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201 Cards in this Set
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The most appropriate solution to use as an ear cleaner in an animal that does not have an intact tympanum is a. commercial ceruminolytic d. dilute povidone-iodine c. physiologic saline d. dilute chlorhexidine |
The most appropriate solution to use as an ear cleaner in an animal that does not have an intact tympanum is (c) physiologic saline If the tympanic membrane is rupture or a rupture is suspected, it would be harmful to the animal to place any type of antispetic or cleaner into the tympanic cavity |
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what is the average length of gestation for a dog? a. 70 days b. 67 days c. 63 days c. 59 days |
The average length of gestation for a dog is 63 days |
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the most critical factor to expedient healing of decubital sores is a. regular rotation of the patient b. application of antibiotics to prevent infection c. administration of sedatives to keep the animal still d. exposure to air so that the area remains dry |
the most critical factor to expedient healing of decubital sores is (d) exposure to air so that the area remains dry once decubital sores are present they should be kept dry because a moist environment only aids secondary bacterial infections and not healing |
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to calculate the quantity of food to administer at one feeding to a 2-day-old orphaned puppy you would multiply the body weight in grams by a. 5% b. 10% c. 25% d. 50% |
To calculate the quantity of food to administer at one feeding to a 2-day-old orphaned puppy you would multiply the body weight in grams by (A) 5% The question asks for the quantity at one feeding, not over 24 hours, therefore 5% |
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Sinus arrhythmia occurs when the a. heart and and pulse rates increase with inspiration and expiration b. heart and pulse rates decrease with inspiration and expiration c. heart and pulse rates increase with inspiration and decrease with expiration d. heart and pulse rates decrease with inspiration and increase with expiration |
Sinus arrhythmia occurs when the (c) heart and pulse rates increase with inspiration and decrease with expiration |
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If you are syringe-feeding a patient, the most appropriate position of the head would be a. a natural position b. flexed upward 90 degrees c. turned 90 degrees to one side d. hanging over the edge of the table |
if you are syringe-feeding a patient, the most appropriate position of the head would be (A) a natural position aspiration pneumonia is a risk with syringe feeding but this risk can be minimized by ensuring that the animal's head is in a natural position and that the animal swallows each bolus |
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The cages of immunocompromised animals should be cleaned a. before cleaning the general nursing wards b. after cleaning the general nursing wards c. only when they are dirty d. at least 3 times a day |
the cages of immunocompromised animals should be cleaned (A) before cleaning the general nursing wards immunocompromised animals are highly susceptible to contracting diseases because of their altered immune state, therefore first cleaning the animals' cages and following good isolation procedure will minimize the risk to these already at-risk patients |
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Which of the following is not a symptom of hypostatic pneumonia? a. fast and frequent shallow breathing b. increased respiratory effort c. moist noises when breathing d. nonproductive cough |
Symptoms of hypostatic pneumonia include fast and frequent shallow breathing, increased respiratory effort, and moist noises when breathing meaning (d) nonproductive cough is not a symptom of hypostatic pneumonia . Hypostatic pneumonia is the pooling of blood and a consquent decrease in the viability of the dependent lung. Most at risk are the old and sick patients in lateral recumbency. |
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Which of the following is the least desirable method of warming a recumbent patient? a. instant-heat pads b. electric heating pads c. wrapped hot water bottles d. infrared lamps |
the least desirable method of warming a recumbent patient is (b) electric heating pads electrical heating pads are not recommended unless the animal is to be under constant, dedicated supervision because burns from pressure points and electrical fluctuations may occur |
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Causing an animal to lie on its side with pressure exerted its muscles and nerves by a series of carefully placed and tightened ropes is called a. casting b. chuting c. haltering d. hog typing |
Causing an animal to lie on its side with pressure exerted its muscles and nerves by a series of carefully placed and tightened ropes is called (a) casting Casting is a means of restraint by applying ropes to pull the animal down on its side and is used mainly when a chute is not available |
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From what area is it best to approach a horse? a. rear b. directly in the front c. at a 45 degree angle from the left shoulder d. any direction is okay |
it is best to approach a horse (c) at a 45 degree angle from the left should because this is what most horses are accustomed to |
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What is the basic tool of restraint for the horse? a. leg hobbles b. nose twitch c. casting d. halter |
The basic tool of restraint for the horse is the (D) halter a halter is the most common horse restraint and the first tool usually used; the others may be used if more restraint is needed to perform a procedure |
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What are the normal temperature, pulse rate, and respiration rate of a dog? a. 101.5 degrees Fahrenheit, 90/min, 20/min b. 101.5 degrees Fahrenheit, 180/min, 25/min c. 100 degrees Fahrenheit, 90/min, 20/min d. 100 degrees Fahrenheit, 180/min, 25/min |
The answer is (A) 101.5 degrees fahrenheit, 90/min, 20/min The normal temperature for a dog is around 101.5 degrees Fahrenheit but ranges from 101-102.5 The normal pulse a dog is around 90/min but depends on the size and age of the dog. The normal respiration rate of a dog is around 20/min but ranges from 10-30 bpm |
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The abbreviation meaning "treatment" is a. q b. prn c. Rx d. dd |
The abbreviation meaning "treatment" is (C) Rx |
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The abbreviation meaning "divided" is a. q b. prn c. Rx d. dd |
The abbreviation meaning "divided" is (d) dd |
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The abbreviation meaning "every" is a. q b. prn c. Rx d. dd |
The abbreviation meaning "every" is (a) q |
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The abbreviation meaning "as needed" is a. q b. prn c. Rx d. dd |
The abbreviation meaning "as needed" is (B) prn |
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The higher the hematocrit and total protein values, the greater the degree of a. anemia b. hypoglycemia c. dehydration d. hyperkalemia |
The higher the hematocrit and total protein values, the greater the degree of (c) dehydration |
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What is the approximate degree of dehydration in a patient that shows increased skin turgor, prolonged capillary refill time, dry mucous membranes, and eyes sunken into the orbits? a. 0.5% to 1% b. 10% to 12% c. 2% to 3% d. 5% to 6% |
the approximate degree of dehydration in a patient that shows increased skin turgor, prolonged capillary refill time, dry mucous membranes, and eyes sunken into the orbits is (B) 10% to 12% |
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When using a mercury thermometer to measure rectal temperature, what is the minimum time the thermometer should be left in the rectum? a. 10 seconds b. 60 seconds c. 2 minutes d. 5 minutes |
When using a mercury thermometer to measure rectal temperature, the minimum time the thermometer should be left in the rectum for (b) 60 seconds 60 seconds is the minimum or until the mercury stops rising |
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The blood smear of a normal dog should have what percentage of eosinophils? a. 60 to 77% b. 35 to 75% c. 2 to 10% d. 12 to 30% |
The blood smear of a normal dog should have (C) 2% to 10% eosinophils |
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The blood smear of a normal dog should have what percentage of lymphocytes? a. 12 to 30% b. 60 to 70% c. 2 to 8% d. 25 to 60% |
The blood smear of a normal dog should have (a) 12% to 30% lymphocytes |
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The PCV of a normal adult dog is a. 10% to 21% b. 37% to 55% c. 10 to 21 g/dl d. 35 to 55 g/dl |
The PCV of a normal adult dog is (B) 37% to 55% |
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The total white blood cell count of a normal adult dog is a. 1000 to 3000/mcl b. 30000 to 50000/mcl c. 4000 to 10000/mcl d. 6000 to 17000/mcl |
The total white blood cell count of a normal adult dog is (D) 6000 to 17000/mcl |
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The hemoglobin level of a normal adult dog is a. 12% to 18% b. 12 to 18 g/dl c. 100 to 120 g/dl d. 20% to 80% |
The hemoglobin level of a normal adult dog is (b) 12 to 18 g/dl |
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The total RBC count of a normal dog is a. 5.5 to 8.5 x 10^6/mcl b. 3000 to 5000/mcl c. 1.1 to 6.4 x 10^6/mcl d. 10000 to 20000/mcl |
The total RBC count of a normal dog is (a) 5.5 to 8.5 x 10^6/mcl |
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The blood urea nitrogen of a normal dog is a. 10 to 28 mg/dl b. 1 to 2 mg/dl c. 10% to 28% d. 1% to 2% |
The blood urea nitrogen of a normal dog is (a) 10 to 28 mg/dl |
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The serum creatinine level of a normal dog is a. 55% to 93% b. 1 to 2 mg/dl c. 10 to 30 mg/dl d. 1% to 2% |
The serum creatinine level of a normal dog is (b) 1 to 2 mg/dl |
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The blood glucose level of a normal dog is a. 45 to 60 mg/dl b. 1000 to 2000 mg/dl c. 70 to 100 mg/dl d. 10 to 30 g/dl |
The blood glucose level of a normal dog is (a) 45 to 70 mg/dl |
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abdominal palpation in large animals is correctly termed a. percussion b,ileus c. ballottement d. tympany |
abdominal palpation in large animals is correctly termed (c) ballottement ballottement is usually performed in large animals using the fist |
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cystocentesis is contraindicated in all of the following except a. bleeding disorder b. periparturient dams c. pyometra d. bladder tumors |
cystocentesis is contraindicated in cases of bleeding disorders, pyometra, and bladder tumors but not in (B) periparturient dams all of the other choices have inherent risks associated with them because of the status of the animal; a pregnant dog or cat may easily have a cystocentesis because this poses no risk to her or the fetuses |
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the blood group of canines that is synonymous with the term universal donor is a. DEA 1.1 negative b. DEA 1.1 postive c. DEA 3 positive d. DEA 3 negative |
the blood group of canines that is synonymous with the term universal donor is (a) DEA 1.1 negative |
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analgesia should be provided by a regimen that a. requires a specified time to elapse between administrations b. requires an interval of time to elapse that allows the animal to demostrate teh current level of pain c. provides one administration of analgesic agent every 24 hours d. administers the analgesic before the onset of anticipated pain returns |
analgesia should be provided by a regimen that (d) administers the analgesic before the onset of anticipated pain returns pain relief is a basic right of any animals. healing, whether it is medical or surgical, is greatly facilitated by the preemptive alleviation of painful stimuli |
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hospitalized patients that require nutritional support are those that have lost ___ of their body weight a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20% |
hospitalized patients that require nutritional support are those that have lost (B) 10% of their body weight |
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the vein of choice for blood sampling in horses is the a. cephalic vein b. saphenous vein c. jugular vein d. coccygeal vein |
the vein of choice for blood sampling in horses is the (c) jugular vein routine blood samplings of horses is nearly always done from a jugular vein |
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a significant difference in Im injections in small animals compared to large animals is a. the muscles for injection are not comparable b. the needle is first inserted into large animals before the syringe is attached c. there is no preswabbing with antiseptic d. IM injections are avoided inlarge animals if possible |
a significant difference in Im injections in small animals compared to large animals is (B) the needle is first inserted into large animals before the syringe is attached in large animal IM injections the needle is inserted first into the tissue without being attached to the syringe in case the animal kicks or reacts adversely |
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when applying a tendon support bandage on a horse's front leg, the outer wrap may be secured by a. tucking the end of the roll of bandage into the top of the wrapped bandage b. using adhesive tape and ensuring that the end of the tape overlaps c. using adhesive tap e and ensuring that the ends of the tape do not overlap d. using a piece of twine wrapped completelya round the leg |
when applying a tendon support bandage on a horse's front leg, the outer wrap may be secured by (c) using adhesive tape and ensuring that the ends of the tape do not overlap adheisve tape is perfectly acceptable to secure the bandage. however because it has no elasticity to it (no give) if it completes 360 degrees, it can make a pressure point on the caudal (and to a lesser degree the cranial) aspect of the bandage |
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rumen inoculation is a. introducing bacteria percutaenously to destroy a population explosion of ruminal microorganisms b. drenching an antibiotic solution via orogastric tube into the rumen c. siphoning ruminal contents from a healthy animal and introducing them into the rumen of a debilitated animal d. vaccinating against the many enteric pathogens of ruminents |
rumen inoculation is (c) siphoning ruminal contents from a healthy animal and introducing them into the rumen of a debilitated animal |
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which of the following sites should not be used for blood sampling in rabbits? a. cephalic vein b. jugular vein c. medial saphenous vein d. ear vein |
for blood sampling in rabbits you can use the cephalic vein, jugular vein, and ear vein but you should not use the (C) medial saphenous vein medial saphenous vein is generally not a vein used for sampling in any species but in the rabbit is is difficult because the animal resists the restraint required. when other veins are still intact they should always be chosen first |
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in the avian species, intraosseous fluid administration is performed by using the a. proximal humerus b. distal radius c. distal femur d. proximal tibia |
in the avian species, intraosseous fluid administration is performed by using the (d) proximal tibia the proximal tibia bone is used for intraosseous adminsitration of fluids and some medications |
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which phase of the electrocardiogram (ECG) represents the depolarization of the atria? a. P wave b. T wave c. P-R interval d. Q-T interval |
the (a) P wave is the phase of the ECG that represents depolarization of the atria the P wave is the first deflection, representing excitation or depolarization of the atria |
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which phase of the ECG represents the repolarization phase of the ventricles? a. P wave b. T wave c. P-R interval d. Q-T interval |
the (B) T wave is the phase of the ECG that represents the repolarization phase of the ventricles the t wave results from recovery or repolarization of the ventricles |
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the principal intracellualr cation that is commonly measured in a blood chemistry profile that contributes to maintaining the acid-base balance is a. sodium b. chloride c. potassium d. bicarbonate |
the principal intracellualr cation that is commonly measured in a blood chemistry profile that contributes to maintaining the acid-base balance is (C) potassium ptassium is an intracellular cation and there is no constancy of relationships between extracellular and intracellular potassium. with acidosis cells tend to take in hydrogen and given up potassium |
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when a healthy animal's airway is obstructed, thereby decreasing its ability to properly ventilate, the most likely condition that will result is a. respiratory acidosis b. respiratory alkalosis c. metabolic acidosis d. metabolic alkalosis |
when a healthy animal's airway is obstructed, thereby decreasing its ability to properly ventilate, the most likely condition that will result is (a) respiratory acidosis the animal becomes acidotic because of problems with respiration (poor ventilation) that causes an increase in blood PCO2 with a resulting decrease in blood pH (acidosis) |
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with reference to the eyes, the abbreviation OD (oculus dexter) refers to a. both eyes b. left eye c. right eye d. one eye at a time |
with reference to the eyes, the abbreviation OD (oculus dexter) refers to (c) right eye OS means left eye, OU means both eyes |
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when planning the appropriate nutritional treatment for a patient, the caloric intake should a. meet the metabolic requirements of the patient b. slightly exceed the metabolic requirements of the patient c. be slightly less than the metabolic requirements of the patients d. greatly exceed the metabolic requirements of the patient |
when planning the appropriate nutritional treatment for a patient, the caloric intake should (b) slightly exceed the metabolic requirements of the patient metabolic requirements of the patient should be exceeded to give the patient an energy reserve to fight the current disease but excessive calories would increase the stress on the systems to dispose of the excess and may lead to obesity |
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a pharyngostomy tube is used when a patient is a. dyspneic b. anemic c. anuric d. anorexic |
a pharyngostomy tube is used when a patient is (d) anorexic pharyngostomy tubes are used to force-feed a patient |
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the function of anal glands is to a. produce a scented, oily, sweaty material that serves no function b. produce sweat that helps lower body temperature c. produce an oil substance ot lubricate feces d. produce a scented material to mark territory |
the function of anal glands is to (d) produce a scented material to mark territory the anal sacs store secretions that are produced by the anal gland |
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ninety-five percent of the circulating antibodies in puppies younger than 48 hours old come from the a. colostrum b. placenta c. puppies' bone marrow d. environment |
ninety-five percent of the circulating antibodies in puppies younger than 48 hours old come from the (A) colostrum the colosturm is a major source of antibodies in puppies |
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for canine distemper and hepatitis, the most commonly recommended time for the last vaccine a puppy series is at a. 10 weeks of age b. 8 weeks of age c. 16 weeks of age d. 24 weeks of age |
for canine distemper and hepatitis, the most commonly recommended time for the last vaccine a puppy series is at (c) 16 weeks of age most vaccine manufacturers recommend a final vaccination for canine distemper and hepatitis at 16 weeks to prevent maternal antibody interference |
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which statement about immunizations is true? a. older animals have more effective immune systems and thus require less frequent vaccinations b. young animals have passive immunity making vaccination unnecessary for the frist year of life c. older animals can have reduced immune status and may require more frequent vaccination d. young animals should be given only killed vaccines because of the passive immunity they get from their mothers |
regarding immunizations (c) older animals can have reduced immune status and may require more frequent vaccinations older animals often have compromised immune systems and vaccine procedures should not be reduced unless titers are taken to establish immune status |
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how long does a modified live vaccine remain effective after it is mixed, if left at room temperature? a. 2 to 3 hours b. 24 hours c. several days d. 1 hour |
a modified live vaccine remains effective for (d) 1 hour after it is mixed if left at room temperature mixed vaccines are viable for 1 hour at room temperature if they are kept in the dark away from ultraviolet light |
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when gavage is used to feed young puppies, vomiting immediately following the feeding is usually the result of a. not giving enough formula b. leaving some formula in the gavage tube c. giving too much formula and overextending the stomach d. holding the puppy in the wrong position while gavage is given |
when gavage is used to feed young puppies, vomiting immediately following the feeding is usually the result of (c) giving too much formula and overextending the stomach overextension of the stomach results in vomitation immediately following gavage |
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the feeding tube used in gavage is measured to equal a distance from the a. mouth to the base of the trachea b. lips to the eighth rib c. lips to the last lumbar vertebra d. lips to the end of the duodenum |
the feeding tube used in gavage is measured to equal a distance from the (b) lips to the eighth rib this distance places the tip of the feeding tube in the stomach |
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the stomach capacity of puppies and kittens is approximately a. 20 ml/kg b. 30 ml/kg c. 1 ml/kg d. 9 ml/kg |
the stomach capacity of puppies and kittens is approximately (d) 9 ml/kg most formula amounts are calculated based on a volume of 9 ml/kg stomach capacity for puppies and kittens |
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puppies are expected to gain a. 50% of their birth weight in the first week of life b. 10 to 20% of their birth weight in the first week of life c. 1 to 2 lb daily for the first week of life d. 1 to 2 lb in the first weeks of life |
puppies are expected to gain (b) 10 to 20% of their birth weight in the frist week of life |
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a glass rectal thermometer has a. no constriction in the mercury to interfere with temperature taking b. an elongated bulb and a mercury constriction c. a round blulb and a mercury constriction d. a round bulb with no mercury constriction |
a glass rectal thermometer has (c) a round bulb and a mercury constriction rectal thermometers have a round bulb and a mercury constriction to stop the mercury from falling until the thermometer can be read |
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When taking a body temperature via the ear or the axilla, the temperature obtained is usually assumed to be a. 10 degrees lower than the rectal temperature b. 2 degrees lower than the rectal temperature c. the same as the rectal temperature d. of no relation to the rectal temperature |
When taking a body temperature via the ear or the axilla, the temperature obtained is usually assumed to be (b) 2 degrees lower than the rectal temperature |
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for doppler assessment of the pulse rate, the most commonly used arteries are the a. femoral and plantar b. palmar and plantar c. saphenous and plantar d. cephalic and palmar |
for doppler assessment of the pulse rate, the most commonly used arteries are the (b) palmar and plantar palmar and plantar arteries are convenient to tape the doppler sensors to and because these vessels are close to the surface they give good arterial sounds |
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besides skin tenting, one of the best physical signs to access fluid status is a. heart rate b. respiration c. pulse d. weight |
besides skin tenting, one of the best physical signs to access fluid status is (d) weight weight can give a rough assesment of fluids retained |
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which statement about intraperitoneal fluid therapy is true? a. it is not routinely used because of the slow rate of absorption b. it is commonly used in veterinary practice whena vein cannot be accessed c. it is used for shock therapy when there is venous collapse d. it is used to administer nutrients and fluids because of its closeness to the stomach and intestines |
regarding intraperitoneal fluid therapy (a) it is not routinely used because of the slow rate of absorption intraperitoneal route for fluid therapy is the poorest and slowest route for absorption and the route most likely to result in secondary medical problems |
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during fluid therapy, a low plasma protein combined with a decreased cardiac rate can easily result in a. cardiac arrest b. rapid rehydration and recovery from shock c. pulmonary edema d. seizures |
during fluid therapy, a low plasma protein combined with a decreased cardiac rate can easily result in (c) pulmonary edema low osmotic pressure in the plasma combined with slow movement of the blood results in pooling of the blood in the lungs and pulmonary edema |
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which statement about central venous pressure (CVP) is true a. CVP is an indirect method of measuring blood pressure b. CVP measures fluid pressure in the right atrium c. CVP rises when the amount of circulating fluid falls d. CVP falls when the cardiac output rises |
regarding central venous pressure (CVP) (B) CVP measures fluid pressure in the right atrium central venous pressure measures fluid pressure in the right atrium or anterior vena cava |
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the instrument used in measuring central venous pressure is called a. doppler b. sphygmomanometer c. manometer d. pulse oximeter |
the instrument used in measuring central venous pressure is called (C) manometer a manometer is used to measure the pressure in the catheter during the central venous pressure procedure |
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which of the following would not be seen in a peripheral blood smear from a normal dog? a. erythrocytes b. platelets c. leukocytes d. megakaryocytes |
(D) megakaryocytes would not be seen in a peripheral blood smear from a normal healthy dog
megakaryocytes are multinucleated bone marrow cells that produce platelets by breaking off pieces of cytoplasm |
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the total plasma protein level of a normal dog is a. 6 to 7 g/dl b. 10% to 40% c. 10 to 30 g/dl d. 1 to 2 g/dl |
the total plasma protein level of a normal dog is (c) 10 to 30 g/dl |
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the normal meal corpuscular volume (MCV) of a dog is a. 300 to 345 fl (femtoliter) b. 1 to 2 fl c. 60 to 77 fl d. 103 to 400 fl |
the normal meal corpuscular volume (MCV) of a dog is (c) 60 to 77 fl (femtoliter) |
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the normal MCHC of a dog is a. 32 to 36 g/dl b. 1 to 2 g/dl c. 135 to 234 g/dl d. 60 to 98 g/dl |
the normal MCHC of a dog is (A) 32 to 36 g/dl |
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the normal PCV of a horse is a. 20 to 39% b. 48 to 58% c. 12 to 30% d. 32 to 52% |
the normal PCV of a horse is (D) 32 to 52% |
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the normal white blood cell count of a horse is a. 5000 to 12500/mcl b. 10000 to 20000/mcl c. 4000 to 5000/mcl d. 10500 to 30000/mcl |
the normal white blood cell count of a horse is (A) 5000 to 125000/mcl |
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how much urine does an average dog normally produce in 24 hours? a. 5 ml/kg b. 15 ml/kg c. 30 ml/kg d. 45 ml/kg |
the average dog normally produce (c) 30 ml/kg of urine in 24 hours |
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how much urine does an average adult cat normally produce in 24 hours? a/ 5 ml/kg b. 15 ml/kg c. 30 ml/kg d. 45 ml/kg |
the average adult cat normally produce (B) 15 ml/kg of urine in 24 hours |
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how many white blood cells per high power field are considered normal in typical canine urine? a. 0 to 3 b. 2 to 8 c. 10 to 14 d. 1 to 8 |
(A) 0 to 3 white blood cells per high power field are considered normal in typical cnine urine |
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the most common type of leukocyte found in the peripheral blood of dogs is the a. monocyte b. basophil c. eosinophil d. neutrophil |
the most common type of leukocyte found in the peripheral blood of dogs is the (D) neutropihil |
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another term for laxative is a. relaxant b. diuretic c. adjuvant d. cathartic |
another term for laxative is (d) cathartic |
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what drug is used as an anthelmintic? a. penicillin b. piperazine c. pyrethrin d. streptomycin |
(b) piperazine is used as an anthelmintic |
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normal daily water maintenance requirements for a typical adult dog and cat are approximately a. 10 to 15 ml/kg b. 50 to 100 ml/kg c. 100 to 300 ml/kg d. 500 to 600 ml/kg |
normal daily water maintenance requirements for a typical adult dog and cat are approximately (b) 50 to 100 ml/kg |
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which statement concerning subcutaneous fluid administration of fluids is true? a. fluids should be infused with a large-bore needle b. fluids should be warmed to above body temperature c. a 9% saline solution can safely be administered subcutaneously d. a 50% dextrose solution cannot be safely administered subcutaneously |
regarding subcutaneous administration of fluid (d) a 50% dextrose solution cannot be safetly administered subcutaneously a dextrose solution with a concentration greater than 2.5% given subcutaneously could cause sloughing of the skin and abcess formation |
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hypertonic solutions a. must be given IV only b. must be given subcutaneously only c. may be given intraperitoneally or subcutaneously d. may be given IV, subcutaneously or intraperitoneally |
hypertonic solutions (a) must be given IV ony |
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the principal cation in extracellular fluid is a. Na+ b. Mg++ c. K+ d. Fe++ |
the principal cation in extracellular fluid is (a) Na+ |
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the principal anion in extracellular fluid is a. SO4- b. NO3- c. Cl- d. HCO3- |
the principal anion in extracellular fluid is (C) Cl- |
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sterile water is a. hypotonic b. isotonic c. hypertonic d. equitonic |
sterile water is (A) hypotonic |
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bandaging provides all of the following except a. keeping the wound warm b. promoting an alkaline environment c. minimizing postoperative edema d. absorbing wound exudates |
bandaging keeps the wound warm, minimizes postoperative edema, absorbs wound exudates but does not (c) promote an alkaline enviornment bandaging promotes an acidic environment at the wound surface by preventing carbon dioxide loss and absorbing ammonia produced by bacteria |
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fiberglass cast materials have all of the following advantages except a. slow setting time b. lightweight c. good ventilation d. extreme rigidity |
fiberglass cast materials have all of the following advantages they are lightweight, provide good ventilation, have extreme rigidity but (A) fiberglass does not have a slow setting time fiberglass is known for its rapid setting time |
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what bandage is most commonly used for temporary immoblization of fractures distal to the elbow or stifle before surgery? a. full-leg stack b. robert jones c. modified robert jones d. military field |
(b) a robert jones bandage is most commonly used for temporary immmobilization of fractures distal to the elbow or stifle before surgery a robert jones bandage provides stability through compression of many cotton layers; a modified robert jones is less bulky and provides little or no splintling capabilities |
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how frequently should splints by adjusted on foals? a. once a day b. twice a day c. every other day d. three time a day |
splints should be adjusted on foals (B) twice aday |
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the major functions of a stent bandage include all of the following except a. works in regions that are difficult to cover b. applies direct pressure and decreases motion c. reduces tension on the primary incision line d. provides good absorption of exudates |
the major functions of a stent bandage include works in regions that are difficult to cover, applies direct pressure and decreases motion, reduces tension on the primary incision line but stent bandages to not (D) provide good absorption of exudates |
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the equine joint that is never splinted is the a. carpus b. hock c. fetlock d. stifle |
the equine joint that is never splinted is the (d) stifle the hock is angled and therefore more difficult to split. the carpus and fetlock would be more easily splinted because they have no angulation. stifles are never splinted |
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failure to use adequate padding in bandages on limbs can produce any of the following except a. tendonitis b. pressure sores c. severe edema d. instability |
failure to use adequate padding in bandages on limbs can produce tendonitis, pressure sores, severe edema, but not (D) instability |
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the ties of the many-tailed spider bandage are positioned on which aspect of the affected limb? a. dorsal b. plantar/palmar c. medial d. lateral |
the ties of the many-tailed spider bandage are positioned on the (d) lateral aspect of the affected limb |
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what split is used on simple, closed fractures of the radius and ulna or tibia and fibula in young dogs and occasionally on large animals (mostly rear limbs of cattle)? a. kimzey b. schroeder-thomas c. board d. plastic (PVC) |
(B) a schroeder-thomas split is used on simple, closed fractures of the radius and ulna or tibia and fibula in young dogs and occasionally on large animals (mostly rear limbs of cattle) |
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the robert jones bandage is not appropriate for stabilizing fractures of the a. femur or humerus b. radius or carpus c. tibia or third metacarpal bone d. third metacarpal bone |
the robert jones bandage is not appropriate for stabilizing fractures of the (A) femur or humerus |
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the toes of a bandaged limb should monitored daily for all of the following except a. warmth b. sensitivity c. color d. swelling |
the toes of a bandaged limb should monitored daily for warmth, color, and swelling but not for (B) sensitivity |
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a chest or abdominal bandage, when applied firmly for compression should not remain in place on a small animal for longer than a. 4 hours b. 1 hour c. 6 hours d. 8 hours |
a chest or abdominal bandage, when applied firmly for compression should not remain in place on a small animal for longer than (a) 4 hours |
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what is the correct order for the processes of wound healing a. inflammation, debridement, repair, maturation b. maturation, debridement, repair, inflammation c. debridement, inflammation, maturation, repair d. repair, inflammation, maturation, debridement |
The correct order for the processes of wound healing is (A) inflammation, debridement, repair, maturation |
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what phase of healing begins approximately 6 hours after tissue injury a. debridement b. repair c. inflammation d. maturation |
(a) debridement is the phase of healing that begins approximately 6 hours after tissue injury |
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what phase of healing begins 3 to 5 days after tissue injury? a. debridement b. repair c. inflammation d. maturaiton |
(b) repair begins 3 to 5 days after tissue injury |
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the breed of goat with long, wide, pendulous ears and a Roman nose is the a. toggenburg b. Nubian c. Saanen d. French alpine |
the breed of goat with long, wide, pendulous ears and a Roman nose is the (b) Nubian |
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the breed of goat with almost no external ears is the a. oberhasli b. french alpine c. lamancha d. saanen |
the breed of goat with almost no external ears is the (c) lamancha the lamancha has almost no external ears (gopher ears) or extremely short ears (elf ears) |
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the all-white breed of goat is the a. saanen b. french alpine c. laMancha d. toggenburg |
the all-white breed of goat is the (A) saanen the saanen is a large, all-white breed of goat |
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the breed of pig that is red is the a. berkshire b. duroc c. yorkshire d. landrace |
the breed of pig that is red is the (b) duroc |
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the breed of pig that is white and has erect ears is the a. landrace b. hampshire c. yorkshire d. berkshire |
the breed of pig that is white and has erect ears is the (C) yorkshire |
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the breed of dairy cow whose milk contains the highest percentage of butterfat is the a. holstein b. ayrshire c. guernsey d. jersey |
the breed of dairy cow whose milk contains the highest percentage of butterfat is the (d) jersey the Jersey produces milk with an average butterfat content of 4.73% |
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the breed of dairy cow that is usually black and white is the a. holstein b. guernsey c. aryshire d. jersey |
the breed of dairy cow that is usually black and white is the (a) holstein
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of the breeds listed, the breed of dog most commonly affected with gastric dilatation/volvulus (bloat) is the a. pug b. saint bernard c. lhasa apso d. shar-pei |
of the breeds listed, the breed of dog most commonly affected with gastric dilatation/volvulus (bloat) is the (b) saint bernard the saint bernard, a large, deep-chested breed, is highly susceptible to gastric-dilatation and torsion (Bloat) |
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the breed of dog frequently exhibiting inherited idiopathic epilepsy is the a. great dane b. miniature schnauzer c. miniature poodle d. siberian husky |
the breed of dog frequently exhibiting inherited idiopathic epilepsy is the (c) miniature poodle |
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the breed of chicken known for its white eggs is the a. rhode island red b. leghorn c. white plymouth rock d. new hampshire |
the breed of chicken known for its white eggs is the (b) leghorn rhode island reds, white plymouth rocks, and new hampshire chickens all lay brown eggs |
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the breed of dog frequently affected by entropion is the a. basset hound b. samoyed c. shar-pei d. saint bernard |
the breed of dog frequently affected by entropion is the (c) shar-pei entropion or infolding of the eyelid is frequently seen in the shar-pei |
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a long-coated guinea pig is the a. peruvian b. abyssinian c. american d. crested |
a long-coated guinea pig is the (a) peruvian the abyssinian, american, and crested guinea pig are all short-coated |
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what breed of guinea pig has a rough hair coat? a. crested b. american c. peruvian d. abyssinian |
the (d) abyssinian guinea pig is the only breed of guinea pig with a rough hair coat |
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what breed of rabbit is most commonly used in research? a. angora b. mini lop c. netherland dwarf d. new zealand white |
the (D) new zealand white rabbit is most commonly used in research |
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what breed of sheep is used predominately for meat? a. merino b. romney marscher c. suffolk d. karakul |
the (c) suffolk sheep is used predominately for meat the merino, romney marsch, and karakul sheep are used predominately for their wool or pelt |
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the breed of dog known for its predispostion to retinal problems is the a. pekingese b. dalmation c. doberman pinscher d. collie |
the breed of dog known for its predispostion to retinal problems is the (D) collie the collie has a high incidence of an underdeveloped retina |
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the dairy breed with the highest average milk yield is the a. holstein b. guernsey c. jersey d. ayrshire |
the dairy breed with the highest average milk yield is the (a) holstein the holstein has an average milk yield of over 20,000 lb per year |
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which of the following is the maximum length of time that a compression bandage should be left on? a. 1/2 hour b. 4 hours c. 72 hours d. 1 week |
the maximum length of time that a compression bandage should be left on is (B) 4 hours after 4 hours venous return will be compromised |
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which of the following procedures would be chosen to allow a wound to heal by second intention? a. two surgeries performed 1 week apart b. wound closed surgically and a drain placed c. wound left open and not closed surgically d. three days after the injury, wound closed after a local antiseptic is applied |
(c) a wound left open and not closed surgically would be chosen to allow to heal by second intention second intention means that the wound is allowed to contract onits own |
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which of the following would delay wound healing? a. moisture b. dessication c. antibiotics d. drains |
(a) moisture would delay wound healing wound heal better in a dry rather than moist environment because bacteria grow better in moisture desiccation is the the state of dryness or the process of extreme drying |
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what is true about a degloving injury in a dog? a. it commonly results from tight bandages b. it is considered a clean wound c. it results in skin loss d. it can never be closed surgically |
regarding degloving injuries in dogs, (C) it results in skin loss a degloving wound has the skin removed from the bone and soft tissues |
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which of these pet birds is sexually dimorphic? a. grey cockatiel b. yellow-napped amazon c. green parakeet d. blue and gold macaw |
(a) the grey cockatiel is sexually dimorphic male cockatiels have larger orange cheek patches and yellow heads; females have mostly gray heads |
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what species of reptile is venomous a. king snake b. iguana c. water dragon d. gila monster |
(d) the gila monster is venmous |
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which of these birds does not eat seeds? a. finch b. macaw c. duck d. parakeet |
finches, macaws, parakeets eat seeds but (C) ducks do not |
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which disease is the result of a blood parasite infection that causes anemia in cats? a FIV b. FIA c. FIP d. malaria |
(B) FIA is the result of a blood parasite infection that causes anemia in cats |
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for which of the following are there no commercially available vaccines? a. guinea pig b. ferret c. parrot d. chicken |
there are no comercially available vaccines available for (a) guinea pigs parrots can be vaccinated for Pacheco disease and poxviruses. chickesn are vaccinated for NEwcastle disease. Ferrets are vaccinated for distemper and rabies |
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what clinical sign is not associated with canine distemper? a. seizures b. coughing c. limping d. behavioral changes |
seizures, coughing, and behavioral changes are associated with canine distemper but (c) limping is not seizures and behavioral changes are the hallmark of canine distemper but it can start with coughing |
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what animal is a common reservoir for the rabies virus? a. rabbit b. rat c. pig d. skunk |
(d) the skunk is a common reservoir for the rabies virus skunks can carry rabies for a long period of time without showing signs of the disease |
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which statement is true about rabies? a. contact with infected urine is the most common mode of transmission b. bites from suspected animals should be left untreated to prevent spreading the virus c. rural dogs develop natural immunity to rabies because of their exposure to wild animals d. dogs, cats, horses, and cows can transmit rabies but rabbits, gerbils, hamster, and mice seldom do |
regarding rabies (d) dogs, cats, horses, and cows can transmit rabies but rabbits, gerbils, hamsters, and mice seldom do |
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waht bacterium that is pathogenic to humans is contracted from chickens, horses and reptiles? a. Proteus b. Salmonella c. Bordetella d. Pasteurella |
(b) Salmonella is pathogenic to humans and contracted from chickens, horses, and reptiles |
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what is true about psittacosis (chlamydiosis)? a. psittacosis is spread to humans only by direct contact with an infected bird b. testing live birds for psittacosis is easy and highly accurate c. psittacosis causes a severe rash on the hands and face in people d. psittacosis in birds is controlled by adding antibiotics to bird feed |
regarding psittacosis (chlamydiosis) (D) psittacosis in birds is controlled by adding antibiotics to the bird feed the test for psittacosis are not very sensitive for specifc. only liver histopathology is diagnostic |
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which of the following causes diarrhea in dogs and humans? a. Staphylococcus b. Streptococcus c. Pseudomonas d. Campylobacter |
(d) Campylobacter causes diarrhea in dogs and humans |
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Mad cow disease (bovine spongiform encephalopathy) is thought to have originated in what species?
a. sheep b. dogs c. pigs d. rodents |
Mad cow disease (bovine spongiform encephalopathy) is thought to have originated in (a) sheep cows developed bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) after eating the offal of sheep with a similar disease called scrapie. the offal was added to their diet as a protein source |
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which statement about anthrax is true? a. people cannot get antrhax from eating contaminated meat b. anthrax is caused by bacteria c. anthrax spores can survive outside of the host for a few hours only d. anthrax affects cattle and humans only |
regarding anthrax (b) anthrax is caused by bacteria anthrax is caused by a bacteria that causes sporulates |
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which of these bandages should not be used on wound with exudate? a. an occlusive bandage b. a dry-dry bandage c. a wet-dry bandage d. wound lavage without a bandage |
a dry-dry bandage, a wet-dry bandage, and a wound lavage wihtout a bandage should/can be used on a wound with exudate but (a) an occlusive bandage should not be used on a wound iwht exudate an occlusive bandage holds the exudate to the wound causing more necrosis |
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which of the following is not a primary skin lesion? a. macule b. vesicle c. excoriation d. wheal |
macules, vescles, and wheals are primary skin lesions but (c) excoriation is not a primary skin lesion excoriation is a secondary, self-induced lesion. a primary lesion is a lesion caused directly by disease |
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the function of a robert jones bandage is to a. support the shoulder joint after surgery b. stabilize a fracture before surgery c. support the hind limb after reduction of hip luxation d. stabilize a fracture after surgery |
the function of a robert jones bandage is (b) stabilize a fracture before surgery it is used for immobilization of fractures distal to the elbow or stifle before surgery. it stabilizes a fracture before surgery with its several layers of rolled cotton compressed tightly and therefore prevents contriction of the limb - |
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what breed of cat is most likely to develop hairballs? a. domestic shorthair b. burmese c. persian d. siamese |
of the breeds listed (C) persian cats are most likely to develop hairballs because of its long hair |
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of the following horse breeds, which is in the pony class? a. arabian b. welsh c. morgan d. appaloosa |
the (b) welsh breed is a pony |
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what horse breed is used for harness racing? a. standardbred b. thoroughbred c. percheron d. palomino |
(a) a standardbred horse is used for harness racing |
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what dog breed would probably require the smallest amount of thiobarbiturate anesthetic per pound of body weight? a. jack russell terrier b. lhasa apso c. great pyrenees d. keeshond |
(c) a great pyrenees would probably require the smallest amount of thiobarbiturate anesthetic per pound of body weight the larger the animal, the lower its basal metabolic rate and consequently the anesthetic agent is more slowly metabolized |
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the breed of beef cattle noted for its heat tolerance is the a. angus b. longhorn c. hereford d. brahman |
the breed of beef cattle noted for its heat tolerance is the (d) brahman |
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the breed of dog born with no tail is the a. old english sheepdog b. schipperke c. miniature poodle d. miniature schnauzer |
the breed of dog born with no tail is the (b) schipperke |
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what dog breed is considered to have the greatest tendency to exhibit destructive behavior? a. chihuahua b. pomeranian c. malamute d. shih tzu |
(c) malamutes are considered to have the greatest tendency to exhibit destructive behavior |
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the breed of chicken bred for meat is the a. cornish b. leghorn c. rhode island red d. wyandotte |
the breed of chicken bred for meat is the (a) cornish the leghorn, rhode island red, and wyandotte are bred primarily for eggs |
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what dog breed has scottish ancestry? a. brittany spaniel b. wheaten terrier c. rough collie d. pembroke corgi |
(C) rough collies have scottish ancestry |
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high mountain or brisket disease of cattle is caused by a. parasitic infection of the lung b. Pasteurella infection c. hypoxia from low oxygen pressure d. cardiotoxic plants |
high mountain or brisket disease of cattle is caused by (c) hypoxia from low oxygen pressure hypoxia from low oxygen pressure is seen in cattle that live at high altitudes |
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a previously nonvaccinated mature horse that receives a traumatic wound that becomes contaminated should be given a. tetanus antitoxin only b. tetanus toxoid only c. both tetanus antitoxin and tetanus toxoid d. local wound therapy only |
a previously nonvaccinated mature horse that receives a traumatic wound that becomes contaminated should be given (c) both tetanus antitoxin and tetanus toxoid tetanus toxoid and tetanus antitoxin are given together. the antitoxin immediately supplies immunoglobulins against tetanus; the toxoid causes the equine lymphocytes to produce immunoglobulin for long-term protection |
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which statement cocnerning newborn foals is true? a. equine encephalitis vaccine should never be given to a newborn foal b. an injection of tetanus antitoxin is recommended c. newborn foals should be kept in lateral recumbency for at least 2 hours d. the umbilical cord should be severed |
regarding newboarn foals (b) an injection of tetanus antitoxin is recommended tetanus toxoid is given at 4 months. encephalitis vaccine is given at 6 to 8 months. never sever an umbilical cord, because it will keep hemorrhaging and could exsanguinate the foal |
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the scientific name for heaves in horses is a. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease b. acute bronchopneumonia c. tracheobronchitis d. pulmonary embolism |
the scientific name for heaves in horses is (a) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease |
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equine infectious anemia is diagnosed by a. fecal examination b. coggins test c. blood culture d. bangs test |
equine infectious anemia is diagnosed by (b) coggins test |
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the term sleeping sickness in horses refers to a. strangles b. distemper c. encephalitis d. tetanus |
the term sleeping sickness in horses refers to (c) encephalitis strangles causes a bacterial respiratory infection distemper is a viral infection tetanus causes rigidity and convulsions |
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scours in calves a. is caused by E. coli only b. requires treatment to replenish fluids c. usually occurs at about 3 months of age d. is seldom fatal |
scours in calves (b) requires treatment to replenish fluids electrolytes are used to treat scours (diarrhea) from almost any cause. specific treatment for bacterial infection and supportive treatment for viral scours are also needed |
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what area of the bovine body does hardware disease affect? a. foot b. abomasum c. reticulum d. intestine |
hardware disease affects the (c) reticulum metal objects can lodge in the reticulum and penetrate to the liver and pericardium of ruminants, especially cattle |
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signs of snuffles in rabbits include a. vomiting b. diarrhea c. splayed legs d. chronic rhinitis |
signs of snuffles in rabbits include (d) chronic rhinitis snuffles is an acute, subacute, or chronic inflammation of the nasal passages of rabbits. it is caused by pasteurella |
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contagious ecthyma (orf) is an infectious viral dermatitis of a. swine b. horses c. cattle d. sheep |
contagious ecthyma (orf) is an infectious viral dermatitis of (d) sheep |
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blue eye or corneal edema can occur with what canine disease or after vaccination against that disease? a. toxocariasis b. canine adenovirus infection c. kennel cough d. rabies |
blue ey eor corneal edema can occur with (b) canine adenovirus infection or after vaccination against it canine adenovirus infection (infectious canine hepatitis) or vaccination with amodified-live virus can result in corneal edema |
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two of the most common viral infections of dogs include a. rickets and scurvy b. pasteurellosis and staphylococcosis c. canine distemper and canine hepatitis d. toxoplasmosis and coccidiodomycosis |
two of the most common viral infections of dogs include (c) canine distemper and canine hepatitis |
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feline infectious peritonitis is caused by a a. bacterium b. rickettsia c. fungus d. virus |
feline infectious peritonitis is caused by a (d) virus feline infectious peritonitis is caused by a virus but is also associated with immunodeficiencies caused by feline leukemia virus or feline immunodeficiency virus infection |
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what disease of monkeys causes small sores in and around the mouth can be fatal to people?
a. tuberculosis b. B-virus encephalitis c. Salmonellosis d. Coccidiosis |
(b) B-virus encephalitis is a disease of monkeys that causes small sores in and around the mouth and can be fatal to people B-virus of monkeys can cause encephalitis in people |
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which of these animals is most likely to transmit the rabies virus to people? a. marmot b. fox c. mule deer d. bear |
of the animals listed the (b) fox is most likely to transmit the rabies virus to people foxes, bats, raccoons, and skunks are the most common wild animals involved in the transmission of the rabies virus |
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which of these tapeworms uses people as its definitive host? a. Dipylidium caninum b. Echinococcus granulosus c. Taenia pisiformis d. Taenia solium |
(d) Taenia solium is a tapeworm that uses people as its definitive host The laraval and adult stages of TAeania solium, the beef tapeworm, can live in people or cattle, therefore it is a zoonotic disease |
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which of these tapeworms uses people as intermediate hosts and causes the disease known as hydatid disease? a. Taenia pisiformis b. Echinococcus granulosus c. Diplydium caninum d. Taenia solium |
(b) Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that uses people as intermediate hosts and causes a disease known as hydatid disease Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that can infect people who ingest the ova. the person becomes the intermediate host and the cyst that form can cause space-occupying lesions which can be fatal |
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what defect can be produced in a human fetus exposed to Toxoplasma gondii? a. Hydrocephalus b. Down syndrome c. Spina bifida d. Dwarfism |
hydrocephalus can be produced in a human fetus exposed ot Toxoplasma gondii Toxoplasma gondii that is ingested by a pregnant woman can result in hydrocephalus (Water ont he brain) in the developing fetus) |
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what condition must be reported to the department of health? a. toxocariasis b. ancylostomiasis c. strongylosis d. echinococcosis |
(D) Echinococcosis must be reported to the department of health Echinococcus granulosus and eChinococcus multilocularis can infect people and cause severe or fatal disase; therefre infected animals should be reported to prevent human disase |
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people infected with Dirofilaria immitis via a mosquito could develop lesions in the a. myocardium b. glomeruli c. alveoli of th elungs d. cerebral cortex |
people infected with Dirofilaria immitis via a mosquito could develop lesions in the (c) alveoli of the lungs Dirofilaria immitis in people can cause coin lesions on radiogrpahic examination of the lungs, because this is the capillary bed where the microfilariae are trapped |
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which statment concering parasitism is true? a. demodex is the tapeworm of people b. equine pinworms have major significance in people c. Toxocara canis larvae can eat blood from human intestine d. Echinococcus multilocularis can use people as intermediate hosts |
regrading parasitism (D) Echinococcus multilocularis can use people as intermediate hosts Echinococcus multilocularis ova ingested by people can cause cysts in the lungs |
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people who own cats can be exposed to Toxoplasma oocysts from cat feces in a litter box. after being passed in the feces, the oocyst is a. infectious immediately b. infectious after 2 to 4 days c. infectious after 24 hours d. infectious after 1 to 5 hours |
people who own cats can be exposed to Toxoplasma oocysts from cat feces in a litter box. after being passed in the feces, the oocyst is (b) infectious after 2 to 4 days Oocysts are not infectoius until they sporulate which takes 2 to 4 days after they are passed in feces |
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what disease can cause cyclic fever in people and can be contracted from cattle? a. borreliosis b. brucellosis c. tetanus d. malignant edema |
(b) Brucelolosis can cause cyclic fever in people and can be contracted from cattle Brucellosis in people is called undulant fever |
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Erysipeloid of people, caused by Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae, is the result of wound infection with contaminated material. what farm animal is most likely to carry this organism? a. horses b. cattle c. sheep d. pigs |
Erysipeloid of people, caused by Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae, is the result of wound infection with contaminated material. (d) pigs are most likely to carry this organism pigs get diamond skin disease from Erysipelothrix, which can become a wound contaminant in people who contact an infected pig |
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for accuracy acentral venous pressure reading should be taken at least a. 2 times b. 3 times c. 10 times d. 5 times |
for accuracy acentral venous pressure reading should be taken at least (b) 3 times |
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normal central venous pressure readings for dogs are a. 8 to 10 cm b. 0 to 5 cm c. 10 to 20 cm d. 0 to 20 cm |
normal central venous pressure readings for dogs are (B) 0 to 5 cm of H2O |
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which statement about PCV measurement in acute blood loss is true? a. it is an accurate assessment of the condition; but only if combined with serum albumin determination b. it is an accurate assessment of the condition but only if combined with BUN determination c. it is an inaccurate assessment of the condition because of vasoconstriction and splenic contraction d. it is an inaccurate assement of condition because of vasodilation and hepatic contraction |
regarding PCV measurement and acute blood loss - (c) it is an inaccurrate assessment of condition because of vasoconstriction and splenic contraction PCV can be inaccurate in assessisng blood loss early in acute hemorrhage because of vasoconstriction and a large influx of RBCs resulting form splenic contraction |
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how long do platelets survive in stored fresh blood? a. 24 hours b. 12 hours c. 2 hours d. 1 hour |
platelets survive in stored fresh blood for (b) 12 hours |
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transfusions in cases of autoimmune hemolytic anemia are a. recommended to replace lost platelets b. recommended to replace lsot RBCs c. not reommended unless done very early in the condition d. not recommended because they may increase hemolysis |
transfusions in cases of autoimmune hemolytic anemia are (d) not recommended because they may increase hemolysis increased hemolysis may be the result of a transfusion in cases of autoimmune hemolytic anemia. transfusion is used in life-threatening situations only, and only absolute minimal numbers of RBCs are used |
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when a blood transfusion is to be administered, the blood a. should be administered in a cooled state directly fromt he refrigerator to avoid blood componenet b. should be administered after being allow to warm slowly to room temperature c. should be warmed to body temperature before administration d. should be warmed to above body temperature to avoid cooling the patient down before administration |
when a blood transfusion is to be administered, the blood (c) should be warmed to body temeprature before administration |
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a delayed hemolytic reaction is indicated by a drop in PCV, how many days posttransfusion? a. 2 to 20 days b. only immediately following transfusion c. after 2 to 3 weeks d. years later in the patient's life |
a delayed hemolytic reaction is indicated by a drop in PCV (A) 2 to 20 days posttransfuion |
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when applying physical therapy to a patient, cold or hot compresses are usually applied for what time period? a. 1 hour b. 10 mintues c. 20 minutes d. 3 to 4 hours |
when applying physical therapy to a patient, cold or hot compresses are usually applied for (c) 20 minutes |
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when "Clearing" a skin scraping in search of a dermatophyte infeciton, heat the slide after applying a. alcohol b. acetic acid c. peroxide d. potassium hydroxide |
when "Clearing" a skin scraping in search of a dermatophyte infeciton, heat the slide after applying (d) potassium hydroxide potassium hydroxide clears the hair and allows the ringworm spores to be visualized |
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before doing a skin scraping for a fungal cultre, apply
a. alcohol b. peroxide c. tincture of iodine d. potassium hydroxide |
before doing a skin scraping for a fungal cultre, apply (a) alcohol alcohol kills bacteria in the area that may inhibit fungal culture attempts |
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on a deep skin scraping, sarcoptic mange mites are a. easy to find because they are so numerous on the patient b. very difficult to find because very few are often on the patient c. never found because they are temporary parasites d. more often found if you pinch the skinb efore doing the skin scraping |
on a deep skin scraping, sarcoptic mange mites are (b) very difficult to find, beccause very few are often on the patient multiple scrapings are often necessary to find a single sarcoptic mite |
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a benzoyl-peroixde shampoo is used to a. clean and groom the dog on a regular basis b. kill bacteria and flush the hair follicles c. replace hte oil in dogs with dry skin d. remove heavy grease on dogs with Cushing disease |
a benzoyl-peroixde shampoo is used to (b) kill bacteria and flush the hair follicles benxoyl-peroxide shampoo is too harsh for regular grooming but does flush organisms out of the hair follicles. tar shampoos are preferred for their degreasing attributes |
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long-hande heck tongs can be used to grasp a pig to apply a a. harness b. snout rope c. dental speculum d. halter |
long-hande heck tongs can be used to grasp a pig to apply a (b) snout rope long-handle neck tongs can be used to help apply a snout rope, which is a better means of restraint |
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a struggling sheep rapidly becomes hyperthermic in hot weather, because its normal body temperature is a. 90 degrees F (36.6 degrees C) b. 98 degrees F (38.3 degrees C) c. 103 degrees F (39.4 degrees C) d. 107 degrees F (40.5 degrees C) |
a struggling sheep rapidly becomes hyperthermic in hot weather, because its normal body temperature is (c) 103 degrees F (39.4 degrees C) the normal temp range for a sheep is 102 to 104 degrees F |
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the easiest large domestic animal to handle is the a. sheep b. goat c. cow d.pig |
the easist large domestic animal to handle is the (a) sheep the sheep is usually the easist to handle, because it is less aggressive htan the others listed |
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one clinical sign of hyperthermia is a. decreased herat rate b. increased respiratory rate c. decreased temperature d. increased urine output |
one clinical sign of hyperthermia is (b) increased respiratory rate decreased heart rate, decreased temperature, and increased urine output indicate hypothermia |
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one clinical sign of hypothermia is a. increased body temp b. increased cardiac output c. decreased blood pressure d. bright red mucous membrane |
one clinical sign of hypothermia is (c) decreased blood pressure increased body temp, increased cardiac output, and bright red mucous membranes indicate hyperthermia |
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what is the best method of handling an extremely agitated cat? a. apply firm restraint b. use a cat bag c. use a cat muzzle d. back off and allow the cat to calm down |
of the methods listed the best method of handling an extremely agitated cat is (d) back off and allow the cat to calm down attempts to control an extremely agitated cat often end with injury to the cat through use of excessive force |
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when setting up a sheep up on its haunches, you should never a. lift the head over the neck b. grasp the flank area c. twist the sheep's head to the side d. try to set the animal up if it weighs more than 200 lb |
when setting up a sheep up on its haunches, you should never (a) lift the head over the neck lifting the head over the neck may cause injury whereas turning the head ot the side helps set the animal on its haunches |
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pigs naturally pull back when pressure is applied around their a. lower jaw (mandible) b. tail c. midsection d. upper jaw (maxilla) |
pigs naturally pull back when pressure is applied around their (d) upper jaw (maxilla) when pressure is applied to the upper jaw a pig will pull back, which can be used to guide the animal |
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the first concern when dealing with any animal should be the a. safety of the animal b. safety of the handlers c. protection of the equipment d. time the procedure will take |
the first concern when dealing with any animal should be the (b) safety of the handler s safety of the people workin on the animal should always be the primary concern although the safety of the animal must also be taken into consideration |
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the normal temperature, pulse rate, and respiration rate (TPR) of swine are a. 102 degrees F to 103.6 degrees F, 60 to 80/min, 8 to 18/min b. 99.5 degrees F to 101.5 degrees F, 28 to 45/min, 8 to 16/min c. 101.5 degrees F, 110 to 140/min, 26/min d. 99.5 degrees F, 66 to 114/min, 330 to 480/min |
the normal temperature, pulse rate, and respiration rate (TPR) of swine are (a) 102 degrees F to 103.6 degrees F, 60 to 80/min, 8 to 18/min the normal TPR for a horse is b. 99.5 degrees F to 101.5 degrees F, 28 to 45/min, 8 to 16/min the normal TPR for a cat is c. 101.5 degrees F, 110 to 140/min, 26/min the normal TPR for a rat is d. 99.5 degrees F, 66 to 114/min, 330 to 480/min |
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what are the normal temperature, pulse rate, and respiration rate of a cow? a. 100 degrees F, 30/min, 50/min b. 101.5 degrees F, 60/min, 20/min c. 102.5 degrees F, 30/min, 50/min d. 102.5 degrees F, 60/min, 20/min |
the normal temperature, pulse rate, and respiration rate for a cow is b. 101.5 degrees F, 60/min, 20/min |
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what breed of cat is most likely to develop hairballs? a. domestic shorthair b. burmese c. persian d. siamese |
of the breeds listed the (c) persian is most likely to develop hairballs |
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of the following horse breeds, which is in the pony class? a. arabian b. welsh c. morgan d. appaloosa |
of the horse breeds listed the (b) welsh is a pony |
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what horse breed is used for harness racing? a. standardbred b. thoroughbred c. percheron d. palomino |
the (a) standardbred horse is used for harness racingwh |
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what dog breed would probably required the smallest amount of thiobarbiturate anesthetic per pound of body weight? a. jack russell terrier b. lhasa apso c. great pyrenees d. keeshond |
the (c) great pyrenees would probably require the smallest amount of thiobarbiturate anesthetic per pound of body weight the larger the animal, the lower its basal metabolic rate and consequently the anesthetic agent is more slowly metabolized |
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the breed of beef cattle noted for its heat tolerance is the a. angus b. longhorn c. hereford d. brahman |
the breed of beef cattle noted for its heat tolerance is the (d) brahman |
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the breed of dog born with no tail is the a. old english sheepdog b. schipperke c. mini poodle d. mini schnauzer |
the breed of dog born with no tail is the (b) schipperke |
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what dog breed is considered to have the greatest endnecy to exhibit destructive behavior? a. chihuahua b. pomeranian c. malamute d. shih tzu |
the dog breed considered to have the greatest tendency to exhibit destructive behavior is the (C) malamute of the breeds listed |
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the breed of chicken bred for meat is the a. cornish b. leghorn c. rhode island red d. wyandotte |
the breed of chicken bred for meat is the (A) cornish the leghorn, rhode island red, and wyandotte is bred primarily for eggs |
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what dog breed has scottish ancestry? a. brittany spaniel b. wheaten terrier c. rough collie d. pembroke corgi |
the (C) rough collie has scottish ancestry |
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high mountain or brisket disease of cattle is caused by a. parastic infection of the lung b. pasteurella infection c. hypoxia from low oxygen pressure d. cardiotoxic plants |
high mountain or brisket disease of cattle is caused by (c) hypoxia from low oxygen pressure hypoxia from low oxygen pressure is seen in cattle that live at altitudes |
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a previously nonvaccinated mature horse that receives t raumatic woudn that becomes contaminated should be given a. tetanus antitoxin only b. tetanus toxoid only c. both tetanus antitoxin and tetanus toxoid d. local wound therapy only |
a previously nonvaccinated mature horse that receives t raumatic woudn that becomes contaminated should be given (c) both tetanus antitoxin and tetanus toxoid tetanus toxoid and antitoxin are given togehter. the antitoxin immediately supplies immunoglobulins against tetanus; the toxoid causes the equine lymphocytes to produce immunoglobulin for long-term protection |
