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153 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
A group of cells that are similar and perform a common or related function.
Tissue
Lines the body cavities and covers the body's external surface.
Epithelium Tissue
Pumps blood, flushes urine out of the body, allows one to swing a bat.
Muscle Tissue
Transmits electrochemical impulses.
Nervous Tissue
Anchors, packages and supports body organs.
Connective Tissue
Cells may absorb, secrete and filter.
Epithelium Tissue
Most involved in regulating and controlling body functions.
Nervous Tissue
Major function is to contract.
Muscle Tissue
Synthesizes hormones.
Epithelium Tissue
The most durable tissue type.
Connective Tissue
Abundant nonliving extracellular matrix.
Connective Tissue
Most widespread tissue in the body.
Connective Tissue
Forms nerves and the brain.
Nervous Tissue
Five general characteristics of epithelial tissue.
1. Polarity-cell regions near the apical surface differ from those near the basal structure in both structure and function.
2. Specialized contacts-fit together to form continuous sheets.
3. Supported by connective tissue-all epithelial sheets rest upon and are supported by connective tissue.
4. Avasular but integrated-although the epithelium is supplied by nerve fibers, it contains no blood vessels.
5. Regeneration-epithelium has a high regeneration capacity.
On what basis are epithelial tissues classified?
The number of cells present and the shape of the cells.
What are five major functions of the epithelium in the body?
Protection
Absorption
Filtration
Excretion
Secretion
How does the function of stratified epithelia differ from the function of simple epithelia?
Stratified epithelia is considered more durable, protection is its major role. Simple epithelia is usually very thin, protection is not one of its specialties. It is concerned mainly with absorption, secretion and filtration.
Where is ciliated epithelium found and what role does it play?
In the digestive and respiratory tract. It helps to move substances or cells through an internal passageway; propels sheets of dust-trapping mucus superiorly away from the lungs.
Transitional epithelium is actually stratified squamous epithelium with special characteristics. How does it differ structurally from other stratified squamous epithelia? How does the structural difference support its function?
The apical cells vary in appearance, depending on the degree of distention of the organ. When the organ is distended with urine, the transitional epithelium thins from about six cell layers to three, and its dome-like apical cells flatten and become squamous-like. This allows a greater volume to be stored.
How do the endocrine and exocrine glands differ in structure and function?
Endocrine glands often lose their ducts and produce hormones which are secreted by exocytosis directly into the extracellular space. Exocrine glands secrete their products onto body surfaces or into body cavities. These glands have more ducts.
Location of epithelial cells

Lining of the esophagus
Stratified squamous
Location of epithelial cells

Lining of the stomach
Simple columnar
Location of epithelial cells

Alveolar sacs of the lungs
Simple squamous
Location of epithelial cells

Tubules of the kidney
Simple cuboidal
Location of epithelial cells

Epidermis of the skin
Stratified squamous
Location of epithelial cells

Lining of bladder; peculiar cells that have the ability to slide over each other
Transitional
Location of epithelial cells

Forms the thin serous membranes; a single layer of flattened cells
Simple Squamous
What are the general characteristics of connective tissue?
Common origin, degrees of vascularity and extracellular matrix.
What are the function of connection tissue?
Binding and support, protection, insulation and transportation.
How are the functions of connective tissue reflected in its structure?
The characteristics of the cells and the composition and arrangement of extracellular matrix elements vary tremendously
This connective tissue attaches bones to bones and muscles to bones.
Dense fibrous
This connective tissue acts as a storage depot for fat.
Adipose
This connective tissue is the dermis of the skin.
Dense Fibrous
This connective tissue makes up the intervertebral discs.
Fibrocartilage
This connective tissue forms the hip bone.
Osseous
This connective tissue composes basement membranes; a soft packaging tissue with a jellylike matrix.
Areolar
This connective tissue forms the larynx, the costal cartilage of the ribs, and the embryonic skeleton.
Hyaline
This connective tissue provides a flexible framework for the external ear.
Elastic
This connective tissue is firm, structurally amorphous matrix heavily invaded with fibers; appears glassy and smooth.
Hyaline
This connective tissue's matrix is hard owing to calcium salts; provides levers for muscles to act on.
Osseous
This connective tissue insulates against heat loss.
Adipose
This connective tissue is located in the walls of large arteries.
Elastic
What two physiological characteristics are highly developed in neurons (nerve cells)?
Branching cells with cytoplasmic extensions or processes that allow them to stimuli and transmit electrical impulses.
Which muscles tissue(s) is/are controlled voluntarily?
Skeletal
Which muscle tissue(s) is/are controlled involuntarily?
Cardiac and smooth
Which muscle tissue(s) is/are striated?
Skeletal and cardiac
Which muscle tissue(s) has a single nucleus in each cell?
Cardiac and smooth
Which muscle tissue(s) has several nuclei per cell?
Skeletal
Which muscle tissue(s) is/are found attached to bones?
Skeletal
Which muscle tissue(s) allows you to direct your eyeballs?
Skeletal
Which muscle tissue(s) is/are found in the walls of the stomach, uterus and arteries?
Smooth
Which muscle tissue(s) contain spindle-shaped cells?
Smooth
Which muscle tissue(s) contain branching cylindrical cells?
Cardiac
Which muscle tissue(s) contain long, nonbranching cylindrical cells?
Skeletal
Which muscle tissue(s) has intercalated discs?
Cardiac
Which muscle tissue(s) is/are concerned with locomotion of the body as a whole?
Skeletal
Which muscle tissue(s) changes the internal volume of an organ as it contracts?
Smooth
Which muscle tissue(s) is/are tissues of the heart?
Cardiac
The outermost layer of the skin is called the:
Epidermis
The pigment responsible for skin color is:
Melanin
Which skin layer that contains hair follicles, sweat glands, sebaceous glands and nerve endings?
Dermis
The ___________ sweat glands are found in the groin, armpits, and anal region. They become active around puberty.
Apocrine
The innermost layer of the skin is called the:
Hypodermis (subcutaneous fascia)
The fibrous protein that makes up your hair, fingernails, and toe nails is called:
Keratin
New hair cells divide and grow in the hair:
Follicle
These glands produce an oily substance that keeps the skin and hair from over-drying. The oily substance also has anti-bacterial properties.
Sebaceous glands
Which hair color develops due to the complete absence of melanin production?
White
Straight hair is a result of hair shafts that are ___________.
Round
What is true about the epidermis?
The epidermis does not contain any blood vessels, the epidermis does not contain any nerve cells and the outer layer of the epidermis is composed of dead cells that are constantly sloughing.
Which layer of the epidermis is responsible for producing new cells?
Stratum basale
The cells in the skin that produce pigment are called __________.
Melanocytes
The sebaceous glands secrete an oil called _________.
Sebum
Cells that pull together the edges of a healing wound are called _________.
Myofibroblasts
The white portion half moon at the base of each nail is called the ________.
Lunule
A nurse pinches her client's fingernail, and measures how long it takes for the blanched color to return to a normal pink. She has just assessed this client's peripheral __________.
Oxygenation
Red hair is due to altered melanin that contains _________.
Iron
The __________ muscles attached to hair. When these muscles contract, the hair stands erect.
Arrector pili
The hypodermis contains ________ cells, called lipocytes.
Fat
A bleeding wound will eventually form a clot. The top portion of this clot is exposed to air and hardens, forming a _________.
Scab
List 3 functions of the skin.
Protection for disease
Keeps boy from drying out
Storage for fatty tissue
What kind of problems could develop is skin wounds healed fron the outside in (instead of from the inside out)?
Infection, swelling
Describe two ways the skin can help cool the body when it is too hot.
Through sweating
Protective barrier to maintain homeostatic balance.
Describe two ways the skin can help retain heat when it is cold outside.
The fat cells insulate
Shivering/goosebumps
Forehead Bone
Frontal
Cheekbone
Zygomatic
Lower jaw
Mandible
Bridge of nose
Nasal
Posterior bones of the hard palate
Palatine
Much of the lateral and superior cranium
Parietal
Most posterior part of cranium
Occipital
Single, irregular, bat-shaped bone forming part of the cranial floor
Sphenoid
Tiny bones bearing tear ducts
Lacrimal
Anterior part of the hard palate
Maxilla
Superior and middle nasal conchae formed from its projections
Ethmoid
Site of mastoid process
Temporal
Site of sella turcica
Sphenoid
Site of cribriform plate
Ethmoid
Site of mental foramen
Mandible
Site of styloid processes
Temporal
Four bones containing paranasal sinuses
Ethmoid, frontal, maxilla and sphenoid
Condyles here articulate with the atlas
Occipital
Foramen mangum contained here
Occipital
Small U-shaped bone in neck, where many tongue muscles attach
Hyoid
Middle ear found here
Temporal
Nasal septum
Vomer
Bears an upward protrusion, the "cock's comb," or crista galli
Ethmoid
Contain alveoli bearing teeth
Mandible, maxilla
All bones of the adult skull are firmly united by interlocking joints called __________.
Sutures
What joints are connected by the lambdoid suture?
The parietal and occipital bones
What bones are connected by the squamous suture?
The parietal and temporal bones
Name the eight bones of the cranium.
Left parietal, right parietal, left temporal, right temporal, frontal, occipital, sphenoid and ethmoid
What are two functions of the sinuses?
Makes skull lighter and serve as resonating chambers during speech.
What is the orbit?
Bony cavities in which the eyes are firmly encased and cushioned by fatty tissue.
Why can the sphenoid bone be called the keystone of the cranial floor?
It forms a central wedge that articulates with all other cranial bones.
Vertebral type containing foramina in the transverse processes, through which the vertebral arteries ascend to reach the brain.
Cervical vertebra-typical
Dens here provides a pivot for rotation of the first cervical vertebra
Axis
Transverse processes faceted for articulation with ribs; spinous process pointing sharply downward.
Thoracic vertebra
Composite bone; articulates with the hip bone laterally.
Sacrum
Massive vertebrae; weight-sustaining
Lumbar vertebra
"Tail-bone"; vestigial fused vertebrae
Coccyx
Supports the head; allows a rocking motion in conjunction with the occipital condyles.
Atlas
Cavity enclosing the nerve cord
Vertebral foramen
Weight-bearing portion of the vertebra
Body
Provide levers against which muscles pull
Spinous process and transverse process
Provide an articulation point for the ribs
Body and transverse process
Openings providing for exit of spinal nerves
Intervertebral foramina
Structures that form an enclosure for the spinal cord
Body and vertebral arch
How does a spinal nerve exit the vertebral column?
Through openings between the adjacent vertebrae called intervertebral foramina.
What are two factors/structures that permit flexibility of the vertebral column.
Intervertebral discs and curvatures
What kind of tissue composes the intervertebral discs?
Fibrocartilage
What is a herniated disc? And what problems might it cause?
A ruptured disc in which a portion of the disc protrudes outward. It might compress a nerve, leading to pain and possible paralysis.
Which two spinal curvatures are obvious at birth? Under what conditions do the secondary curvatures develop?!!!!!
Thorasic and sacral. The cervical curvature develops when the baby begins to raise its head independently. The lumbar curvature forms when the baby begins to walk (assumes upright posture.
The major bony component of the thorax (excluding the vertebral column) are the ___________.
Ribs
What is the difference between a true rib and a false rib?
A true rib has its own costal cartilage attachment to the sternum; a false rib attaches to the sternum indirectly or not at all.
Is a floating rib a true or a false rib?
False
What is the general shape of the thoracic cage?
Inverted cone shape
Which layer of the epidermis is responsible for regenerating the most superficial layers?
Stratum Basale
What layer of the dermis is directly below the epidermis?
Papillary Layer
Which skin pigment is made in the skin itself?
Melanin
Which skin appendages aid in cooling the skin when the body temperature or the external environment temperature is high?
Eccrine Sweat Glands
Sam is so cold that he has "goose bumps." What causes goose bumps?
Arrector pili muscles pulling hair follicles into an upright position.
Which of the following is a metabolic function of the skin?
Synthesis of a vitamin D precursor.
What is the most common type of skin cancer?
Basal cell carcinoma.
Susan sat out in the sun watching a baseball game. She developed small blisters on her unprotected shoulders and neck. What type of burn is represented by the formation of the blisters?
Second-degree burn
What protects the fetus's skin within the water-filled amniotic sac?
Vernix caseosa
The skin is which type of barriers?
Physical, chemical and biological
What is the most common type of cartilage found between bones in freely moveable joints?
Hyaline Cartilage
What bone shape is the patella?
Short bone
What is osteoid?
The organic part of the matrix of bone.
Which bone cells form bone?
Osteoblasts
What is endochondral ossification?
The formation of bone from pre-existing hyaline.
What indicates that a long bone has reached its adult length?
Closure of the epiphyseal plate.
What controls bone remodeling?
Mechanical stress and hormones