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121 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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As part of normal tooth growth, what part of the tooth thickens? a. Enamel b. Pulp c. Dentin d. Gingiva |
As part of normal tooth growth the (c) dentin thickens
The odontoblasts that line the pulp chamber and root canal produce secondary dentin throughout life and fill in the canal, causing the dentin to thicken with age |
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Enamel, which is the hardest body substance: a. contains living tissue b. covers the tooth crown and root c. continues production by the ameloblasts after eruption d. is relatively nonporous and impervious |
Enamel, which is the hardest body substance (d) is relatively nonporous and impervious Enamel is thus relatively easy to clean and slow to stain. IT is acellular and is considered nonliving. Cementum covers the root of the tooth. Ameloblasts do form enamel during tooth development but enamel production (amelogenesis) stops just before tooth eruption and no more enamel is produced |
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Dentin is covered by: a. Enamel and bone b. Bone and pulp c. Cementum and enamel d. Pulp and cementum |
Dentin is covered by (c) cementum and enamel Dentin, which makes up the bulk of the tooth is about as hard as bone but softer than enamel. IT is covered by enamel on the crown surface and cementum over the roots |
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Normal scissor occlusion is when the maxillary fourth premolars occlude: a. level with the mandibular fourth premolar b. buccally to the mandibular first molar c. buccally to the mandibular fourth premolar d. lingually to the mandibular first molar |
Normal scissor occlusion is when the maxillary fourth premolars occlude (b) buccally to the mandibular first molar. In normal scissor bite, the upper fourth premolar should be buccal to the mandibular first molar. The upper incisions should slightly overlap the lower ones, and the lower canine teeth should fit comfortably in the interdental space between the upper third incisor and lower canine so that no tooth surfaces touch. The first tooth behind the upper canine is the first lower premolar. In the normal bite, each cusp points between the interdental space of the opposite premolar so that a zigzag or pinking-shear effect is seen |
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The heaviest calculus deposition in dogs and cats is typically located on the: a. lingual surfaces of the lower cheek teeth b. lower canine teeth c. incisor teeth d. buccal surfaces of the upper cheek teeth |
The heaviest calculus deposition in dogs and cats is typically located on the (d) buccal surfaces of the upper cheek teeth The heaviest calculus usually is found here because of the adjacent parotid salivary duct opening |
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The carnassial teeth in dogs are: a. Upper P4 and lower M1 b. Upper P4 and lower P4 c. Upper M1 and lower M1 d. Upper C1 and lower C1 |
The carnassial teeth in dogs are (a) upper P4 (the upper fourth premolars) and lower M1 (lower first molars). A carnassial tooth is a tooth adapted to sheer flesh. A long-bladed premolar or molar of a carnivore that has a cutting or sheering action. In cats the carnassial teeth are the upper third premolars and the lower first molar |
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Free or marginal gingiva: a. occupies the space between teeth b. is the most apical portion of the ginigiva c. forms the gingival sulcus around the tooth d. is tightly bound to the cementum |
Free or marginal gingiva (c) forms the ginigival sulcus around the tooth This is the most coronal portion of the gingiva and in healthy patients lies passively against the tooth so that a potential space is formed around the tooth. This sulcar depth can be measured and should noramlly be between 0.5-1.0 mm in cats and between 1.0-3.0 mm in dogs, depending on the teeth. |
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The periodontium includes the periodontal ligament and all of the following except a. gingiva b. cementum c. alveolar bone d. enamel |
The periodontium does not include the (d) enamel. The periodontium is the supporting structure of the teeth and includes the periodontal ligament, gingiva, cementum, and alveolar and supporting bone |
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Pocket depth is measured from the a. cementoenamel junction to the bottom to the pocket b. current free gingival margin to the bottom of the gingival sulcus c. cementoenamel junction to the current free ginigival margin and then adding 1 to 2 mm d. cementoenamel junction to the apical extent of the defect |
Pocket depth is measured from the (b) current free gingival margin tot he bottom of the gingival sulcus. (A) You measure from the cementoenamel junction to the bottom to the pocket to measure attachment loss. (C) You measure the cementoenamal junction to the current free gingival margin and then add 1 to 2 mm to note gingival recession (D) The measurement of the cementoenamel junction to the apical extent of the defect is the periodontal index that determines the amount of periodontal attachment loss |
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Between patients it is best to use the following order for maintaining instruments: a. use, sharpen, wash ,and sterilize b. use, wash, sterilize, and sharpen c. use, wash, sharpen, and sterilize d. wash, sterilize, use, and sharpen |
Between patients it is best to use the following order for maintaining instruments (c) use, wash, sharpen, and sterilize To minimize the danger of infection to the operator and maintain sterility, it is best to sharpen the instruments after washing but before sterilization |
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When performing dental prophylaxis, minimal safety equipment includes: a. gloves only b. gloves and mask only c. safety glasses only d. safety glasses, mask, and gloves |
When performing dental prophylaxis, minimal safety equipment includes (d) safety glasses, mask, and gloves These should be worn at all times when performing dentistry |
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You have an instrument in your hand that has 2 sharp sides, a rounded back, and a rounded point. You are holding a: a. sickle scaler b. morris scaler c. universal curette d. sickle curette |
You have an instrument in your hand that has 2 sharp sides, a rounded back, and a rounded point. You are holding a(n) (C) universal curette Curettes have 2 sharp edges and a rounded toe and are most effective for removing calculus subgingivally. They are designed so that each end is a mirror image of the opposite end. The universal curette can be adapted to almost all dental surfaces |
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When polishing teeth using an air driven unit, the speed of the hand piece that should be used is the a. high b. low c. either high or low is acceptable d. finishing |
When polishing teeth using an air driven unit, the speed of the hand piece that should be used is the (b) low. A prophy angle used for polshing is used on low speed. low-speed hand pieces have ahigh torque and speeds of 5000-20000 RPM |
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Using the Triadan system, the proper way of describing a dog's first upper left permanent premolar is a. 205 b. 105 c. 306 d. 502 |
Using the Triadan system, the proper way of describing a dog's first upper left permanent premolar is (A) 205 105 is the first upper right permanent premolar. 306 is the lower left second permanent premolar. 502 is second upper right deciduous incisor. In the Triadan system 100+ is maxillary permanent right, 200+ is maxillary permanent left, 300+ is mandibular permanent left, and 400+ is mandibular permanent right. In the Triadan system 500+ is maxillary deciduous right, 600+ is maxillary deciduous left, 700+ is mandibular deciduous left, 800+ is mandibular deciduous right |
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The cat has which of the following numbers of maxillary and mandibular premolars in one half of the mouth? a. 3 and 2 b. 3 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 2 and 2 |
The cat has (a) 3 maxillary premolars and 2 mandibular premolars in one half of the mouth |
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The dental formula for the permanent teeth in the dog is 2 (I 3/3 and C 1/1) plus a. P 3/2 and M 1/1 = 30 b. P 3/4 and M 3/2 =40 c. P 4/4 and M 2/3 = 42 d. P 4/4 and M 3/2 =42 |
The dental formula for the permanent teeth in the dog is 2 (I 3/3 and C 1/1) plus (c) P 4/4 and M 2/3 = 42 making the dog's whole dental formula 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 2/3) = 42 Answer (A) would give you the dental formula for an adult cat 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 1/1) = 30 |
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What is the main purpose of premolar teeth? a. holding and tearing b. cutting and breaking c. grinding d. gnawing and grooming |
The main purpose of premolar teeth is (b) cutting and breaking The canine teeth are used for holding and tearing, the incisions for gnawing and grooming, and the molars for grinding |
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which teeth on each side of the mouth in a dog have three roots? a. maxillary third and fourth premolars and first molar b. maxillary fourth premolars and first and second molars c. mandibular fourth premolars and first and second molars d. mandibular and maxillary fourth premolars and first and second molars |
The teeth on each side of the mouth in a dog that have three routes are the (B) maxillary fourth premolars and first and second molars The three-rooted teeth are the maxillary fourth premolar and the first and second molars. two-rooted teeth in the dog are maxillary second and third premolars and the mandibular second, third, and fourth premolars, and first and second molars. The rest of the teeth have single roots. There are no three-rooted mandibular teeth in either the dog or the cat |
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The permanent canine and premolar teeth in dogs generally erupt at about what age? a. 3-5 months b. 4-6 months c. 5-7 months d. 6-8 months |
The permanent canine and premolar teeth in dogs generally erupt at (B) 4-6 months Permanent canines and premolars erupt at about 4-6 months, adult incisors appear at 3-5 months, and molars at 5-7 months |
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Using the Triadan system, the proper way of describing a cat's first lower right molar is a. 407 b. 409 c. 109 d. 909 |
Using the Triadan system, the proper way of describing cat's first lower right molar is (B) 409
407 is right mandibular P3 and 109 is right maxillary M1. 909 is not a tooth number in the Triadan system. The rule of 4 and 9 in the Triadan system helps standardize the nomenclature for species that have fewer teeth. The cat has only three upper premolars and 2 lower premolars per side. The canine is always designated as 04 and the first molar is always 09. the count begins backward from the first molar so that for the maxillary teeth, the fourth premolar is 08, the third premolar is 07, and the second premolar is 06, just as in the dog. The first lower right molar then is deisgnated as 409. (Note cats, then, do not have a 405, 406, 305, 306, 205, or 105) |
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The carnassial tooth in the cat is also known as a. upper first premolar b. upper first molar c. upper last premolar d. upper canine |
The carnassial tooth in the cat is also known as the (c) upper last premolar |
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A dorsal-ventral view in which the x-ray beam passes from the top of the nose through the teeth is a. rostral maxillary b. distal mandibular view c. rostral mandibular view d. rostral oblique view |
A dorsal-ventral view in which the x-ray beam passes from the top of the nose through the teeth is (a) rostral maxillary |
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A ventral-dorsal view in which the x-ray beam passes from the bottom of the jaw through the teeth is a. rostral maxillary b. distal mandibular view c. rostral mandibular view d. rostral oblique view |
A ventral-dorsal view in which the x-ray beam passes from the bottom of the jaw through the teeth is (c) rostral mandibular view |
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The only radiographic view that can be made with a true parallel technique is a. rostral maxillary b. distal mandibular view c. rostral mandibular view d. rostral oblique view |
The only radiographic view that can be made with a true parallel technique is (b) distal mandibular view |
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More teeth than normal is a. polydontia b. oligodontia c. anodontia d. wry mouth |
More teeth than normal is (A) polydontia oligodontia is the genetic defect characterized by the development of fewer than normal teeth. anodontia is the congenital absence of some or all of the teeth. wry mouth is the twisting of the mouth caused by one side growing faster than the other. |
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Class II malocclusions in which the teeth in the mandible are distal to their maxillary equivalents is termed a. mesioclusions b. distoclusions c. neutroclusions d. oroclusions |
Class II malocclusions in which the teeth in the mandible are distal to their maxillary equivalents is termed (b) distoclusions Mesioclusions and neutroclusions refer to Class III and Class I maloclussions; oroclusion is not a real condition |
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Class III malocclusions in which the mandibular teeth are occluded mesial to their maxillary equivalents is termed a. mesioclusions b. distoclusions c. neutroclusions d. oroclusions |
Class III malocclusions in which the mandibular teeth are occluded mesial to their maxillary equivalents is termed (a) mesioclusions Distoclusion and neutroclusions refer to Class II and Class I malocclusions, respectively. Oroclusion is not a readl condition |
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In radiographs, an apical abscess appears as a a. radiopaque area around the apex of the tooth b. radiolucent area round the apex of the tooth c. radiopaque area inside the tooth pulp d. radiolucent area inside the tooth pul |
In radiographs, an apical abscess appears as a (B) radiolucent area around the apex of the tooth The area will appear dark or radiolucent because the infection hase eaten away at the radiopaque bone |
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the term that best describes a dog with an abnormally short mandible is a. prognathism b. brachygnatism c. mesticephalic d. dolichocephalic |
the term that best describes a dog with an abnormally short mandible is (b) brachygnathism brachy refers to short and gnath means jaw |
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malocclusion in which one side of the mandible or maxilla is disproportionate to the other is known as a. posterior crossbite b. base-narrow mandibular canines c. wry mouth d. anterior crossbite |
malocclusion in which one side of the mandible or maxilla is disproportionate to the other is known as (c) wry mouth wry bite or wry mouth is a skeletal defect in which the affected animal has a nonsymmetrical head. the upper and lwoer incisiors do not align |
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malocclusion in which the upper fourth premolar lies palatal to the first molars is known as a. posterior crossbite b. base-narrow mandibular canines c. wry mouth d. anterior crossbite |
malocclusion in which the upper fourth premolar lies palatal to the first molars is known as (A) posterior crossbite with posterior corssbite,teh incisors are in the normal relationship but the posterior teeth are not. the upper fourth premolars are either palatally displaced or the mandible is wider than the maxilla in the premolar area |
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malocclusion in which the canines erupt in an overaly upright position or the mandible is narrowed is known as a. posterior crossbite b. base-narrow mandibular canines c. wry mouth d. anterior crossbite |
malocclusion in which the canines erupt in an overaly upright position or the mandible is narrowed is known as (b) base-narrow mandibular canines the mandibular canines are lingually dispalced. this is often seen in conjunction with retained lower deciduous teeth that push the mandibular canines inward. these base-narrow teeth then occlude iwth and cause trauma to the hard palate |
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malocclusion in which one or more of the upper incisor teeth are caudal to the lower incisors is known as a. posterior crossbite b. base-narrow mandibular canines c. wry mouth d. anterior crossbite |
malocclusion in which one or more of the upper incisor teeth are caudal to the lower incisors is known as (d) anterior crossbite anterior crossbite is the most common orthodontic abnormality. the premolar relationship is a normal scissor occlusion but one or more of the incisors are misaligned |
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the most common benign soft tissue tumor of the oral cavity is a. epulide tumor b. fibrosarcoma c. malignant melanoma d. squamous cell carcinoma |
the most common benign soft tissue tumor of the oral cavity is (a) epulide tumor the most common soft tissue tumor seen in the oral cavity is benign epulides. the origin is the gingiva. there are 3 classifications: fibrous epulis, ossifying epulis and acanthomatous epulis. fibrosarcoma, malignant melanoma, and squamous cell carcinoma are all malignant oral tumors |
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dry socket is more likely to occur when one a. ensures there is an increased blood supply to the rea b. practices good surgical technique c. allows a blood clot to form so that fibroblasts are formed d. overirrigates the tooth socket sot hat no clot can form |
dry socket is more likely to occur when one (d) overirrigaets the tooth socket so taht no clot can form dry sockets has multifactoral causes and it is a painful postoperative complication of extraction. one local factor seems to be a deficiency in blood supply to the alvolus so that a good clot does not develop. this alone will not cause dry socket, however |
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gingivoplasty is the a. addition of more gingiva to the site b. binding of the loose teeth together to help stabilize them during a healing process c. removal of hyperplastic gingival tissue d. removal of a portion of the tooth structure |
gingivoplasty is the (C) removal of hyperplastic gingival tissue the suffix -plasty means "formation" or plastic repair of. the diseased gingiva is removed to elimate suprabony pockets |
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to protect the pulp tissue from thermal damage during ultrasonic scaling one should a. use constant irrigation b. change tips frequently c. use slow rotational speed d. use approrpiate amounts of paste |
to protect the pulp tissue from thermal damage during ultrasonic scaling one should (a) use constant irrigation constant irrigation is essential to prevent the overheating of teeth |
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another term for neck lesions on feline teeth is a. odontogenic fibroma b. feline internal odontoclastic resorptive lesions c. feline external odontoclastic resorptive lesions d. class 1 enamel fracture |
another term for neck lesions on feline teeth is (c) feline external odontoclastic resoprtive lesions FEORL is the acronym given to this condition although there are many names used to describe this |
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the most common dental procedure performed on a horse is a. quidding b. curettage c. scaling d. floating |
the most common dental procedure performed on a horse is (d) floating floating is the filing or rasping of a horse's premolar and molar teeth to remove the sharp edges. quidding is the dropping of food while chewing it, often a sign that teeth need to be examined |
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a client wants to know what chew toy would be safest for her dog's teeth. you suggest she is best to give Fido a a. dried cow hoof b. nylon rope toy c. dense rubber exerciser d. large knuckle bone |
a client wants to know what chew toy would be safest for her dog's teeth. you suggest she is best to give Fido a (c) dense rubber exerciser these are the safest and work the jaws well. dried cow hooves and knuckle bones are hard and could cause slab fractures and periodontal ankylosis (ligament shock-absorbing capacity is lost) among other problems. nylone ropes are abrasive and can cause gingival trauma and wear the crowns of the teeth |
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for dental radiography of the canine tooth, you should use what size of dental film to ensure the whole tooth is include? a. 0 b.2 c. 4 d. 8 x 10 screen film |
for dental radiography of the canine tooth you should use size (C) 4 dental film to ensure the whole tooth is included size 4 dental film is the largest of the dental intraoral films. it is also referrred to as occlusal film and is best used to ensure the whole root is included |
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dental film should be placed in the mouth with the dimple a. up and pointing rostrally b. up and pointing caudally c. down and pointing rostrally d. down and pointing caudally |
dental film should be placed in the mouth with the dimple (a) up and pointing rostrally most dental radiographic film has a small raised dot on one corner. this will be on the side that should be facing the tube head and for easy orientation is best placed pointing rostrally. most film will also have a comment stating "opposite side toward the radiographic unit" |
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the flap side of the dental film should be facing a. any direction because it does not matter b. toward the tube head c. away from the tube head d. the caudal side of the animal |
the flap side of the dental film should be facing (c) away from the tube head most of the dental film has a flap for easy grasping when processing. this side of the multilayer flim package contains the foil or lead which you do not want facing the tube head |
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the bisecting angle principle states that the plane of an x-ray beam should be 90 degrees to the a. long axis of the tooth b. plane of the film c. imaginary line that bisects the angle formed by the tooth's long axis and the film plane d. imaginary line that bisects the angle formed by the animal's head and the film plane |
the bisecting angle principle states that the plane of an x-ray beam should be 90 degrees to the (c) imaginary line that bisects the angle formed by the tooth's long axis and the film plane if the beam is 90 degrees to the bisecting angle, minimal distortion will occur |
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the root length of an upper canine is how long compared with the length of the exposed portion of that tooth? a. one half the length b. same length c. three times the length d. one and a half times the length |
the root length of an upper canine is (d) one and a half times the length of the exposed portion fo that tooth |
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the upper fourth premolar communicates with what sinus? a mandibular b. occipital c. maxillary d. orbital |
the upper fourth premolar communicates with the (c) maxillary sinus the upper fourth premolar communicates directly with the maxillary sinus |
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the range for acceptable gingival succal measurements in cats is a. 1 to 3 mm b. 0.5 to 1 mm c. 1.5 to 4.5 mm d. 0.005 to 0.007 mm |
the range for acceptable gingival succal measurements in cats is (b) 0.5 to 1 mm |
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when performing dental prophylaxis you should be sure to wear a. cap, mask, gloves b. gown, gloves, mask c. cap, eye protection, gloves d. mask, eye protection, gloves |
(when performing dental prophylaxis you should be sure to wear (d) mask, eye protection, gloves |
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in what grade of periodontal disease does early pocket formation occur without initial bone loss? a. grade I b. grade II c. grade III d. grade IV |
(C) grade III is the grade of periodontla disease in which early pocket formation occurs without initial bone loss early bone loss in the late stage of grade III can be verified by radiogrpahic examination |
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a curette a. is used strictly as a supragingival instrument b. can be used either supragingivally or subgingivally c. is the most important dental instrument d. is used to irrigate the teeth without air or water |
a curette (b) can be used either supragingivally or subgingivally |
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what drug should not be given to pregnant dogs because it may cause discoloration of the puppies' teeth? a. amoxicillin b. tetracycline c. chloramphenicol d. penicillin |
(b) tetracycline should not be given to pregnant dogs because it may cause discoloration of the puppies' teeth |
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the occlusal surface of the caudal tooth is defined as the a. surface facing the hard palate b. surface nearer the cheek c. chewing surface of the tooth d. surface nearer the tongue |
the occlusal surface of the caudal tooth is defined as the (c) chewing surface of the tooth |
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a complication that may develop if subgingival plaque is improperly removed is a. etched tooth enamel b. torn epithelial attachment c. overheated tooth d. bitten technician |
a complication that may develop if subgingival plaque is improperly removed is (b) torn epithelial attachment excessive force may degrade epithelial attachment |
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the normal adult canine mouth has how many permanent teeth? a. 40 b. 42 c. 48 d. 52 |
the normal adult canine mouth has (b) 42 teeth canines have 28 deciduous teeth. adult cats have 30 teeth and 26 deciduous |
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what tooth has three roots? a. upper canine b. lower first premolar c. lower first molar d. upper fourth premolar |
(D) the upper fourth premolar has three roots |
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what term identifies the wearing away of teeth by tooth-against-tooth contact during mastication? a. plaque b. attrition c. calculus d. erosion |
(b) attrition is the wearing away of teeth by tooth-against-tooth contact during mastication |
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which of the following statements is false regarding patient safety during a dentistry? a. an appropriately sized mouth gag is essential to prevent temporomandibular joint damage b. the endotracheal tube should be uncuffed so that the tube can be easily manipulated when performing a dentistry c. large-breed dogs should be rolled with their legs under to prevent a gastric dilatation and volvulus crisis d. one most monitor the patient to ensure that fluids and debris from the dentistry do not gain access ot the trachea |
regarding patient safety during a dentistry an appropriately sized mouth gag is essnetial to prevent temporomandibular joint damage; large-breed dogs should be rolled with their legs under to prevent a gastric dilatation and volvulus crisis; one must monitor the patient to ensure that fluids and debris from the dentistry do not gain access to the trachea. The false statement is (b) the endotracheal tube should be uncuffed so that the tube can be easily manipulated when performing a dentistry it is advisable to use a cuffed endotracheal tube to prevent fluid and debris from gaining access to the lungs around the endotracheal tube. it is also a common practice to keep the endotracheal tube partially inflated when extubated to ensure that accumulated debris does not progress down the trachea |
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in patients with severe, chronic periodontal disease and possible osteomyelitis, antibiotics are often begun before a dentistry is performed. the most common antibiotic chosen for these animals is a. clindamycin b. amoxicillin c. trimethoprim sulfa d. cephalexin |
in patients with severe, chronic periodontal disease and possible osteomyelitis, antibiotics are often begun before a dentistry is performed. the most common antibiotic chosen for these animals is (a) clindamycin for chronic, severe periodontal disease the antibiotic spectrum should include anaerobes. drugs such as clindamycin are effective against anaerobic species such as bacteroides and fusobacterium species and have been proven useful in treating osteomyelitis |
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which of the following cardiac diseases is often associated with severe dental disease? a. vegetative endocarditis b. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy c. dilative cardiomyopathy d. ventricular arrhythmias |
(A) vegetative endocarditis is often associated with severe dental disease vegetative endocarditis is a clinical condition in which there is a a buildup of bacteria on the atrioventricular valve leaflet. it is hypothesized that bacteria from the mouth gain access to the bloodstream because of the periodontal disease and subsequent oral bleeding. the bacteria then colonize the valve leaflets, resulting in valvular incompetence that can lead to heart failure |
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perioceutics refer to which of the following? a. procedure to restore the periodontal ligament b. application of time-released antibiotics directly within the oral cavity c. use of antibiotics before dental procedures d. procedure to cap the pulp cavity of the tooth |
perioceutics refer to (b) application of time-released antibiotics directly within the oral cavity perioceuticals are drugs compounded such that they can be directly placed in the outh where the disease is occuring and release the medication over time |
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the bisecting angle technique is a method for radiographing the oral cavity. the description that adequately describes this technique is a. the central radiation beam is directed perpendicular to the line that bisects the angle formed by the film and the long axis of the tooth b. the central radiation beamis directed parallel to the line that bisects the angle formed by the film and the perpendicular axis of the tooth c. the central radiation beam is directed perpendicular to the tooth root d. the central radiation beam is directed parallel to the occlusal surface of the tooth |
the bisecting angle technique is a method for radiographing the oral cavity. the description that adequately describes this technique is (a) the central radiation beam is directed perpendicular to the line that bisects the angle formed by the film and the long axis of the tooth |
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a dog that was exposed to distemper perinatally may develop which of the following oral pathologic condtions? a. adontia b. polydontia c. enamel hypoplasia d. enamel staining |
a dog that was exposed to distemper perinatally may develop (c) enamel hypoplasia distemper virus can result in abnormal formation of enamel (reduced deposition or absence of enamel). enamel staining usually occurs secondary to tetracycline exposure of animals at a yougn age |
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sometimes a 0.12% chlorhexidine solution is sprayed in the patient's mouth before beginning dental prophylaxis. what is the benefit of this activity? a. sterilizes the patient's mouth before the procedure b. reduces the bacterial load in the mouth to reduce exposure to the technician who performs the procedure c. substitutes for prophylactic antibiotic therapy d. provides topical anesthetic activity |
sometimes a 0.12% chlorhexidine solution is sprayed in the patient's mouth before beginning dental prophylaxis. the benefit of this activity is (B) it reduces the bacterial load in the mouth to reduce exposure to the technician who performs the procedure there is no means for sterilizing the oral cavity in any patient. flushing with a dilute chlorhexidine solution may reduce the bacterial load that may potentially get aerosolized during the procedure. veterinary technicians should wera surgical masks, shields, or googles, and gloves when performing a dental prophylaxis to further decrease their exposure to harmful pathogens |
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what term identifies the hard, mineralized substance on the tooth surface? a. plaque b. attrition c. calculus d. erosion |
(c) calculus is the hard, mineralized substance on the tooth surface |
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what term identifies the loss of tooth structure by chemical means? a. plaque b. attrition c. calculus d. erosion |
(d) erosion is the loss of tooth structure by chemical means |
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the thin film covering a tooth that comprises bacteria, saliva, and food particles is a. plaque b. attrition c. calculus d. erosion |
the thin film covering a tooth that comprises bacteria, saliva, and food particles is (a) plaque |
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what is the minimum age for a cat to have all of its permanent teeth? a. 6 months b. 8 months c. 10 months d. 1 year |
the minimum age for a cat ot have all of its permanent teeth is (A) 6 months complete eruption of permanent dentition can occur as early as 6 months |
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of cats and dogs ages 6 years and older, approximately what percentage has periodontal disease? a. 20% b. 35% c. 50% d. 85% |
of cats and dogs 6 years and older approximately (d) 85% have periodontal disease |
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removal of calculus and necrotic cementum from the tooth roots is called a. curettage b. splinting c. root planing d. scaling |
removal of calculus and necrotic cementum from the tooth roots is called (c) root planing |
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to prevent the pulp tissues from thermal damage during ultrasonic scaling, which of the following should be done? a. use constant irrigation b. change tips frequently c. use slow rotational speed d. use appropriate amounts of paste |
to prevent the pulp tissues from thermal damage during ultrasonic scaling you should (a) use constant irrigation constant irrigation helps prevent temperatures from rising too high |
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ideally the cutting edge of the scaler should be held at what angle to the tooth surface? a. 5 to 10 degrees b. 25 to 45 degrees c. 15 to 30 degrees d. 45 to 90 degrees |
ideally the cutting edge of the scaler should be held at a (d) 45 to 90 degree angle to the tooth's surface |
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the purpose of fluoride treatment is to a. prevent thermal damage and lubrication b. strength enamel and help desensitize teeth c. remove plaque and strengthen the enamel d. irrigate and lubricate |
the purpose of fluoride treatment is to (B) strengthen enamel and help desensitize teeth |
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once plaque has formed on a tooth, how long does it take to mineralize into calculus? a. about 7 days b. 2 weeks c. 4 weeks d. 2 months |
once plaque has formed on a tooth it takes (a) about 7 days to mineralize into calculus mineralization of plaque occurs fairly rapidly |
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the most common dental procedure performed on horses is a. quidding b. floating c. repelling d. scaling |
the most common dental procedure performed on horses is (b) floating floating is the process of filing sharp edges off cheek teeth |
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what tissue is not part of the periodontium? a. periodontal ligament b. alveolar bone c. root d. gingiva |
the periodontal ligament, alveolar bone, and gingiva are part of the periodontium but the (c) root is not |
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the correct dental formula for an adult dog is a. 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/4 M 3/3) = 42 b. 2 ( I 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 3/2) = 42 c. 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 2/3) = 42 d. 2 (I 4/4 C 1/1 P 3/4 M 3/3) = 46 |
the correct dental formula for an adult dog is c. 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 2/3) = 42 |
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the correct dental formula for an adult cat is a. 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 1/1) = 30 b. 2 (I 4/4 C 1/1 P 2/3 M 1/1) = 34 c. 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 2/3 M 1/1) = 30 d. 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 2/1) = 32 |
the correct dental formula for an adult cat is a. 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 1/1) = 30 |
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what term identifies the space between roots of the same tooth? a. apical b. rostral c. furcation d. buccal |
(c) furcation is the space between roots of the same tooth |
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chlorhexidine contributes to dental prophylaxis by a. slowly dissolving calculus b. bonding to the cell membrane and inhibiting bacterial growth c. bleaching stained teeth d. decreasing tooth sensitivity |
chlorhexidine contributes to dental prophylaxis by (B) bonding to the cell membrane and inhibiting bacterial growht chlorhexidine bonds to the cell membrane and inhibits bacterial growth for up to 24 hours. fluoride decreases tooth sensitivity |
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in normal occlusion, the bite is termed a. scissor bite b. striaght bite c. occlusal bite d. razor bite |
in normal occlusion, the bite is termed (a) scissor bite |
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what is the proper dilution of chlorhexidine solution for use in the mouth? a. 20% b. 2.0% c. 0.2% d. 10% |
the proper dilution of chlorhexidine solution for use in the mouth is (c) 0.2% |
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topical fluoride a. will stain remaing calculus red b. helpds desensitize teeth and slows the rate of plaque formation c. should never be used on feline teeth d. enahces osteoclastic activity and helps desnsitize teeth |
topical fluoride (B) helps desensitize teeth and slows the rate of plaque formation |
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what term identifies the instrument used for root planing? a. periodontal probe b. explorer c. scaler d. curette |
(d) a currette is used for root planing |
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what term identifies the instrument used to detect subgingival calculus? a. periodontal probe b. explorer c. scaler d. curette |
(b) an explorer is used ot detect subgingival calculus |
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what term identifies the instrument used for removal of supragingival calculus? a. periodontal probe b. explorer c. scaler d. curette |
(c) a scaler is used for the removal of supragingival calculus |
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an elongation of one side of the animal's head results in a. anterior crossbite b. wry mouth c. brachygnathism d. prognathism |
an elongation of one side of the animal's head results in (b) wry mouth brachygnathism refers to elongation of the maxilla (on both sides of the dog's head); prognathism refers to elongation of the mandible (on both sides of the head); anterior crossbite refers to malocclusion of the incisors |
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the bulk of the tooth is composed of a. enamel b. pulp c. dentin d. cementum |
the bulk of the tooth is composed of (C) dentin |
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the most common mistake made in treating periodontal disease is a. inadequate removal of supragingval calculus b. inadequate root planing c. insufficient polishing d. iatrogenic trauma to the subgingival tissues |
the most common mistake made in treating periodontal disease is (b) inadequate root planing both a and c refer to surfaces above the gingival sulcus and it is the sulcus that most of hte damage from periodontal disease occurs. proper removal of all calcus from the subgingival tooth surfaces is essential for proper treatment of periodontal disease. although iatrogenic trauma to subgingival tissues may be a problem, it would not be considered the msot common mistake in the treatment of periodontal disease |
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as a dentifrice for use in small animals, baking soda a. is an excellent choice b. should be mixed with salt and water to form a paste c. should be mixed with fluoride gel to form a paste d. should not be used as a dentifrice for animals |
as a dentifrice for use in small animals, baking soda (d) should not be used as a dentirice for animals baking soda contains large amounts of sodium that can be absorbed into the pet's system. remember dogs and cats swallow their "toothpaste." because many pets that require frequent brushing may also have heart disease this extra sodium could be life threatening |
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after polsihg with a prophylactic paste that ocntains fluoride, rinsing with a diluted chlorhexidine a. is less effective because the fluoride interefers with bonding of chlorhexidine to tissues b. results in temporary blue staining of the teeth c. enahces the activity of both fluoride and chlorhexidine d. may be toxic tot he patient |
after polsihg with a prophylactic paste that ocntains fluoride, rinsing with a diluted chlorhexidine a. is less effective because the fluoride interefers with bonding of chlorhexidine to tissues if chlorhexidine is used, the prophylactic paste should not contain fluoride. after the teeth are polished, the teeth and subgingival surfaces can be flushed with dilute chlorhexidine and then fluoride gel can be applied to the teeth |
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if the lower incisors seem to be excessively loose in a brachycephalic or miniature-breed dog a. the teeth should b extracted b. the depth of the gingival sulcus should be tested c. the dog is calcium deficient d. the dog has advanced periodontal disases |
if the lower incisors seem to be excessively loose in a brachycephalic or miniature-breed dog (b) the depth of the gingival sulcus should be tested in many of these types of dogs, the incsor teeth may not be in individual bony sockets but suspended in connective tissue which allows them to be quite mobile. these may be healthy teeth |
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fracture deciduous teeth a. should be left in palce until they are normally shed b. should be repaired c. are insignificant d. should be extracted |
fractured deciduous teeth (d) should be extracted the permenant tooth bud lies very close to the deciduous tooth and could become infected if the dciduous tooth is fractured and lef tin palce |
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the first dental examination should occur when a. the animal is 2 to 3 years old b. the client request it c. a problem such as drooling or bad breath is noticed d. the animal is 6 to 8 weeks old |
the first dental examination should occur when (D) the animal is 6 to 8 weeks old the animal should have its first dental examination when it comes in for its first vaccinations and should have a dental examination on every visist after that. waiting for problems such as drooling or bad breath to occur allows dental disease to progress to a point where it may be mroe difficult to treat successfully |
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the deciduous incisors
a. erupt at 3 1/2 to 4 weeks of age b. have roots that are proportionately longer than the roots of permanent incisors c. are the most frequently retained teeth d. are not usually repalced with permant incsiors untilt he dog is 6 months old |
the deciduous incisors (b) have roots that are proportionately longer than the roots of permant incsiors
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nerves and blood vessels enter the tooth through the a. apical delta b. crown d. sulcus |
nerves and blood vessels enter the tooth through the (a) apical delta |
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when one or more of the upper incisors rest caudally to the lower incisors and the rest of hte occlusion is normal, it is called a. level bite b. wry mouth c. anterior crossbite d. anodontia |
when one or more of the upper incisors rest caudally to the lower incisors and the rest of hte occlusion is normal, it is called (c) anterior crossbite |
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the term polyodontia refers to a. retained deciduous teeth b. supernumerary teeth c. supernumerary teeth and retained deciduous teeth d. tooth loss as a result of periodontal disease |
the term polyodontia refers to (b) supernumerary teeth |
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excessive growth of gingival tissue is termed a. gingivitis b. gingival hyperplasia c. gingival hypoplasia d. gingivectomy |
excessive growth of gingival tissue is termed (b) gingival hyperplasia gingivitis means gingival inflammation. gingival hypoplasia means gingival shrinkage and gingivectomy refers to the removal of gingiva |
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two tooth buds that grow together to fomr one larger tooth is referred to as a. gemini b. fusion c. polydontia d. oligodontia |
two tooth buds that grow together to fomr one larger tooth is referred to as (b) fusion fusion is a term used to describe two tooth buds growing together to form one larger tooth. polydontia nad oligodontia refer to thenumber of teeth |
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the space between two roots wehre they meet the crown is called a. crook b. furcation c. apex d. fissure |
the space between two roots wehre they meet the crown is called (B) furcation |
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the term for a tooth that has one root but two crowns is a. gemini b. fusion c. polydontia d. oligodontia |
the term for a tooth that has one root but two crowns is (a) gemini gemini refers to a tooth that has 2 crowns but only 1 root. polydontia and oligodontia refer to the number of teeth |
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you are looking at your dental radiograph and notie that the tooth is elongated. this happened because the beam was perpendicular to the a. film b. tooth c. bisecting angle d. wrong tooth |
you are looking at your dental radiograph and notie that the tooth is elongated. this happened because the beam was perpendicular to the (b) tooth if the x-ray beam is aimed more perpendicular to the tooth, rather than to the bisecting angle, the tooth will appear more elongated. foreshortening will occur if the beam is more perpendicular to the film. you want to the beam perpendicula rto the bisecting angle to minimize distortion |
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a curette is used to a. check the tooth's surface for any irregularities b. measure the depth of the gingival recession c. scale large amounts of calculus from the tooth's surface d. scale calculus from the tooth surface located in the gingival sulcus |
a curette is used to (d) scale calculus from teh tooth surface located in the gingival sulcus |
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a scaler is used to a. check the tooth's root surface for any irregularities b. measure the depth of gingival recession c. scale large amounts of calculus from the tooth's surface d. scale calculus from the tooth surface lcoated in the gingival sulcus |
a scaler is used to (c) scale large amounts of calculus from teh tooth's surfae |
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what mineralized tissue cover the root of the tooth? a. calculus b. enamel c. cementum d. dentin |
(c) cementum is the mineralized tissue that covers the root of the tooth calculus is mineralized debris on teeth. enamel covers the crown of the tooth. dentin is the mineralized layer beneatht he enamel and the cementum |
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when scaling gross calculus from the teeth, a. hold the scaler usinga modified pen grasp b. hold the sacler usinga modified screw driver grasp c. use long controlled strokes toward the gums d. hold the curette usinga modified pen grasp |
when scaling gross calculus from the teeth, (a) hold the scaler usinga modified pen grasp the scaler is used by making strokes across the tooth away from the gums. the scaler is heldl ike a pen |
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ultrasonic scalling a. can substitute for hand scaling b. may cause thermal damage to the tooth if the tip is kept on a tooth for longer than 5 seconds c. sprays the tooth with water to wash the tooth clean d. sprays the tooth with water to cool the tooth and prevent pulp damage |
ultrasonic scaling (d) sprays the tooth with water to cool the tooth and prevent pulp damage the spray from the ultrasonic scaler is for cooling purposes. hand scaling should always be done to get surfaces that the ultrasonic scaler cannot reach. thermal damage to the tooth can happen if the sacler is kept on the tooth longer than 15 seconds |
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the following statements are all true except a. sulcus depth is measured usinga problem b. a sulcus depth up to 3 mm is normal in a cat c. a sulcus depth greater than 3 mm indicates periodontal disase d. the probe is inserted gently into the gingival sulcus parallel to the root of the tooth |
it is true that sulcus depth is measured using a probe; a sulcus depth greater than 3 mm indicates periodontal disease; the probe is inserted gently into the gingival sulcus parallel to the root of the tooth but it is false that (b) a sulcus depth up to 3 mm is normal in a cat the normal sulcus depth in a cat is 0 to 1 mm |
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an older dog with dental disease is presented to the clinic with a draining tract below his right eye. waht is the most likely cause? a. right-sded maxillary carnassial tooth root abscess b. left-sided maxillary carnassial tooth root abscess c. right-sided mandibular carnassial tooth root abscess d. maxillary incisor tooth root abscess |
an older dog with dental disease is presented to the clinic with a draining tract below his right eye. the most likely cause is (A) right-sided maxillary carnassial tooth root abscess carnassial tooth root abscesses often present as a draining tract in the sinus area of the affected side (Below the eye) clients often do not associate the tract witha dental problem |
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wry mouth refers to a. elongation of the head on either the left or right side b. elongation of the maxilla in comparison to the mandible c. elongation of hte mandible in comparison to the maxilla d. loss of maxillary incisors |
wry mouth refers to a. elongation of the head on either the left or right side when one half of the head is longer than the other the resulting outcome is a malocclusion on both sides (left and right) between the maxillary and mandibular teeth |
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brachygnathism is a genetic defect best characterized as a. a maxilla that is longer than the mandible b. a mandible that is longer than the maxilla c. a lack of incisors d. polydontia |
brachygnathism is a genetic defect best characterized as (A) a maxilla that is longer than the mandible brachygnathism is a common defect in a number of breeds resulting from an overshot jaw or what is also called "parrot mouth" this malocclusion can lead to accelerated development of dental disease because of improper wearing of the teeth |
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prognathism is a normal condition in brachycephalic breeds but it is considered a genetic defect in other breeds. it is best characterized as a. a mandible that is longer than the maxilla b. a maxilla that is longer than the mandible c. one side of the head is longer than the other d. an overly long soft palate |
prognathism is a normal condition in brachycephalic breeds but it is considered a genetic defect in other breeds. it is best characterized as (a) a mandible that is longer than the maxilla |
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malocclusions can lead to dental disesase for all of the following reasons except a. soft tissue trauma from teeth that are abnormally positioned b. accelerated development of periodontal disease resulting from lack of normal wear and the normal flushing of teeth with saliva c. abnormal wear of teeth resulting from malposition leading to fracture and pulp exposure d. presence of resorptive leasions leading to destruction of teeth |
malocclusions cna lead ot dental disease for all of the following reasons asoft tissue trauma from teeth that are abnormally positioned; accelerated development of periodontal disease resulting from lack of normal wear and the normal flushing of teeth with saliva; abnormal wear of teeth resulting from malposition leading to fracture and pulp exposure but not (d) presence of resorptive leasions leading ot destruction of teeth resorptive lesions are aggressive feline caries that result in tooth loss howevere these are not releated to malocclusion pathology |
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which of the following teeth are not normally present in the adult cat? a. P^1 and P sub 1 and P sub 2 b. P sub 1 and P^1 and P^2 c. M^2 and M sub 1 d. M sub 2 and M^2 |
the teeth not normally present in the adult cat of the are (a) P^1, P sub 1 and P sub 2 or upper premolar 1, lower premolar 1 and lower premolar 2 |
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severe stomatitis is a colinical sign commonly associated with which of the following feline disorders? a. feline infectious peritonititis b. inflammatory bowel disease c. feline immunodeficiency virus d. toxoplasmosis |
severe stomatitis is a colinical sign commonly associated with (c) feline immunodeficiency virus FIV positive cats often suffer from severe oral stomatitis. wehn a vet tech performs dental prophylaxis and notes stomatitis especially when it is not associated with dental plaque, an FELV/FIV test should be performed on a paitnet to rule out infectious causes for the stomatitis |
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an oronasal fistua can often occur secondary to a. abscess of the mandibular canine tooth b. incsor rooth abcess c. abscess of hte maxillary canine tooth d. retained deciduous incisors |
an oronasal fistua can often occur secondary to ( c) abscess of the maxillary canine tooth maxillary canine tooth root abscessation often result sin the development of oronasal fistula because the root is so long and can penetrate well into the maxilla |
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which of the following staetments about canine toy breeds is true? a. chronic impaction of incisor teeth with hair and debris often reults in a chronic osteomyelitis b. malocclusions are rare in toy breeds comapred with giant-breed dogs c. enamel hypoplasia is a common finding in toy breeds d. prognathism is considered a genetic defect in brachycephalic breeds |
regarding canine toy breeds it is true that (a) chronic impaction of incisor teeth with hair and debris often results in a chronic osteomyelitis dogs with chronic allergies that engage in chewing and self-excoriation in combination with malocclusion have impaction of hair betwene the incisor teeth. the subsequent infection spreads from the soft tissue to the alveolar bone resulting in a chronic osteomyelitis. the animals often lose their teeth and experience pain secondary to the infection |
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a biopsy report confirms that an oral mass is an acanthomatous epulis; what can be said about this growht? a. it is a nonmalignant tumor b. it is a malignant tumor c. it is very likely to metastasize d. it is related to the presence of a malocclusion |
a biopsy report confirms that an oral mass is an acanthomatous epulis; (a) it is a nonmalignant tumor an epulis is a nonmalignant tumor that can be locally invasive into bone. it is essential that a biopsy be performed to diferentiate it from other tumors and to classify its type (fibromatous, ossifying, or acanthomatous) |
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whie performing a routine prophylactic dentistry, the vete tech notes a large, red raised lesion on the lip of her feline patient. the client noted that the lesion "comes and goes." what is a resonable differential for this leasion? a. feline resorptive lesion b. trauma-related lesion c. eosinophilic ulcer d. tumor |
whie performing a routine prophylactic dentistry, the vete tech notes a large, red raised lesion on the lip of her feline patient. the client noted that the lesion "comes and goes."a resonable differentional for this lesion is (C) eosinophilic ulcer eosinophlic ulcers also know as eosinophilic granuloma complex and rodent ulcers are alelrgy-related lesions that occur in cats. the inciting cause has not been well defined. they will resolve without treatment but are often responsive to corticosteroid administration. they often recur. these are not malignancies but they should be distinguished from squamous cell carcinoma lesions via biopsy |
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feline cervical line lesions/feline neck lesions/feline resorptive lesions are of great concern to veterinarians. which of the following statements regarding these lesions is false? a. feline resorptive lesions are aggressive dental caries that result in resorption of roots and subsequent tooth loss b. feline resorptive lesions often present with a raspberry seed type sign at the base of the tooth where it meets the gingival margin c. feline resorptive lesions are effectively managed with steroid administration d. it is common tofind more than one feline cervical line lesion in the oral cavity |
feline cervical line lesions/feline neck lesions/feline resorptive lesions are of great concern to veterinarians. regarding feline resorptive lesions: a. feline resorptive lesions are aggressive dental caries that result in resorption of roots and subsequent tooth loss; feline resorptive lesions often present with a raspberry seed type sign at the base of the tooth where it meets the gingival margin; it is common tofind more than one feline cervical line lesion in the oral cavity but it is false that (C) feline resorptive lesions are effectively managed with steroid administration steroid adminsitration does not apepar to dimish or prevent the development of feline neck lesions. the cause of these lesions has not been determined |
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which of the following statements about eruption of permanent teeth is false? a. the permanent upper canines erupt mesial to the deciduous canines b. the permanent lower canines erupt buccal to the deciduous canines c. the permanent incisiors erupt distal to the deciduous incisors d. the permanent canine teeth erupt at 5 to 6 months of age in the dog |
regarding the eruption of permanent teeth in animals: the permanent upper canines erupt mesial to the deciduous canines; the permanent incisiors erupt distal to the deciduous incisors; the permanent canine teeth erupt at 5 to 6 months of age in the dog but it is false that (B) the permanent lower canines erupt buccal to the deciduous canines the permanent lwoer canines usually erupt lingual to the deciduous canines. |
