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174 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What agents should be avoided in geriatric patients? a. atropine b. xylazine c. ketamine d. diazepam |
(B) xylazine should be avoided in geriatric patients Geriatric patients have a difficult time coping with a respiratory and cardiovascular depressions associated with xylazine |
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What agent is excreted largely intact by the cat kidney? a. atropine b. ketamine c. halothane d. acetylpromazine |
(B) Ketamine is excreted largely intact by the cat kidney |
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In cattle, an epidural block is performed by inserting the needle between a. T13 and L1 b. L7 and the sacrum c. The sacrum and C1 d. Cy1 and Cy2 |
In cattle, an epidural block is performed by inserting the needle between (d) Cy1 and Cy2 |
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A disadvantage of breathing 50% nitrous oxide is that it a. decreases the arterial PaO2 b. increases the arterial PaO2 c. slows the induction time d. prolongs recovery |
A disadvantage of breathing 50% nitrous oxide is that it (a) decrease the arterial PaO2 The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood should be approximately five times the percent of inspired oxygen. Breathing 100% oxygen would then yield a PaO2 of 500 mm Hg. Oxygen at 50% + N2O at 50% would yield a PaO2 of 250 mm Hg. in some patients this might not be desirable. |
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Apneustic breathing patterns are frequently seen in cats with use of a. pentobarbital b. thiamylal c. ketamine d. guaifenesin |
Apneustic breathing patterns are frequently seen in cats with use of (c) ketamine Apneustic respirations are characterized by an inspiratory hold and rapid expiraiton |
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If 180 ml of %5 solution of guaifenesin is administered to a 150 kg foal, how many mg/kg would be administered? a. 30 b. 60 c. 90 d. 15 |
If 180 ml of %5 solution of guaifenesin is administered to a 150 kg foal, then (b) 60 mg/kg would be administered 5% = 50 mg/ml x 180 ml = 9000 mg/150 kg = 60 mg/kg |
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caudal epidural administration of lidocaine in the dog is a. useful to prevent movement b. not to be used for cesarean section c. an excellent caudal analgesic d. an old procedure with little value in veterinary anesthesia today |
caudal epidural administration of lidocaine in the dog is (c) an excellent caudal analgesic epdiural lidocaine can be used to provide analgesia preoperatively and postoperatively for surgical procedures that involve the rear limbs and anal area |
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Which of the following is not an effect associated with atropine administration? a. tachycardia b. excessive salivation c. mydriasis d. decreased gastrointestinal motility |
Tachycardia, mydriasis (dilation of the pupil), and decreased gastrointestinal motility are all effects associated with atropine administration but not (b) excessive salivation atropine decreases salivaiton |
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The most reliable sign of inadequate anesthetic depth is a. increased heart rate b. increased respiratory rate c. active palpebral reflex d. responsive movement |
The most reliable sign of inadequate anesthetic depth is (d) responsive movement Increased heart rate, increased respiratory rate, and active palpebral reflex (blink reflex) may be indications of light planes of anesthesia but patient movement as a result of painful stimuli is a clear indicator that the depth of anesthesia is not adequate |
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Whole blood should be administered in which of the following presurgical situations? a. PCV 30% b. PCV 14% c. Von Willebrand positive d. chronic anemia, PCV 25% |
Whole blood should be administered presurgically when an animal has a PCV of 14% |
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A 10 kg dog with a ventricular arrhythmia is treated with an IV lidocaine drip at 50 mcg/kg/min. How many drops per minute from a minidrip infusion set (60 drops/ml) are necessary if the concentration of lidocaine is 1 mg/ml? a. 3 b. 5 c. 30 d. 50 |
A 10 kg dog with a ventricular arrhythmia is treated with an IV lidocaine drip at 50 mcg/kg/min. There will be (c) 30 drops per minute from a minidrip infusion set (60 drops'ml) if the concentration of lidocaine is 1 mg/ml 10 kg x 50 g/kg/ml = 500 g/min; 500 g = 0.5 mg = 0.5 ml = 30 drops/min |
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The mot common arrhythmia associated with use of thiobarbiturates in dogs during induction of anesthesia is a. atrial fibrillation b. ventricular tachycardia c. vigeminy d. second-degree atrioventricular block |
The mot common arrhythmia associated with use of thiobarbiturates in dogs during induction of anesthesia is (c) bigeminy |
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Tachycardia in an anesthetized patient may be an indication of any of the following except a. hypotension b. pain c. light plane of anesthesia d. xylazine overdose |
Tachycardia in an anesthetized patient may be an indication of any of the following hypotension, pain, or light plain of anesthesia but tachycardia in an anesthetized patient is not an indication of (d) xylazine overdose A xylazine overdose would cause bradycardia |
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A cardiac rhythm disturbance detected shortly after induction of anesthesia may be the result of any of the following except a. the induction agent b. difficultly intubating c. hypoxemia d. breathing oxygen-enriched air |
A cardiac rhythm disturbance detected shortly after induction of anesthesia may be the result of the induction agent, difficulty intubating, or hypoxemia but it would not be the result of breathing oxygen-enriched air |
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hypothermia has become significant in a 4 kg anesthetized cat. The best way to restore body heat is a. with a warm-water blanket b. to submerge the animal in warm water c. with a heat lamp d. to warm the air in the breathing circuit by some method |
hypothermia has become significant in a 4 kg anesthetized cat. The best way to restore body heat is (d) to warm the air in the breathing circuit by some method It is difficult to warm the patient by surface application of warm objects |
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IF a dog is too deeply anesthetized all of the following may be seen except a. tachycardia b. bradycardia c. pale mucous membranes d. increased jaw muscle tone |
IF a dog is too deeply anesthetized all of the following may be seen tachycardia, bradycardia, and pale mucous membranes; you would not see (D) increased jaw muscle tone increased jaw muscle tone would indicated the dog was too light, not too deep |
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An isoflurane-anesthetized cat suddenly begins breathing 30 times a minute during a surgical procedure. Your first response should be to a. turn down the oxygen flow rate b. immediately begin to bag the patient c. turn up the anesthetic concentration d. evaluate vital organ function and endotracheal tube placement and make necessary adjustments |
An isoflurane-anesthetized cat suddenly begins breathing 30 times a minute during a surgical procedure. Your first response should be to (d) evaluate vital organ functions and endotracheal tube placement and make necessary adjustments |
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A dog anesthetized with halothane in 99% oxygen develops ventricular tachycardia. What is the drug of choice for therapy? a. propanolol b. quinidine c. lidocaine d. atropine |
A dog anesthetized with halothane in 99% oxygen develops ventricular tachycardia. The drug of choice for therapy is (C) lidocaine |
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Dobutamine is used in emergency anesthetic and clinical situations to a. increase the respiratory rate b. increase cardiac output c. correct cardiac arrhythmias d. decrease the heart rate |
Dobutamine is used in emergency anesthetic and clinical situations to (b) increase cardiac output |
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During cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) in a medium-sized dog, you should maintain a ventilation rate of how many breaths per minute? a. 5 b. 12 c. 20 d. 30 |
During cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) in a medium-sized dog, you should maintain a ventilation rate of (b) 12 breaths per minute |
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During CPR, an adequate cardiac massage is present when a. the electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal b. the heart rate is 60 beats/min c. a peripheral pulse can be palpated d. the mucous membranes are pink |
During CPR, an adequate cardiac massage is present when (c) a peripheral pulse can be palpated |
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The only accurate way to evaluate the effectiveness of respiration is by a. observing abdominal and chest movements during respiration b. counting respiratory rate c. feeling air move through the endotracheal tube or nostrils d. measuring the arterial blood oxygen and carbon dioxide partial pressures |
The only accurate way to evaluate the effectiveness of respiration is by (d) measuring the arterial blood oxygen and carbon dioxide partial pressures |
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When inflating the cuff on an endotracheal tube, you should change to a larger diameter tube if cuff inflation requires injection of more than what volume of air? a. 2 ml b. 5 ml c. 7 ml d. 10 ml |
When inflating the cuff on an endotracheal tube, you should change to a larger diameter tube if cuff inflation requires injection of more than (B) 5 ml of air if more than 5 ml of air are required to properly fill the cuff, the diameter of the endtoracheal tube is too small. this restricts patient ventilation and can cause pressure damage to the tracheal lining |
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Ideally an endotracheal tube should be inserted so that a. its tip is midway between the thoracic inlet and the larynx b. the adaptor is just caudal to the incisors c. it is deep enough to prevent backing out d. its tip just reaches the third rib |
Ideally an endotracheal tube should be inserted so that (a) its tip is midway between the thoracic inlet and the larynx to reduce deadspace and prevent endobronchial intubation, you should premeasure and mark the tip of the tube so it can be placed midway between the thoracic inlet and the larynx |
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when an ednotracheal tube is being inserted in a horse, the animal should be place in a. sternal recumbency with its head at a 90-degree angle to the neck b. sternal recumbenc with its head and neck extended c. lateral recumbency with its head at a 90-degree angle to the neck d. lateral recumbency with its head, neck, and back extended |
when an endotracheal tube is being inserted in a horse, the animal should be place in (d) lateral recumbency with its head, neck, and back extended in this position, a horse's long, soft palate will usually guide the tube into the larynx |
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Which of the following is the most common complication of endotracheal intubation? a. placement of the tube in the esophagus b. physical damage to the teeth and oral mucous membranes c. overinflated cuff injuring the trachea d. underinflated cuff collapsing the trachea |
the most common complication of endotracheal intubation is (a) placement of the tube in the esophagus physical damage to the teeth and oral mucous membranes, overinflated cuff injuring the trachea, and underinflated cuff collapsing the trachea are all possible complications involved in placing an endotracheal tube but the misplacement of the tube into the esophagus occurs more frequently than others |
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The best method for determining the proper inflation of an endotracheal tube cuff is a. use 1 ml of air for each millimeter of internal diameter of the tube b. inject air while applying pressure from the reservoir bag until no air escapes around the tube c. inject air until the bulb on the cuff tubing is too hard to collapse d. use a 12-ml syringe and inject 12 ml of air into the cuff |
The best method for determining the proper inflation of an endotracheal tube cuff is (B) inject air while applying pressure from the reservoir bag until no air pressure escapes around the tube the ideal method for inflating a cuff is to compress the rebreathing bag or an Ambu bag while adding air to teh cuff. this method should prevent overinflation and tracheal necrosis |
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In a siamese cat, the endtoraccheal tube should be removed a. as soon as the surgery or diagnostic technique is completed b. only afte the animal is fully conscious and able to maintain a free airway c. when the animal is taken off of the anesthesia machine d. as soon as the animal begins to swallow and cough |
In a siamese cat, the endtoraccheal tube should be removed (D) as soon as the animal begins to swallow and cough in nonbrachycephalic animals, the endotracheal tube should be removed as soon as the animal is able to swallow and cough and at the first sign that it can chew on the tube. this must be done before the animal has had a chance to puncture the tube or injure itself on the tube |
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In a pug, the endotracheal tube should be removed a. as soon as the surgery or diagnostic technique is completed b. only after the animal is fully conscious and able to maintain a free airway c. when the animal is taken off of the anestehsia machine d. as soon as the animal begins to swallow and cough |
In a pug, the endotracheal tube should be removed (b) only after the animal is fully conscious and able to maintain a free airway in brachycephalic breeds, the chances of respiratory complications are greater than in other animals. Therefore, the endotracheal tube should be left in place untilt he animal is conscious and able to maintain a patent airway |
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which statement concerning use of intravenous anesthesia in large animals is least accurate? a. it is routinely used for cast applications, castrations, and umbilical hernias b. it works well on procedures that require complete immobilization of the patient c. it should not be used on procedures that require more than 45 to 50 minutes to complete d. it requires use of a preanestehtic for sedation and a barbiturate |
Concerning the use of intravenous anestehsia in large animals it is routinely used for cast applications, castrations, and umbilical hernias, it should not be used on procedures that require more than 45 to 50 minutes to complete, and it requires use of a preanesthetic for sedation and a barbiturate but it is not accurate that (B) it works well on procudres that require complete immobilization of the patient intravenous anesthesia alone (sedative plus a short-acting barbiturate) may not completely immobilize large animals and should not be used for procedures that require such control of movement |
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when monitoring the vital signs of an anesthetized patient you must observe and record all of the following, except a. mucous membrane color and capillary refill time b. heart rate and respiratory rate and depth c. reflexes d. pulse quality and strength |
When monitoring the vital signs of an anesthetized patient, you must observe and record mucous membrane color and capillary refill time, heart rate and respiratory rate and depth, and pulse quality and strength but vital signs does not include (C) reflexes the term vital sign refers to measures that indcate the response of the animal's homeostatic mechanisms to anestehsia. these include herat rate, blood pressure, capillary refill time, central venous pressure, mucous membrane color, blood loss, respiratory rate, blood gases, and temperature. reflex refers to an involuntary response to a stimulus |
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the responsibilities of the anesthetist during a surgical procedure include continuous monitoring of the patient's vital signs and recording observations at approximately a. 10 minute intervals b. 5 minute intervals c. 2 minute intervals d. 15 second intervals |
the responsibilities of the anesthetist during a surgical procedure include continuous monitoring of the patient's vital signs and recording observations at approximately (b) 5 minute intervals continuous monitoring of the anesthetized patient may be impractical in many veterinary clinics. however an attempt should be made to observe and evaluate an anesthetized animal at least once every 3 to 5 minutes |
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adequate oxygen may be evaluated subjectively during anesthesia by the a. heart rate b. respiratory rate c. mucous membrane color and capillary refill time d. pulse pressure |
adequate oxygen may be evaluated subjectively during anesthesia by the (c) mucous membrane color and capillary refill time the color of mucous membranes and CRT are both used to evaluate oxygen levels in tissue. pink mucous membranes suggest adequate oxygen levels, whereas bluish mucous membranes indicate cyanosis. A CRT of greater than 2 seconds indicates poor tissue perfusion with oxygenated blood |
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hypoventilation that occurs in the anesthetized patient is characterized by a. decreased oxygen levels and increased carbon dioxide levels b. decreased carbon dioxide levels and decrease oxygen levels c. increased oxygen levels and decreased carbon dioxide levels d. increased oxygen levels and increased carbon dioxide levels |
hypoventilation that occurs in the anesthetized patient is characterized by (a) decreased oxygen levels and increased carbon dioxide levels every patient given an anesthetic drug is hypoventilating. during hypoventilation periods, oxygen levels decrease and carbon dioxide levels increase |
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concerning physical stimulation of the recovering anesthetized patient, which statement is least accurate? a. stimulation should not include rubbing the chest, because it may interefer with respiration b. stimulation can include talking to the patient, moving the limbs, or pinching the toes c. stimulation increases the flow of information the reticular activation center of the brain d. a lack of stimulation may cause drowsiness in the conscious animal |
Concerning physical stimluation of the recoveirng anesthetized patient stimulation can include talking to he patient, moving the limbs, or pinching the toes; stimulation increases the flow of information to th ereticular activaiton center of the brain; and a lack of stimulation may cause drowsiness in the conscious animal but it is inaccurate to say that (a) stimluation should not include rubbing the chest because it may interfere with respiration patients recovery may be hastened by gentle stimulation which includes talking to the animal, gently pinching the toes, opening the mouth, gently moving the limbs, and rubbing the chest |
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it is advisable to turn the anesthetized patient from side to side during the recovery period of anesthesia. Concerning this, which statement is least accurate? a. turn the patient every 10 to 15 minutes until it regains consciousness b. turning the patient prevents pooling of blood in the dependent parts of the body c. it is advisable to turn all animals dorsally rather than sternally to prevent gastric torsion d. turning the patient helps stimulation respiration and consciousness |
it is advisable to turn the anesthetized patient from side to side during the recovery period of anesthesia. Concerning this you should turn the patient every 10 to 15 minutes until it regains consciousness; turning the patient prevents pooling of blood in the dependent parts of the body; turning the patient helps stimulate respiration and consciousness. However it is inaccurate to say that (C) it is advisable to turn all animals dorsally rather than sternally to prevent gastric torsion. it is advisable to turn all animals sternally (the feet are moved under a dog as it is turned rather than rolling the patient onto its back) to less the chance of gastric torsion, especially in deep-chested animals |
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once extubated, all animals should be placed in a. right lateral recumbency with the neck extended b. left lateral recumbency with the neck in a normal, flexed postion c. sternal recumbency with the neck extended d. whatever position is most comfortable for the patient |
once extubated, all animals should be placed in (C) sternal recumbency with the neck extended once extubated, all animals should be palced in sternal recumbency witht he neck extended because this position helps maintain a patent airway |
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an anesthetized animal should receive sign breaths every ___ minutes a. 15 to 20 b. 3 to 5 c. 10 to 15 d. 5 to 10 |
an anesthetized animal should receive sign breaths every (d) 5 to 10 minutes |
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a dog in an appropriate plane of anesthesia under isoflurane would be expected to have a pulse oximeter reading of a. 97 b. 120 c. 85 d. 90 |
a dog in an appropriate plane of anesthesia under isoflurane would be expected to have a pulse oximeter reading of (A) 97 normal values should be more than 95%; values less than 90% indicate hypoxia; it is impossible to have greater than 100% oxygen saturation of hemoglobin |
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if IV access is difficult, emergeny drugs can be administered safely and effectively by the ___ route a. intracardiac b. intraperitoneal c. intratracheal d. intramuscular |
if IV access is difficult, emergeny drugs can be administered safely and effectively by the (c) intratracheal route emergency drugs can be given by the intratracheal route at twice the recommended IV dose. the intracardiac and intraperitoneal routes carry too much risk of damage and absorption of emergency drugs from an intramuscular injection is too slow |
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which of the following can activate the sympathetic portion of the autonomic nervous system? a. intubation b. handling viscera c. administration of opioids d. painful stimuli |
(d) painful stimuli can activate the sympathetic portion of the autonomic nervous system intubation, handling viscera and administration of opioids activate the parasympathetic nervous system |
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all of the following are appropriate uses of anticholinergic drugs except a. as an antidote for organophosphate poisoning b. as an agent to increase intestinal peristalsis c. as an aid in the treatment of corneal ulcers d. as a treatment for bradycardia |
anticholinergic drugs can be used as an antidote for organophosphate poisoning, as an aid in the treatment of corneal ulcers, and as a treatment for bradycardia but not (B) as an agent to increase intestinal peristalsis anticholinergics decrease intestinal peristalsis |
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the values of the PCV/TP may indcate that all of the following are present except a. anemia b. hypoproteinemia c. dehydraiton d. infection |
the values of the PCV/TP may indicate anemia, hypoproteinemia, and dehydration but would not indicate infection the presence of absence of infection cannot be determined for PCV/TP values |
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which of the following statements is incorrect? a. phenothiazine tranquilizers may make an animal more aggressive b. obese animals are often underdosed c. brachycephalic animals are prone to respiratory complications d. isoflurane is more respiratory depressive than halothane |
phenothiazine tranquilizers may make an animal more aggressive; brachycephalic animals are prone to respiratory complications; isoflurane is more respiratory depressive than halothane are all true statements however (B) obese animals are often underdosed is false obese animals are actually usually overdosed because fat is not very metabolically active |
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which of the following statements is incorrect? a. diazepam is a potent sedative b. xylazine can cause bloat in deep-chesteed dogs c. atropine does not have to be administered with butorphanol d. opioids can be given by the epidural route |
xylazine can cause bloat in deep-chested dogs; atropine does not have to be administered with butorphanol; opioids can be given by the epidural route are all true statments but (a) diazepam is a potent sedative is false diazepam is a weak sedative |
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in dogs, normal doses of opioids generally produce all of the following except a. respiratory depression b. decreased heart rate c. analgesia d. excitement |
in dogs, normal doses of opioids generally produce respiratory distress(/bradycardia), decreased heart rate, and analgesia but rarely (D) excitement |
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which inhalant anesthetic is associated with the longest induction and recovery times? a. nitrous oxide b. isoflurane c. halothane d. sevoflurane |
(c) halothane is an inhalent anesthetic associated with the longest induction and recovery times halothane is more soluble in body tissues than isoflurane or sevoflurane. nitrous oxide is an inhalant analgesic not an anesthetic |
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in rabbits, intravenous anesthetics should be injected into which of the following veins? a. femoral b. jugular c. auricular d. cephalic |
in rabbits, intravenous anesthetics should be injected into the (C) auricular veins provides easy access and adequate vessel size |
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the oxygen flow rate necessary to prevent nonbreathing of exhaled gases with an Arye's T piece is a. 0.5 L/min b. 1 L/min c. 2 L/min d. greater than 1.5 times the minute ventilation |
the oxygen flow rate necessary to prevent nonbreathing of exhaled gases with an Arye's T piece is (D) greater than 1.5 times the minute ventilation oxygen flows less than 1/5 times the minute ventilation allows rebreathing of carbon dioxide |
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a half-full tank of nitrous oxide gas has a pressure of a. 375 psi b. 2200 psi c. 750 psi d. 50 psi |
a half-full tank of nitrous oxide gas has a pressure of (c) 750 psi the pressure in the cylinder begins to drop when all fo the liquid nitrous oxide has been vaporized and the gas loses pressure. no change in full pressure (750 psi) takes place until that time |
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when inflating lungs with the thoracic cavity open to the atmosphere, be sure that the pressure reached on the manometer is a. 10 cm h2o b. 20 cm h2o c. 60 cm h2o d. 70 cm h2o |
when inflating lungs with the thoracic cavity open to the atmosphere, be sure that the pressure reached on the manometer is (b) 20 cm h2o adequate inflation of the normal lung requires approximately 20 cm h2o |
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precision vaporizers such as those used for isoflurane work correctly when placed
a. in the circle b. out of the circle c. either in or out of hte circle d. in the high-pressure poriton of the anesthetic system |
precision vaporizers such as those used for isoflurane work correctly when placed (B) out of the circle precision vaporizers produce indicated concentrations of anesthetic agents only when located outside ofthe anesthetic circle system |
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the oxygen flush valve a. allows oxygen to flow into the breathing system without going through the vaporizer b. increases the anesthetic concentration within the circuit c. causes the patient to breathe deeper d. is used primarily to keep the reservoir bag deflated |
the oxygen flush valve (a) allows oxygen to flow into the breathing system without going through the vaporizer the oxygen flush valve allows a burst of oxygen to be added to the breathing system without adding additional amounts of anesthetic agent |
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the minimum fresh gas flow in a semiclosed system is correctly determined by the a. patient's metabolic rate b. patient's respiratory rate c. drugs used for premedicaiton d. size of the soda lime canister |
the minimum fresh gas flow in a semiclosed system is correctly determined by the (a) patient's metabolic rate metabolic rate determines the minimum oxygen requirement |
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all inhalant anesthetic machines should have a. a nitrous oxide flowmeter b. blood pressure monitors c. respiratory monitors d. an anesthetic waste gas scavenging systems |
all inhalant anesthetic machines should have (d) an anesthetic waste gas scavenging systems waste anesthetic gases may pose a health risk to workers who inhale them |
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vaporizers may be classified according to all of the following methods except the
a. method of regulating output b. method of vaporization c. location of the anesthetic circuit d. type of breathing circuit with which they can be used |
vaporizers may be classified according to method of regulating output, method of vaporization, and location in the anesthetic circuit but not according to (d) the type of breathing circuit with which they can be used
all vaporizers can be used with any breathing circuit |
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the volume of the re breathing bag on the anesthetic machine should be at least a. the same as the patient's tidal volume b. three times the patient's tidal volume c. six times the patient's tidal volumej d. nine times the patient's tidal volume |
the volume of the re breathing bag on the anesthetic machine should be at least (b) three times the patient's tidal volume the rebreathing bag should be at least three times the patient's tidal volume to ensure an adequate volume of gases for patient needs |
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pulse oximetry monitoring devices give an estimate of a. respiratory rate b. cardiac output c. percentage of hemoglobin saturation with oxygen in arterial blood d. oxygen content of arterial blood |
pulse oximetry monitoring devices give an estimate of (c) percentage of hemoglobin saturation with oxygen in arterial blood variations in the transmission or reflection of the red-light beam is interpreted by a computer in the pulse oximeter as the percentage of saturation of arterial hemoglobin with oxygen |
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which statement concerning soda lime is least accurate? a. it removes carbon dioxide from the breathing circuit b. its capacity should be at least one to two times the patient's tidal volume c. it can be nonfunctional and still maintain its original color d. it should be changed once a month |
regarding soda lime it removes carbon dioxide from the breathing circuit; its capacity should be at least one to two times the patient's tidal volume; it can be nonfunctional and still maintain its original color but the least accurate statement is (d) it should be changed once a month soda lime should be changed on the basis of hours of use |
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nitrous oxide cylinders are painted what color? a. green b. gray c. blue d. brown |
nitrous oxide cylinders are painted (c) blue
blue is the standard color for medical nitrous oxide cylinders |
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the approximate volume of oxygen in an E cylinder is a. 70 L b. 700 L c. 7000 L d. 2200 L |
the approximate volume of oxygen in an E cylinder is (b) 700 L |
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the approximate volume of oxygen in an H cylinder is a. 70 L b. 700 L c. 7000 L d. 2200 L |
the approximate volume of oxygen in an H cylinder is (c) 7000 L |
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the pressure of gas that enters the flowmeter of an inhalant anesthetic machine is a. 20 to 30 psi b. 50 to 60 psi c. 100 to 120 psi d. 2200 psi |
the pressure of gas that enters the flowmeter of an inhalant anesthetic machine is (B) 50 to 60 psi |
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which statement concerning the pressure manometer in an inhalant anesthetic circuit is least accurate? a. it is calibrated in centimeters of water or millimeters of mercury b. it is helpful when ventilating patients c. it is related to the pressure in the patient's airway d. it measures oxygen partial pressure |
regarding the pressure manometer in an inhalant anesthetic circuit it is calibrate din centimeters of water or millimeters of mercury; it is helpful when ventilating patients; it is related to the pressure in the patient's airway but it is least accurate to say that (d) it measure oxygen partial pressure |
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activated charcoal devices absorb all inhalation agents except a. isoflurane b. halothane c. sevoflurane d. nitrous oxide |
activated charcoal devices absorb isoflurane, halothane, sevoflurane but not (D) nitrous oxide |
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according to the national institute for occupational safety and health (NIOSH), the maximum recommended level of exposure of people to volatile anesthetic agents in the environment is a. 2 ppm b. 4 ppm c. 6 ppm d. 8 ppm |
according to the national institute for occupational safety and health (NIOSH), the maximum recommended level of exposure of people to volatile anesthetic agents in the environment is (a) 2 ppm |
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there is evidence of increased health risks among people exposed chronically to trace levels of inhalant anesthetic gases. all of the following conditions have been associated with such exposure a. abortion and congenital abnormalities b. hepatic and renal disease c. CNS dysfunction d. insomnia |
there is evidence of increased health risks among people exposed chronically to trace levels of inhalant anesthetic gases. all of the following conditions have been associated with such exposure abortion and congenital abnormalities, hepatic and renal disease, and CNS dysfunction but not (D) insomnia |
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when xylazine is used to induce vomiting before surgery a. there is nothing to worry about b. do not place an endotracheal tube c. examine the airway for gastric contents before placing the endotracheal tube d. do not administer atropine |
when xylazine is used to induce vomiting before surgery (c) examine the airway for gastric contents before placing the endotracheal tube |
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after placing, lubricating, and inflating the cuff of the endotracheal tube, you note a sudden decrease in heart rate. the most likely cause is a. low oxygen flow b. too deep a plane of anesthesia c. cuff is underinflated d. cuff may be overinflated, producing vagal induced bradycardia |
after placing, lubricating, and inflating the cuff of the endotracheal tube, you note a sudden decrease in heart rate. the most likely cause is (d) cuff may be overinflated producing vagal induced bradycardia |
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during CPR, 2% lidocaine is used to treat ventricular arrhythmias. a complication that may occur after intravenous infusion of lidocaine is a. bradycardia b. coughing c. tachycardia d. vomiting |
during CPR, 2% lidocaine is used to treat ventricular arrhythmias. a complication that may occur after intravenous infusion of lidocaine is (a) bradycardia |
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intravenous sodium bicarbonate is used to a. treat cardiac arrhythmias b. produce positive inotropic effects c. stimulate respiration d. combat acidosis |
intravenous sodium bicarbonate is used to (D) ombat acidosis |
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doxapram may produce all of the following except a. CNS excitement b. increased ventilation rate c. respiratory alkalosis d. hypoventilation |
doxapram may produce CNS excitement, increased ventilation rate, and respiratory alkalosis but not (D) hypoventilation |
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_____ is commonly used along with ketamine or thiopental as an induction agent for adult horses a. propofol b. phenobarbital c. guaifenesin d. isoflurane |
(C) guaifenesin is commonly used along with ketamine or thiopental as an induction agent for adult horses guaifenesin is a muscle relaxant that is commonly used in horse anesthesia, along with other induction agents. it ensures an excitement-free induction and recovery. masking down with isoflurane is impossible due to lack of ability to control the animal during the exitement stage. long-acting barbiturates such as phenobarbital are not used as induction agents. propofol is not used in horses |
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____ can cause convulsions when administered alone at high doses a. dissociative anesthetics b. barbiturates c. benzodiazepine tranquilizers d. propofol |
(A) dissociative anesthetics can cause convulsions when administered alone at high doses barbiturates, propofol, and benzodiazepine tranquilizers are all anticonvulsant drugs |
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___ is an analgesic and a sedative a. acepromazine b. atropine c. diazepam d. xylazine |
(d) xylazine is an analgesic and a sedative xylazine is an alpha-2 agonist drug with sedative and analgesic properties. atropine is not a sedative. acepromazine and diazepam are not analgesics |
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all of the following drugs predispose the animal to bloat, except a. atropine b. medetomidine c. glycopyrrolate d. midazolam |
atropine, medetomidine, glycopyrrolate predispose animals to bloat but not (d) midazolam midazolam is a benzodiazepine tranquilizer that does not affect GI motility |
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what drugs will not slow the heart rate? a. anticholinergics b. phenothiazine tranquilizers c. alpha-2 agonists d. gas anesthetics |
gas anesthetics, alpha-2 agonists, and phenothiazine tranquilizers will slow heart rate but (a) anticholinergics will not anticholinergic drugs prevent bradycardia by blocking the parasympathetic response. |
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phenothiazine tranquilizers a. cause nausea b increase the seizure threshold c. cause vasoconstriction d. suppress the sympathetic neervous system |
phenothiazine tranquilizers (D) suppress the sympathetic nervous system phenothiazine tranquilizers are antiemetics; they cause vasodilation and decrease the seizure threshold |
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an overdose of barbiturate anesthetic can be appropriately treated with all of the following except a. respiratory stimulant b. fluid therapy c. ventilator support d. an increased in the concentration of isoflurane |
an overdose of barbiturate anesthetic can be appropriately treated with a respiratory stimulant, fluid therapy, or ventilator support but not with (D) an increased in the concentration of isoflurane you would not increase the concentration or delivery of an anesthetic agent such as isoflurane to counteract an overdose of another anesthetic agent |
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the following general anesthetic agents can be delivered to effect except a. isoflurane b. telazole given IM c. ketamine/diazepam IV d. thiopental IV |
isoflurane, ketamine/diazepam IV, thiopental IV can be delivered to effect but not (B) telazole given IM induction agents given by the IM route have to be calculated ont he basis of weight and take 10 to 20 minutes to show effect |
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no more than ____ nitrous oxide should be delivered to an anesthtized patient a. 40% b. 50% c. 60% d. 70% |
no more than (D) 70% nitrous oxide should be delivered to an anesthetized patient you want to deliver no less than 30% oxygen with nitrous oxide to prevent hypoxia |
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never use nitrous oxide a. in a closed anesthesia circuit b. in cats c. with rubber tubes on the anesthesia machine d. with isoflurane |
never use nitrous oxide (a) in a clsoed anethesia circuit as the animal consumes the oxygen in the clsoed system, the nitrous oxide may increase to a dangerous level |
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____ is a concern when recovering a patient from anesthesia if nitrous oxide has been used a. solubility b. diffusion hypoxia c. biotransformation d. inflammation |
(b) diffusion hypoxia is a concern when recovering a patient from anesthesia if nitrous oxide has been used diffusion hypoxia is a phenomenon seen when a patient has been breathing nitrous oxide. when nitrous oxide administration is stopped, the gas floods into the lung alveoli from the bloodstream. if the patient is breathing room air (21% oxygen) the nitrous oxide can dilute the oxygen concentration in alveoli to the point that the patient can become hypoxic. this is called diffusion hypoxia. to prevent it, have the patient breathe 100% oxygen for at least 5 minutes after the nitrous oxide gas has been turned off |
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recovery from barbituarte anesthesia is prolonged by all of the following except a. increased blood glucose concentration b. sight hounds c. liver disease d. elevated cardiac output |
recovery from barbituarte anesthesia is prolonged in sight hounds, by liver disease, increased blood glucose concentration but not (d) elevated cardiac output sight hounds lack fat stores to which barbiturates can redistribute. liver disease slows down the metabolism and excretion of barbiturates. administration of 50% glucose will prolong the anesthetic effect of barbiturates |
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____ may occur because of rapid recovery from isoflurane anesthesia a. diffusion hypoxia b. second gas effect c. biotransformation d. emergence delirium |
(d) emergence may occur because of rapid recovery from isoflurane anesthesia animals will recover very quickly from isoflurane because of its low solubility coefficient. animals that have tranquilizers and other sedatives "on board" recover more slowly and smoothly |
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____ should not be used part of the anesthetic plan if the patient has an intestinal obstruction a. isoflurane b. acepromazine c. nitrous oxide d. atropine |
(c) nitrous oxide should not be used part of the anesthetic plan if the patient has an intestinal obstruction nitrous oxide accumulates in areas of the body where gas is trapped. because the nitrous oxide will diffuse into the area very rapidly the presssure in this area can rapidly increase and cause distention |
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kidney fucntion can be assesed by the folowing preanesthetic screening tests except a. BUN b. ALT c. urinalysis d. creatinine |
kidney function can be assessed by BUN, urinalysis, creatinine but not (b) ALT ALT is a lier enzyme, abnormal ALT levels indicate liver problems |
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the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood can be assessed by measuring all of the following except a. PCV b. hematocrit c. total solid d. hemoglobin |
the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood can be assessed by measuring PCV, hematocrit, or hemoglobin but not (c) total solids total solids are a measure of the protein content of the blood |
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the ideal inhalant anesthetic would have a. low vapor pressure, low MAC, high solubility coefficient b. low vapor pressure, high MAC, low solubility coefficient c. High vapor pressure, low MAC, high solubility coefficient d. low vapor pressure, low MAC, low solubility coefficient |
the ideal inhalant anesthetic would have (d) low vapor pressure, low MAC, low solubility coefficient these characteristics describe an anesthetic that would produce rapid anesthesia at fairly low concentrations |
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what is included as a perservative in halothane? a. thiamylal b. thiopental c. tymol d. theophylline |
(c) thymol is a preservative in halothane |
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which of the following is not normally present in stage IV of general anesthesia? a. cool extremeities b. weak pulse c. constricted pupils d. bradycardia |
in stage IV of general anesthesia you will see cool extremities, weak pulse, and bradycardia but you will not normally see (c) constricted pupils the pupils genearlly dilate in stage IV of general anestehsia |
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which of the following cannot be used to detect blood pressure? a. oscillometer b. doppler c. sphygmomanometer d. pulse oximeter |
an oscillometer, a doppler, and a sphygmomanometer can be used to detect blood pressure but (D) a pulse oximeter cannot pulse oximeters estimate the percentage of arterial hemoglobin oxygen saturaiton |
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what reflex may still be present under a light surgical plane of anesthesia? a. patellar b. palpebral c. pinnal d. pharyngeal |
(b) the palpebral reflex may still be present under a light surgical plane of anesthesia hoqwcwe ir ia loar A RHW Priwnr fwra swpwe |
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the optimal plane of anesthesia for most surgery is a. stage 3, plane 1 b. stage 3, plane 2 c. stage 2, plane 2 d. stage 2, plane 3 |
the optimal plane of anesthesia for most surgery is (b) stage 3, plane 2 this is the moderate plane of surgical anestheisa. plane 1 of stage 3 is light surgical anesthesia and stage 2 is the excitement stage of anesthesia |
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which of the following does not describe a true reflex response? a. blink b. toe pinch c. jaw tone d. ear flick |
blink, toe pinch, and ear flick are true reflex responses but (c) jaw tone is not |
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which of the following is not likely to result in a patient demonstrating stage II of anesthesia? a. masking an animal with an inhalant anesthetic b. injecting an anesthetic agent IV too rapidly c. during recovery, when a premed has not been given d. partial perivascular inejction of a barbiturate while inducing anesethesia |
(b) injecting an anesthetic agent IV too rapidly is not likely to result in a patient demonstrating stage II of anesthsia. rather than stage II of anesthsia (excitement) transiet apnea or cardiovascular compromise is more likely to be seen with too rapid administration of an anesthetic IV. stage II is more likslty to result from inject an anesthetic by IV too slowly |
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ideally in a patient under anesthesia a. the PaO2 should be high and the PaCO2 should be low b. the PaO2 should be high and the PaCO2 should be high c. the PaO2 should be low and the PaCO2 should be low d, the PaO2 should be low and the PaCo2 should be high |
ideally in a patient under anesthesia (a) the PaO2 should be high and the pACO2 should be low a high level of arterial oxygen and a low level of arterial carbon dioxide are safest for an anesthetized patient |
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which of the following drugs is useful in the treatment of prolonged anesthetic recoveries? a. diazepam b. doxapram c. dopamine d. digoxin |
(b) doxapram is useful in the treatment of proonged anesthetic recoveries doxapram is both a respiratory stimulant and an analeptic agent |
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which of the following statements regarding brachycephalic breeds is incorrect a. they may have stenotic nares; b. brachycephalics have a hypoplastic trachea; c. a long, floppy soft palate may occlude the trachea; d. brachycephalics often suffer from laryngospasms; |
regarding brachycephalic breeds: they may have stenotic nares; brachycephalics have a hypoplastic trachea; a long, floppy soft palate may occlude the trachea; however it is inaccurate that brachycephalics often suffer from laryngospasms although they may sound as though they are having laryngospasms because they have sounds on inspiration it is actually due to the excessive tissue in the pharynx |
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the pressure in a full medical O2 tank is a. 500 psi b. 1000 psi c. 1500 psi d. 2000 psi |
the pressure in a full medical O2 tank is (D) 2000 psi |
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for which of the following can a nonprecision vaporizer be safely used? a. halothane b. isoflurane c. sevoflurane d. none of the both |
a nonprecision vaporizer cannot be safely used for halothane, isoflurane, or sevoflurane (making the correct answer (D) none of the above) they all have high vapor pressures, thus they require precision vaporizers |
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hypothermia a. prolongs anesthetic induction b. prlongs anesthetic recovery c. is common in obese patients d. is of no concern in neonatal patients |
hypothermia (B) prolongs anesthetic recovery |
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isoflurane is mainly elimianted from the body by the a. renal system b. gi system c. respiratory system d. hepatic system |
isoflurane is mainly elimianted from the body by the (c) respiratory system isoflurane undergoes very little biotransformation in the body. most of it leaves the body via the respiraotry system |
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which of the following is not a valid reason for adminsitering a preanesthetic medication? a. it reduces the amoutn of general anesthetic for induction b. it may calm an excited animal c. it may reduce possible noxious side effects from general anesthesia d. it increases patietn safety by allowing the animal to stay under general anesthetic for a long time |
valid reasons for adminsitering preanesthetic medicaiton include it reduces the amount of general anesthetic for inductiong; it may calm an excited animal; it may reduce possible noxious side effects from general anesthesia; however (D) it increases patient safety by allowingthe anial to stay under general anesthetic for a long time is not a valid reason prolonged anesthesia does not increase patient safety |
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an epidural agent would be adminsitered where in a dog? a. between l7 and the sacrum b. just cranial to c1 c. immediately caudal to t13 d. directly intot he spinal cord at t1 |
an epidural agent would be adminsitered (a) between L7 and the sacrum in a dog |
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the epidural space is located a. just below the supraspinous ligament b. in the subarachnoid area c. between the dura mater and the vertebrae d. immediately above the spinal cord |
the epidural space is located (c) between the dura mater and the vertebrae |
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the drug used for epidural anesthesia is a. thiopental b. ketamine c. propofol d. lidocaine |
the drug used for epidural anesthesia is (d) lidocaine lidocaine is a local anesthetic drug |
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the barbiturate anesthetic drug that can be used in sight hounds for its ability to produce faster anesthetic recovery is a. ketamine b. thiopental c. pentobarbital d. methohexital |
the barbiturate anesthetic drug that can be used in sight hounds for its ability to produce faster anesthetic recovery is (d) methohexital ketamine is not a barbiturate and thiopental and pentobarbital both cause prolonged recovery in sighthounds |
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sevoflurane is primarily elimianted from the body by a. respiration b. liver metabolism c. feces d. kidney excretion |
sevoflurane is primarily elimianted from the body by (a) respiration 97% of sevoflurane is eliminated via respiration |
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the usual induction vaporizer setting for sevoflurane is a. 2% to 6% b. 1% to 4% c. 5% to 7% d. 1% to 3% |
the usual induction vaporizer setting for sevoflurane is (c) 5% to 7% inductions range for halothan is 1% to 4% and isoflurane is 2% to 6%. sevoflurane is not a very potent anesthetic |
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the usual vaporizer maintenance setting for sevoflurane is a. 0.25% to 1% b. 3.3% to 4% c. 0.5% to 2% d. 1% to 3% |
the usual vaporizer maintenance setting for sevoflurane is (b) 3.3% to 4% maintenance range for halothane is 0.5% to 2% and isoflurane is 1% to 3%. sevoflurane is a less potent anesthetic than the other two drugs |
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which of these is a cyclohexamine agent? a. ketamine b. acetylpromazine c. xylazine d. propofol |
of the drugs listed (a) ketamine is a cyclohexamine agent |
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acepromazine is classified as a(an) a. anticholinergic b. phenothiazine c. benzodiazepine d. thiazine derivative |
acepromazine is classified as a(an) (b) phenothiazine |
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the preanesthetic mix abbreviated BAA contains a. buprenorphine, atropine, acepromazine b. butorphanol, atipamezole, atropine c. buprenorphine, atropine, atipamezole d. butorphaneol, acepromazine, atropine |
the preanesthetic mix abbreviated BAA contains (d) butorphaneol, acepromazine, atropine |
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what drug is an antagonist of medetomidine (domitor)? a. yohimbine b. dopram c. atipamezole d. naloxone |
(c) atipamezole is an antagonist of medetomidine (domitor) yohimbine is an antagonist for xylazine, dopram is a respiratory stimulant and naloxone is an opioid antagonist |
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which of the following is a neuromuscular blocking agent? a. succinylocholine b. lidocaine c. morphine d. yohimbine |
of the drugs listed (A) succinylocholine is a neuromuscular blocking agent lidocaine is a local anesthetic, morphine is an opioid and yohimbine is a reversal agent for xylazine |
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which of the following is the anesthetic with the lowest blood/gas coefficient? a. halothan b. isoflurane c. nitrous oxide d. sevoflurane |
(d) sevoflurane is the anesthetic with the lowest blood/gas coefficient of those listed seveoflurane has the lowest blood/gas coefficient (0.68) of the commonly used anesthetic agents in veterinary medicine. this property allows for rapid induction and recovery of the patient. nitrous oxide is an inhlanat analgesic, not an anesthetic |
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all are traints of sevoflurane except a. low lipid solubility b. smooth recovery c. nonpungent odor d. severe heart depression |
low lipid solubility, smooth recovery, and nonpungent odor are all traits of sevoflurance but (D) severe heart dperession is not sevoflurane has a slight depressive effect on the heart, unlike halothane, which has a severe depressive effect |
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all are controlled substances except a. acepromazine b. ketamine c. fentanyl d. diazepam |
ketamine, fentanyl, and diazepam are all controlled substances but (a) acepromazine is not |
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NSAIDs used to control mild postoperative pain include a. aspirin and xylazine b. diazepam and acetminophen c. carprofen and ketoprofen d. acetylpromazine and ibuprofen |
NSAIDs used to control mild postoperative pain include(c) carpofen and ketoprofen |
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the fundamental principle of administering analgesics before the animal has awareness of pain is a. windup b. preemptive analagesia c. referred pain d. balanced analgesia |
the fundamental principle of administering analgesics before the animal has awareness of pain is (b) preemptive analgesai |
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the drugs that has the longest duration of effect after one injection is a. butorphanol b. morphine c. buprenorphine d. oxymorphone |
the drugs that has the longest duration of effect after one injection is (c) buprenorphine buprenorphine lasts 6 to 12 hours, morphine and oxymorphone 3 to4 hours and butorphanol 1 to 2 hours |
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which of the following anesthetic agents may provide some analgesia in the postoperative period? a. propofol b. sevoflurane c. ketamine d. isoflurane |
of the listed anesthetic agents (c) ketamine may also provide some analgesia in the postoperative period |
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the local anesthetic agent that has the longest duration of action is a. lidocaine b. mepivacaine c. tetracaine d. bupivacaine |
the local anesthetic agent that has the longest duration of action is (d) bupivacaine |
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an alpha-2 agonist that provies sedation, muscle relaxation, and analgesia is a. acepromazine b. xylazine c. diazepam d. ketamine |
an alpha-2 agonist that provies sedation, muscle relaxation, and analgesia is (b) xylazine acepromazine is a phenothiazine sedative, diazepam is a benzothiazine tranquilizer, and keta mine is a dissociative anesthetic |
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a capnograph measures a. central venous pressure b. expired CO2 c. arterial oxygen d. blood pressure |
a capnograph measures (b) expired CO2 |
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following discontinuation of the anesthetic gas, periodic bagging of the patient with pure oxygen is advisable because it a. helps reinflate ollapsed alveoli b. allows a faster recovery c. helps flush anesthetic gas out of the hoses d. allows expired waste gas to be evacuted by the scavenger system |
following discontinuation of the anesthetic gas, periodic bagging of the patient with pure oxygen is advisable because it (a) helps reinflate collapse alveoli periodic bagging with pure oxygen is advisible for as longa sthe recovering patient is connected to the anesthetic machine because it helps reinflate collapse alveoli |
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in the anesthetized surgical patient, pale mucous membranes can indicate all of the following except a. inadequate oxygen levels b. cyanosis c. excessive blood loss d. decreased tissue perfusion |
in an anesthetized patient, pale mucous membranes can indicateinadequate oxygen levels, excessive blood loss, and decreased tissue perfusion but not (b) cyanosis |
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the minimum acceptable heart rate (Beats per minute) for an anesthetized medium-sized dog is a. 40 bpm b. 60 bpm c. 80 bpm d. 100 bpm |
the minimum acceptable heart rate (Beats per minute) for an anesthetized medium-sized dog is (b) 60 bpm |
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it is cause for concern if an anesthetized cat's heart rate falls below a. 160 bpm b. 120 bpm c. 100 bpm d. 140 bpm |
it is cause for concern if an anesthetized cat's heart rate falls below (c) 100 bpm |
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an anesthetist should be aware of the effects of anesthetic agents on the patient. when used as preanesthetics, atropine, and acepromaine can cause all of the following except a. prolapse of nictitating membrane b. respiratory depression c. reduced salivation and tear produciton d. pupil dilation incats |
an anesthetist should be aware of the effects of anesthetic agents on the patient. when used as preanesthetics, atropine, and acepromaine can cause prolapse of nictitating membrane, reduced salivation and tear produciton, and pupil dilation in cats but not (B) respiratory depression phenothiazine drugs such as acepromazine do not cause respiratory depression and are considered to have a wide margin of safety |
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use of an indwelling catheter in an artery to monitor blood pressure is termed a. direct monitoring b. central venous pressure c. indirect monitoring d. peripheral venous pressure |
use of an indwelling catheter in an artery to monitor blood pressure is termed (a) direct monitoring direct monitoring refers to the measuring of arterial blood pressure through use of indwelling catheter placed in the femoral or dorsal pedal artery. indirect monitoring refers to the use of external devices when recording blood pressure |
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during the maintenance period of anesthesia in a dog or cat, respiratory rates lower than ___ breaths/min may indicate excessive anesthetic depth that should be reported to the veterinarian a. 5 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12 |
during the maintenance period of anesthesia in a dog or cat, respiratory rates lower than (b) 8 breaths/min may indicate excessive anesthetic depth that should be reported to the veterinarian |
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some anesthetists routine bag the patient under inhalation anesthesia once every 5 minutes to help prevent a. apnea b. mydriasis c. hypercapnia d. atelectasis |
some anesthetists routine bag the patient under inhalation anesthesia once every 5 minutes to help prevent (d) atelectasis atelectasis is a respiratory condition characterized by partially collapsed alveoli. it may be the result of shallow breathing, which causes a decrease in tidal volume. bagging the patient helps prevent atelectasis by gently forcing air into the patient's breathing passages |
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the cause of true hyperventilation and tachypnea during anesthesia may include all of the following except a. progression from light to moderate anesthesia b. response to metabolic acidosis c. response to a mild surgical stimulus d. presence of pulmonary edema |
the cause of true hyperventilation and tachypnea during anesthesia may include response to metabolic acidosis, response to a mild surgical stimulus, and presence of pulmonary edema but not (a) progression from light to moderate anesthesia hyperventilation and tachypnea may be observed in animals that progress from moderate to light anesthesia |
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a patient's hydration status can be assessed by all of the following except a. respiratory rate b. PCV c. total solids d. skin turgor |
a patient's hydration status can be assessed by PCV, total solids, skin turgor but not (a) respiratory rate |
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charcoal canisters attached to the exhaust of the anesthesia machine a. absorb carbon dioxide b. remove all gas anesthetic agents c. remove all gas anesthetic agents except nitrous oxide d. change color when the canister must be changed |
charcoal canisters attached to the exhaust of the anesthesia machine (c) remove all gas anesthetic agents except nitrous oxide nitrous oxide and carbon dioxide are not absorbed by charcoal. the canister must be changed when it has gained approximatel y20% of its original weight |
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daily preanesthesia check of the anesthesia machine should include all of the following except a. leak testing b. weighing the charcoal canister c. calibrating the vaporizer d. filling the vaporizer with anesthetic gas agent |
daily preanesthesia check of the anesthesia machine should include leak testing, weighing the charcoal canister, filing hte vaporizer with anesthetic gas agent but not (c) calibrating the vaporizer calibration of the vaporizer must be done by professionals |
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when cleaning up a gas anesthetic spill you should do all of the following except a. open windows b. turn on any venting fans c. soak up the agen tin absorbent material d. dispose of it in a paper bag in the trash in the surgical area |
when cleaning up a gas anesthetic spill you should open windows, turn on any venting fans, soak up the agent in absorbent material but not (d) dispose of it in a paper bag in the trash in the surgical area a paper bag will allow the volatile gas aneshtetic to escape into the ambient air. the material used to pick up the spill should be disposed of in a trash can outside of the building |
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which of the following statements about neuromuscular blocking agents is false? a. neuromuscular blocking agents cause profound muscle relaxation b. neuromuscular blocking agents interfere with acetylcholine activity c. neuromuscular blocking agents work at the neuromuscular junction (NMJ) d. neuromuscular blocking agents must be inejcted around the nerve |
regarding neuromuscular blocking agents, they cause profound muscle relaxation, interefere with acetylecholine activity, and work athte neuromuscular junction (NMJ). the false statement is (d) neuromuscular blocking agents must be injected around the nerve local anesthetics are injected around nerves, not neuromusuclar blocking agents |
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when given a neuromuscular blocking agent, the last muscle(S) to become paralyzed is/are the a. muscles ofthe tail b. diaphragm c. abdomina muscles d. muscle in to which the drug was injected |
when given a neuromuscular blocking agent, the last muscle(S) to become paralyzed is/are the (b) diaphragm the sequence of muscle relaxation after IV injection is oculmotor, palpebral, facial, tongue and pharynx, jaw and tail, limbs, pelvic, caudal abdominal, cranial abdominal, intercostal, larynx, and diaphragm |
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neuromuscular blocking agents a. cause increased release of inhibitory neurotransmitters b. interfere with transmission of the electrical impulse along the nerve fiber c. disrupt nerve impulse transmission at the NMJ d. block catecholamine |
neuromuscular blocking agents (c) disrupt nerve impulse transmission at the NMJ neuromuscular blocking agents intefere with nicotinic neuromuscular transmission by either competing with acetylcholine at the receptor site or by blocking acetylcholine at the receptor site |
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local anesthetics a. cause increased release of inhibitory neurotransmitters b. interfere with transmission of the impulse along the nerve fiber c. disrupt nerve impulse transmission at the NMJ d. block catecholamine release |
local anesthetics (b) interfere with transmission of the impulse along the nerve fiber local anesthetics prevent nerve cell depolarization thus stopping the conduction of nerve impulses |
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the MAC of an anesthetic agent will change for all of the following except a. preanesthetic drug administration b. patient's age c. patient's breed d. anemia |
the MAC of an anesthetic agent will change due to preanesthetic drug administration, patient's age, and due to anemia but not becauase of (C) patient's breed preanesthetic drug administration lwoers the amount of anesthetic gas needed to produce anethesia. increased age and debilitation such as anemia will also lower the amount of anesthetic gas needed to produce anesthesia |
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inhalant anesthetics with low ____ have short induction and recovery periods a. toxicity b. solubility coefficient c. vapor pressure d. biotransformation |
inhalant anesthetics with low (b) solubility coefficient have short induction and recovery periods the gas anesthetic solubility coefficient and potency determine the rapidity onset and recovery |
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highly volatile anesthetics are best suited for a. IV administration b. precision vaporizers c. draw-over vaporizers d. open-drop or cone system |
highly volatile anesthetics are best suited for (b) precision vaporizers precision vaporizers limit the concentration of gas vapors from highly volatile anesthetics to lower nontoxic levels. volatile anesthetics are never administered IV |
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recovery from a volatile anesthetic will be prolonged because of all of the following exceptw hen a. the animal is under several hours b. a high percent of the anesthetic is biotransformed c. the solubility coefficient is high d. the MAC is high |
recovery from a volatile anesthetic will be prolonged because the animal is under for sevedral hours, a high percent of anesthetic is biotransformed, or the solubility coefficient is high but not when (D) the MAC is high the longer an animal is under anestheisa, the more volatile anestheti will be stored in tissues such as fat. the higher the percentage of biotransformation, the longer it takes to eliminate teh anesthetic because of the limitation of the metabolism. the higher the solubility coefficient, the longer it takes to induce and recvoer |
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which volatile anesthetic agent is most potent? a. one with a 1 MAC value of 0.59 b. one with a 1 MAC value of 1.2 c. one with a 1 MAC value of 5.3 d. one with a 1 MAC value of 0.09 |
the most potent volatile anesthetic agent is (d) one with a 1 MAC value of 0.09 the anesthetic with the lowest MAC is the most potent |
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a 10 yr old dog has been anesthetized for removal of a skin tumor and is now maintained on 2% isoflurane. the anesthetist oberves that its respirations are 8/min and shallow, its heart rate is 80 beats/min its pupils are centrally positioned, its jaw tone is slack and all of its relfexes are absent. what should be your response or actions to the condition of the his animal? a. it is adequately anesthetized; no adjustments are ncessary b. you should try to stimulate the animal, to lighten the plane of anesthesia c. you should notify the veterinarian of the dog's condition but not be alarmed d. you should reduce the vaporizer setting ot 1.5% isoflurane and continue to monitor for signs of decreased depth |
a 10 yr old dog has been anesthetized for removal of a skin tumor and is now maintained on 2% isoflurane. the anesthetist oberves that its respirations are 8/min and shallow, its heart rate is 80 beats/min its pupils are centrally positioned, its jaw tone is slack and all of its relfexes are absent. you should (d) reduce the vaporizer settings to 1.5% isoflurane and continue to monitor for signs of decreased depth the anesthetic plane is probably too deep for the given procedure. the age of the animal is also a risk factor. you should try to lighten the plane of anesthesia by adjusting the vaporizer settings to 1.5% and watch for signs of lightening such as increased heart rate and respiratory rate, lacrimation, sweat on the foot pads, and movement. maintain anesthesia on a setting that will permit the surgery without pain |
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a dog received intramuscularly the correct dose of xylazine. second-degree heart block and bradycardia developed. based on the most common cause of this adverse reaction what would be the best therapy? a. no treatment is required b. yohimbine c. glycopyrrolate d. doxapram |
a dog received intramuscularly the correct dose of xylazine. second-degree heart block and bradycardia developed. based on the most common cause of this adverse reaction the best therapy would be (c) glycopyrrolate the anticholinergic effects of glycopyrrolate block the vagal-induced bradycardia and second-degree heart block commonly associated with xylazine |
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an abnormally elevated central venous pressure that develops during anesthesia and surgery in an animal receiving intravenous fluids may indicate a. intravenouss fluid overload b. increased cardiac output c. dehydration d. liver disease |
an abnormally elevated central venous pressure that develops during anesthesia and surgery in an animal receiving intravenous fluids may indicate (a) intravenous fluid overload |
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a 1:10,000 dilution of epinephrine contains how much epinephrine per milliliter? a. 10 mg b. 0.01 mg c. 1 mg d. 0.1 mg |
a 1:10,000 dilution of epinephrine contains 0.1 mg of epinephrine per milliliter 1/10,000 = 0.01/100 = 0.01% = 0.1 mg/ml |
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mean arterial blood pressure of the isoflurane-anesthetized horse a. can be used as an indication of anesthetic depth b. is not important c. is not practical to monitor d. is important for long procedures only |
mean arterial blood pressure of the isoflurane-anesthetized horse (a) can be used as an indication of anesthetic depth arterial pressure in the horse is more acccurate indicator of anesthetic depth than heart rate |
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surgical evaluation of a dog hit by a car revealed by a PCV of 18% and plasma protein below 2.5 g/dl. all of the following are true except a. patient is predisposed to pulmonary edema b. fluid administration rates should be watched closely c. patient should receive plasma or whole blood before surgery d. patient should not receive fluid before surgery |
surgical evaluation of a dog hit by a car revealed by a PCV of 18% and plasma protein below 2.5 g/dl. this patient is predisposed to pulmonary edema, fluid administration rates should be watched closely, and the patient should receive plasma or whole blood before surgery but it is false that (D) the patient should not receive fluid before surgery the patient needs fluids to help compensate for blood loss indicated by its low PCV and plasma protein values |
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the estimated blood volume in dogs is a. 25 ml/kg b. 50 ml/kg c. 75 ml/kg d. 100 ml/kg |
the estimated blood volume in dogs is (c) 75 ml/kg |
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while monitoring a horse during inhalation anesthetsia, you note that the heart rate suddenly increases to 80 beats/min. your most appropriate response is to a. increase the delivered anesthetic concentration b. administer intravenously 10 mg of butorphanol c. evaluate the peripheral pulse, mucous membranes, and other vital organ function before responding d. not be concerned because the hors eis not moving |
while monitoring a horse during inhalation anesthetsia, you note that the heart rate suddenly increases to 80 beats/min. your most appropriate response is to (c) evaluate the peripheral pulse, mucous membranes, and other vital organ function before responding |
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while monitoring a horse receiving oxygen at the rate of 8 L/min, isoflurane 2.5%, and fluids at the rate of 10 ml/kg/hr, you note that the blood pressure suddenly falls below 60 mm Hg, and the peripheral pulse becomes weak. your first response should be to a. administer a vasoactive agent b. lower the isoflurane concentration and increase fluid delivery rate c. turn down the oxygen flow d. not be concerned |
while monitoring a horse receiving oxygen at the rate of 8 L/min, isoflurane 2.5%, and fluids at the rate of 10 ml/kg/hr, you note that the blood pressure suddenly falls below 60 mm Hg, and the peripheral pulse becomes weak. your first response should be to (b) lower the isoflurane concentration and increase fluid delivery rate falling blood pressure indicates increasing depth of anesthesia in the horse. lowering the isoflurane concentration will lighten the anesthetic depth. increasing the fluiid delivery rate will help increase the blood pressure |
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which inhalant anesthetic drug is biotransformed to the greatest extent in the animal body? a. isoflurane b. halothane c. sevoflurane d. nitrous oxide |
(d) nitrous oxide is the inhalant anesthetic drug that is biotransformed to the greatest extent in the animal body of those listed halothane is biotransformed to a much greater extent than isoflurane or sevoflurane. nitrous oxide is an inhalant analgesic, not an anesthetic |
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all of the following cross the placental barrier in significant amounts except a. acepromazine b. diazepam c. isoflurane d. neuromuscular blocking agents |
acepromazine, diazepam, and isoflurane all cross the placental barrier in significant amounts but (d) neuromuscular blocking agents do not neuromuscular-blocking agents are highly ionized and have high molecular weights, minimizing placental transfer |
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at normal doses, what effect does atropine have on the heart rate? a. decrease b. no effect c. increases d. prevents a decrease |
at normal doses, atropine (d) prevents a decrease in heart rate atropine is often used to prevent drug or parasympathetic nervous system-induced bradycardia in anesthetized animals |
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the advantage of xylazine over acepromazine is that it a. does not cause cardiac arrhythmias b. produces a short period of analgesia c. has antiemetic properties d. is an antiinflammatory |
the advantage of xylazine over acepromazine is that it (b) produces a short period of analgesia acepromazine has no analgesic effect |
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routine use of atropine in horses should be avoided because it may a. cause colic b. slow the heart rate c. cause excitement d. increase salivaiton |
routine use of atropine in horses should be avoided because it may (a) cause colic the anticholinergic effects of atropine on the intestinal tract of horses may include ileus, intestinal distention and colic. atropine use in horses should be limited to treatment of bradycardia caused by increases in vagal tone |
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which drug should be avoided in the stallion because it may cause permanent prolapse of the penis? a. glycopyrrolate b. acepromazine c. xylazine d. diazepam |
(b) acepromazine should be avoided in the stallion because it may cause permanent prolapse of the penis the phenothiazine tranquilizers all have the potential to produce paralysis of the penis in stallions |
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depressant preanesthetic medications may have what effect on the anesthesia procedure? a. shorten the recovery time b. prolong the recovery time c. leave the recovery time unaltered d. necesitate increasing the dose of induction agent |
depressant preanesthetic medications may (b) prolong recovery time the addition of depressant premedication to an anesthetic protocol may prolong the recovery time because of anesthetic drug enhancement |
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diazepam is used to produce a. analgesia b. hypnosis c. muscle relaxation d. vomiting |
diazepam is used to produce (c) muscle relaxation diazepam does not have analgesic, hypnotic, or emetic properties |
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use of nitrous oxide in anethesia a. increases the amount of inhalation anesthetic required b. decreases the amount of inhalation anesthetic requried c. slows the induction process d. has no effect on the time or amount of anesthetic required |
use of nitrous oxide in anethesia (b) decreases the amount of inhalation anesthetic required because nitrous oxide is an inhalant analgesic, when it is used along with potent inhalant anesthestic drugs, it lowers levels of the more potent drugs to be used ot achieve appropriate levels of general anesthesia |
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detomidine is approved for use in a. dogs b.cats c. horses d. cattle |
detomidine is approved for use in (c) horses although only approved for use in horses, detomidine is used clinically in other species |
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diazepam is considered to be a good choice in patients when which body system is compromised? a. hepatic b. renal c. cardiovascular d. all body system |
diazepam is considered to be a good choice in patients when the (C) cardiovascular system is compromised diazepam is an ideal drug for use in the cardiovascular-compromised patient. in patients with impaired renal or hepatic function, recovery may be significantly prolonged as a result of the metabolic requirements of diazepam |
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int he united states, xylazine is not approved for use in a. dogs b. cats c. horses d. cattle |
int he united states, xylazine is not approved for use in (d) cattle although not approved for use in cattle, xylazine is sometimes used clinically in that species |
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guaifenesin is most often sued in horses and cattle to provide a. analgesia b. muscle relaxaiton c. anesthesia d. diuresis |
guaifenesin is most often sued in horses and cattle to provide (b) muscle relxation guaifenesin is a muscle relaxant drug used along with other general anesthetics in horses and cattle |
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which drug is the most potent sedative? a. xylazine b. detomidine c. acepromazine d. diazepam |
of the drugs listed (b) detomidine is the most potent sedative on a volume-per-volume basis |
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which drug is most likely to cause hypotension in normal doses? a. diazepam b. butorphanol c. acepromazine d. flunixin meglumine |
of the drugs listed (c) acepromazine is most likely to cause hypotension in normal doses acepromazine is an alpha blocker with significant potential to produce hypotension; however, this is rarely a problem in healthy, normovolemic patients |
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epidural techniques are used in many species but the primary disadvantage in animals is a. high cost b. difficulty of administration c. poor analgesia d. movement of the patient |
epidural techniques are used in many species but the primary disadvantage in animals is (d) movement of the patient althought epidural anesthetics are used to provide analgesia, patient movement is still of ocncern and prevents their use for many surgical procedures |
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which inhalant anesthetic drug is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias in dogs? a. isoflurane b. halothane c. sevoflurane d. nitrous oxide |
of the drugs listed (B) halothane is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias in dogs halothane sensitizies the myocardium to catecholamines such as epinephrine, which may lead to arrhthmias. isoflurane and sevoflurane do not sensitize the myocardium to catecholamines. nitrous oxide has little effect on cardiac funtion and is an inhalant analgesic, not an anesthetic |
