all the pre-renal causes of renal dysfunction affect the kidney?
They disrupt blood flow
What immunoglobulin mediates food hypersensitivity?
What is food hypersensitivity?
Adverse reaction to an ingested food or food additive (allergen).
True or False: Food hypersensitivity is common.
False: The reaction occurs only in a small population.
True or False: Food hypersensitivity requires prior exposure.
True: Prior exposure makes the animal's immune system sensitive to the food/food additive.
True or False: Only a small amount of substance is required in order to cause an adverse reaction in an animal who is hypersensitive to it.
What are the most common food allergens?
Which proteins are most likely to be allergens and why?
Highly stable proteins that are resistant to food processing and digestive processes.
What are epitopes (in relation to hypersensitivity)?
Area of an allergen that are recognized by the immune system resulting in antibody formation to that specific protein.
What is the ability of an allergenic protein to induce an IgE hypersensitivity response dependent on?
The size and structure of the protein.
What MW size of proteins stimulate an immune response?
10,000 - 70,000 Daltons
What is the size of common dietary protein allergens?
18,000-36,000 Daltons
In what areas of the body can an allergen make contact with the immune system?
skin, inhalation, alimentary tract
Where are the majority of exposures of allergens to the immune system?
through the GI tract
What molecules in the GI tract usually inactivate allergens?
acids, enzymes, bile salts
What does the GI tract do to allergens?
The GI tract digests them into non-antigenic fragments.
True or False: The mucosal lining of the GI tract acts as a barrier uptake to allergens.
True: The mucosal lining prevents allergens from going into the blood.
What predisposes natural defense systems to hypersensitivity?
Maldigestive orders
Inflammatory mucosal disorders
T-suppressor cell dysfunction (GALT)
True or False: GI mucosa should be smooth.
What are 3 pet food industry solutions to food hypersensitivity?
Novel proteins
Dietary exclusion (requires committed clients)
Hypoallergenic diets
What is the difference between hypoallergenic foods and non-hypoallergenic foods?
The protein size is decreased by pre-digestion or hydrolysis in hypoallergenic diets.
True or False: Ammonia is considered toxic.
What is ammonia?
It is a waste product of the breakdown of protein by the body or by microbes.
Where is ammonia converted to urea?
In the liver.
Is urea more or less toxic then ammonia?
Less toxic
What makes urease?
Many microbes.
What does urease do?
Converts urea back to ammonia
What do some rumen microbes do with ammonia that makes it less toxic to the host?
They combine it with a carbon skeleton like a VFA and make an amino acid.
Why do we add urea to some ruminant diets?
To take advantage of microbes that break urea down into ammonia and then make an amino acid by combining ammonia with a VFA.
Are microbial synthesized proteins high or low quality protein?
High quality
VFA + ammonia =
amino acid
With what feedstuffs can you add urea or ammonia to ruminant diets?
High carbon/low nitrogen feedstuffs
True or False: Ruminants can adapt to higher concentrations of urea in their diet.
What 2 problems can lead to urea/NPN/Ammonia toxicosis in ruminants?
1) Add too much urea to a ration on purpose or by accident
2) The liver loses adaptation and is unable to convert excess ammonia to urea
What are clinical signs of urea toxicosis?
-Several animals with rapid onset of symptoms (w/in minutes to hours)
-Ataxia, incoordination, tetany, death
What does SLUD stand for?
Salivation, urination, diarrhea
What can urea toxicosis be confused with due to SLUD symptoms?
organophosphate poisoning
How is urea/NPN/Ammonia toxicosis in ruminants diagnosed?
-Rumen pH>5
-Blood ammonia >0.8mg/ml (not a routine test)
-Some people can smell the ammonia
How is urea/NPN/ammonia toxicosis treated?
-Acidify the rumen with vinegar: 1 L for sheep, 1 gallon for cattle
-Rumen evacuation
Follow up: Add corn/grain to add carbon and help microbes make protein again.
What happens chemically when you give a cow with urea toxicosis vinegar?
The toxic ammonia is changed to ammonium.
What can lead to accumulation of ammonia in the liver of horses and monogastrics?
Hepatic insufficiency
What can cause hepatic insufficiency?
Hepatic disease or
Blood Flow disorders (porto-caval shunt)
Does it take more energy to make uric acid or urea from ammonia?
uric acid
Why do birds make uric acid instead of urea?
Because uric acid is more stable in a concentrated form; the bird doesn't need to be weighed down by as much water.
What are the two general pools of body protein?
What tissues contribute to the somatic protein pool?
Tissues or muscles
What tissues contribute to the visceral protein pool?
blood and other circulating proteins
When the body is exposed to a short term stressor or short term food deprivation, what pool of protein does it use to support functions such as gluconeogenesis?
visceral proteins
What is problematic about using visceral proteins to support gluconeogenesis?
It makes those proteins unavailable for synthesizing immunoglobulins or clotting factors, etc.
When the body is exposed to long term stressors, what pool of protein does it use to support functions such as gluconeogenesis?
somatic proteins
What does PEM stand for?
Protein Energy Malnutrition
What are 4 causes of PEM?
1) Inadequate supply of protein/energy to animal
2) Animal unable to consume the supply
3) Animal unable to digest/ absorb the supply
4) Animal unable to retain the supply (vomiting, diarrhea)
What disorder is caused by protein deficiency in the face of adequate energy?
What are the classic signs of Kwashiorkor?
Normal body weight, edema, and distended abdomen
True or False: Kwashiorkor is commonly described in animals.
False: Kwashiorkor is NOT commonly described in animals.
What is refeeding syndrome?
The patient has been on a diet of protein and fat (often self-catabolism). Rapid provision of carbs can lead to severe hypophosphatemia, electrolyte imbalances, edema, cardiac failure, and death.
Why does rapid provision of carbs cause hypophosphatemia in refeeding syndrome?
All of a sudden the body has the sugars to make ATP and begins to do so.
How should one feed an animal who has undergone prolonged starvation?
Introduce food slowly, focus on limited carbohydrate provisions, and monitor.
What tissue in the body is most expensive and determines the body's fuel requirement?
What is the clinical presentation of hypocalcemia in dairy cows?
Parturient paresis
What is "parturient paresis" in layman's terms?
milk fever
What is the clinical presentation of hypocalcemia in mares?
Transport tetany
What is the clinical presentation of hypocalcemia in cows, ewes, and does?
What is the clinical presentation of hypocalcemia in bitches and queens?
What is the traditional theory about how to prevent milk fever in dairy cows and does?
Restrict calcium prepartum in order to upregulate PTH, which will mobilize calcium from the bones as needed for milk production
What is the current theory about how to prevent milk fever in dairy cows and does?
Restrict cations, especially potassium, prepartum in order to upregulate PTH activity.
What does PTH stand for?
Parathyroid Hormone
What are the early clinical signs of milk fever in dairy cows and does?
mild excitement, tetany, hyperthermia
What are the middle clinical signs of milk fever in dairy cows and does?

(Where "middle" is in reference to time)
depression, flaccid paralysis, recumbency, tachycardia, hypothermia
Why is tachycardia associated with milk fever in dairy cows and does?
lower stroke volume and lower cardiac output due to reduced calcium supply.
What are the late clinical signs of milk fever in dairy cows and does?
coma & death
How can milk fever be prevented?
Maintain intake in late gestation/early lactation, low K+ and/or acidic (anionic) diets in dry period.
When does eclampsia occur in the bitch?
During week 3-4 of lactation (peak lactation)
What are clinical signs of bitches with eclampsia?
Restless, whiny, stiff gait, ataxic, clonic-tonic seizures
What are risk factors for eclampsia in bitches?
-number of nursing pups,
-breed (i.e. toy breeds)
-age (<4yrs)
How is eclampsia in bitches treated?
-10% Ca gluconate given IV
-Remove pups for first 24 hours
-Follow-up with oral calcium (preferred over SC injections)
-Wean pups if eclampsia re-occurs in the same lactation
-Assure the bitches diet provides Ca:P of 1:1
When do queens get hypocalcemia, if they get it?
During last 3 weeks of pregnancy
What are the clinical signs of hypocalcemia in queens?
depression, weakness, mild muscle tremors, tachypnea, vomiting, anorexia, hypothermia, flaccid paralysis
What are 2 predisposing factors for hypocalcemia in queens?
improper perinatal nutrition
excessive Ca supplementation
T/F: Hypocalcemia in queens is usually associated with hypoglycemia.
Treatment for hypocalcemic queens:
-10% Ca gluconate given IV @ 1-1.5ml/kg BW over a 10-30 min. period
-Follow-up (+/-) with IV bolus of dextrose to correct associated hypoglycemia
-Oral Ca supplementation with Ca carbonate @ 10-30mg Ca/kg BW every 8 hrs
-Continue oral supplementation throughout gestation
What animals are prone to nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism?
young growing animal and reptiles
What are 3 causes of nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism?
1) Feeding a high meat (high phosphorous) or organ tissue diet that is low/deficient in calcium
2) Excessive P intake with normal/low Ca intake
3) inadequate amounts of vitamin D
What is the pathogenesis of nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism if it is caused by low dietary Ca intake?
-Low blood CA results in release of PTH
-PTH causes an increase in the active form of vitamin D
-Ca absorption from the gut is increased and pulled from the bone
What is the pathogenesis of nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism if it is caused by excessive P ingestion?
-increased intestinal P absorption and increased blood levels of P (hyperphosphatemia)
-Parathyroid glands undergo hypertrophy and hyperplasia w/ increased PTH secretion
-increased PTH results in decreased renal tubular resorption of P and reabsorption of Ca so blood levels will return to normal
-Bone resorption is accelerated and metabolic bone disease ensues
What are clinical signs of nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism in small animals?
Fibrous, brittle bone, pathological fractures, lameness, paralysis
What are clinical signs of nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism in large animals?
bone demineralization, shifting leg lameness, pathologic fractures

Fibrous osteodystrophy, "bran disease," big head
What is the treatment of nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism?
Ca supplementation, reduce P and oxalate intake
What disease should always be on the rule-out list for lame exotic animals?
Nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism
What are common names for hypomagnesemia in ruminants?
grass tetany, grass staggers, wheat pasture poisoning, barley poisoning, winter tetany, lactation tetany, milk tetany
In whom can hypomagnesemia be found in?
-Lactating cows on lush spring grass
-2-4 month old calves on all milk diet
What are the clinical signs of hypomagnesemia?
belligerent, ataxia, muscle tremors, salivation, bruxism, seizures, recumbency
What does bruxism mean?
grinding teeth
How is hypomagnesemia diagnosed?
-Serum Mg <1.4mg/dl
-response to therapy
What risk factors are associated with hypomagnesemia?
high dietary concentration of K, N2, citrate, and Al, which decrease Mg absorption from plants in the rumen
What is the treatment for hypomagnesemia?
IV or oral Mg, Mg enemas (MgSO4)
Mg mineral supplement
What species are likely to suffer from hypokalemia?
cats and off-feed ruminants
What are the causes of hypokalemia in cats?
-chronic over acidification of the diet ("Urinary Health Diets")
-Secondary to anorexia, polyuria, fluid diuresis, diabetes mellitus, insulin therapy, vomiting and diarrhea
What are the clinical signs of hypokalemia in cats?
ventroflexion of neck, general muscle lethargy, stiff gait, exercise reluctance
What is the treatment of hypokalemic cats?
Administer K+ either by IV or PO
What should off-feed ruminants be orally supplemented with and why?
Potassium to avoid hypokalemia associated with ketosis
What is urolithiasis?
Stones anywhere in the urinary tract
T/F: The presence of crystals in the urine is not synonymous w/ urolithiasis.
T/F: Crystalluria is only observed in animals that develop subsequent uroliths.
False: Crystalluria can routinely be observed in healthy animals, but may be a risk factor for subsequent uroliths.
What 3 conditions are necessary for the formation of uroliths?
1) Supersaturated solution of urolith constituents
2) Favorable pH
3) Nidus or nucleation center
What factors allow urine to become a supersaturated solution of urolith constituents?
Excessive minerals in diet, too little water intake
What type of uroliths form in alkaline urine?
What type of uroliths form in acidic urine?
ammonium urate or Ca Oxalate
Must the urine be either acidic or alkaline in order for uroliths to form?
No, some uroliths are less pH dependent for formation and growth
What do bacterial urinary tract infections lead to?
Cellular debris, change in urine pH, nice nidus for urolith formation
How is urolithialisis diagnosed?
palpation, radiography/ultrasound, urinalysis
When is surgery indictated for treatment of urolithialisis?
1. Obstruction of urine flow is not resolved via catheterization
2. urine outflow must be re-designed
3. urolith type cannot be dissolved with diet and/or pharmaceuticals.
What can be used to dissolve specific uroliths?
1. Commercial diets for small animals (Struvites and Ammonium Urate uroliths)
2. Urine acidifiers
3. Alter urine pH
Where are uroliths most commonly found in canines?
Male & Female: bladder
Where are uroliths most commonly found in felines?
Male: Bladder/urethra
Where are uroliths most commonly found in horses?
Male: bladder
Where are uroliths most commonly found in sheep/goats?
Wethers (rams): urethral process/ureter
Where are uroliths most commonly found in cattle?
Steers (bulls): urethra
What type of uroliths are commonly found in canines?
struvite, Ca Oxalate, Urate
What type of uroliths are commonly found in cats?
struvite, Ca Oxalate
What type of uroliths are commonly found in horses?
Ca Carbonate
What type of uroliths are commonly found in sheep/goats?
Struvite, silicate
What type of uroliths are commonly found in cattle?
How are uroliths usually treated in large animals?
How are struvite uroliths usually treated in small animals?
dissolved with acidic diet
How are Ca oxalate uroliths usually treated in small animals?
How are urate uroliths usually treated?
surgery or diet
What can you do to increase an animal's water intake?
canned food, add salt to ration, clean water trough
How can struvite uroliths be prevented?
Acidic diet
What trace mineral is regulated by the FDA?
What minerals are problematic in Eastern US, especially Virginia?
Selenium deficiency
What 6 microminerals are problematic if they are deficient in an animal's diet?
1. Selenium
2. Copper
3. Zinc
4. Iodine
5. Cobalt
6. Iron
What 4 macrominerals are problematic if they are unbalanced in an animal's diet?
1. Calcium
2. Phosphorous
3. Magnesium
4. Potassium
What microminerals are problematic if they are in excess in an animal's diet?
1. Selenium
2. Copper
3. Molybdenum
4. Sulfur
What 3 minerals interfere with copper absorption?
1. Molybdenum
2. Sulfur
3. Iron
What mineral disorder is associated with "gun metal blue kidneys"?
Copper toxicosis
What vitamin is most prominently associated with transfer of energy?
Vitamin B
Which vitamins are antioxidants?
A, beta carotene, E, C
Which vitamins function with hormones?
A and D
Which vitamin is involved in blood clotting?
How large are vitamin requirements?
micro (mg of ug)
What are 2 provitamins?
beta carotene
ergosterol and ergocalciferol
What vitamin does beta carotene become?
What vitamin does ergosterol and ergocalciferol become?
Which 2 vitamins are abundant in fresh, green forages?
A and E
Which vitamin is abundant in sun-dried hay?
What are 2 vitamin K antagonists?
warfarin & coumarin
Which is safer Vitamin K1 or Vitamin K3?
What can coumarins of sweet clover be converted to by mold in hay or silage?
What are 2 possible components of rat poison?
warfarins OR excess vitamin D
Which rat poison component can be harmful to pets and livestock?
Which livestock get vitamin A and D shots and when?
dairy cows at preg check or baby calves