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151 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Which contrast study of the GI tract is monitored until contrast medium reaches the colon? a. gastrography b. upper GI series c. barium enema d. esophagography |
(B) an upper GI series is a contrast study of the GI tract that is monitored until contrast medium reaches the colon This contrast study is used ot evaluate the stomach and small intestine. The contrast medium is administered orally and films are made during transit of the contrast medium through the stomach and small bowel into the colon |
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Which of the following is not a reason that survey radiographic films should always be made before administering contrast medium? a. to establish proper exposure technique b. to establish proper patient preparation c. to make a diagnosis d. to help determine the dosage of contrast medium |
Survey radiographic films should always be made before administering contrast medium to establish proper exposure technique, establish proper patient preparation, and to make a diagnosis but not to (d) help determine the dosage of contrast medium The dose of contrast medium is calculated using the weight of the animal |
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Which contrast study listed is used to detect ectopic ureters? a. excretory urogram b. urethrography c. vaginography d. positive-contrast cystography |
The contrast study used to detect ectopic ureters is (A) excretory urogram An excretory urogram identifies the shape, size, location, and marigination of the kidneys and ureters. IT also shows where the ureters terminate |
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With the heel effect, the x-ray beam intensity is greater toward the a. anode b. collimator c. cathode d. tube window |
With the heel effect the x-ray beam intensity is greater toward the (C) cathode The cathode end of the x-ray beam has the higher x-ray beam intensity because of the angle of the target on the anode |
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Which of these factors does not affect the amount of penumbra on a radiographic film and does not contribute tot he penumbra? a. object-film distance b. kVp c. focal-film distance d. focal-spot size |
The factors which contribute to amount of penumbra on a radiographic film are the object-film distance, the focal-film distance, and teh focal-spot size but not the (b) kVp Penumbra is the blurred margin of an image.The kVp controls the penetration power and scale of contrast on the film; it has no effect on the penumbra, which causes a loss of detail. There are 3 main factors in the amount of penumbra on a radiographic film; these are the focal-film distance, the object-film distance, and the focal-spot size |
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The spinning-top test is performed when you suspect a problem with the a. mA stations b. X-ray tube c. timer d. kVp |
The spinning-top test is performed when you suspect a problem with the (c) timer The spinning top shows the number of dots produced during the exposure. This represents the number of x-ray pulses produced during that exposure time. If the number of dots is incorrect, there is a problem with the timer |
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A good layout of a darkroom should include dry-bench and wet-bench areas separate from each other. Select the area where each task should be performed from the two choices given. Loading and unloading cassettes a. wet bench b. dry bench |
loading and unloading cassettes should be performed on the (b) dry bench |
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A good layout of a darkroom should include dry-bench and wet-bench areas separate from each other. Select the area where each task should be performed from the two choices given. Drying washed films a. wet bench b. dry bench |
Drying washed films should occur on the (a) wet bench |
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A good layout of a darkroom should include dry-bench and wet-bench areas separate from each other. Select the area where each task should be performed from the two choices given. Film storage a. dry bench b. wet bench |
Film should be stored in the (a) dry bench |
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A good layout of a darkroom should include dry-bench and wet-bench areas separate from each other. Select the area where each task should be performed from the two choices given. Film processing. a. dry bench b. wet bench |
Film should be processed on the (b) wet bench |
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What is the international unit of ionizing radiation exposure, abbreviated as R? a. Rem b. Rad c. Roentgen d. Radon |
The international unit of ionizing radiation exposure, abbreviated as R is (C) Roentgen Exposure units are physical amounts of radiation known as roentgens. Absorbed units are rads, and the measurement of biologic effect is a rem measurement. Radon is a radioactive gas |
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The Nonoccupational maximum permissible radiation dose for an individual is what proportion of the occupation dose? a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20% |
The nonoccupational maximum permissible radiation dose for an individual is 10% of the occupation dose. Nonoccupationally exposed persons can receive 10% of the occupational dose. The maximum permissible dose (MPD) for the general public is set a much lower level because the public is not monitored and is untrained to recognize and avoid exposure |
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Where is the most effective place to wear an x-ray film badge? a. on the belt b. on the shirt collar outside of the apron c. on the hand d. in the area of anatomic risk |
The most effective place to wear an x-ray film badge is (B) on the shirt collar outside of the apron |
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What is the minimum aluminum filter equivalent for x-ray machines with an output greater than 70 kVp? a. 1 mm b. 1.5 mm c. 2.5 mm d. 5 mm |
the minimum aluminum filter equivalent for x-ray machines with an output greater than 70 kVp is (c) 2.5 mm All states have one safety code in common. IT requires that at least 2.5 mm of aluminum filtration of the primary beam be used in any diagnostic machine with capacity of 70 kVp |
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Aluminum filters remove what part of the x-ray beam? a. high energy b. low energy c. gamma rays d. infrared rays |
Aluminum filters remove (b) the low energy part of the x-ray beam The filter eliminates the less penetrating or "soft" x-rays which have low energy |
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The minimum standard of lead equivalent for protective aprons and gloves is
a. 0.25 mm b. 0.3 mm c. 0.4 mm d. 0.5 mm |
The minimum standard of lead equivalent for protective aprons and gloves is (D) 0.5 mm REgulations in veterinary radiography require 0.5 mm of lead equivalent in the aprons and gloves because the restrainer is often very close to the primary beam |
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If an operator can increase the distance from the primary beam by a factor of 2, what would be the resultant dose of radiation? a. 1/3 b. 1/2 c. 1/4 d. 1/10 |
If an operator can increase the distance from the primary beam by a factor of 2, the resultant dose of radiation would be 1/4 of the original intensity The intensity of the primary x-ray beam is inversely proportion to the source-image distance. AT twice the distance, the beam intensity is 1/4 of the original intensity |
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which of the following substantially reduces the amount of radiation needed to produced diagnostic radiographic films? a. chemical restraint b. mobile leaded shields c. collimators d. rare earth screens |
(D) rare earth screens substaintially reduce the amount of radiation needed to produce diagnostic radiographic films the reduced radiation need for diagnostic x-rays with rare earth intensifying screens considerably reduces the exposure risk to the technician |
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which of the following increases the chance of exposure to ionizing radiation? a. high line voltage b. retakes (repeated exposures) c. increased focal-film distance d. failure to check tank developing temperature |
(b) retakes (repeated exposures) increases the chance of exposure to ionizing radiation When more radiographs are made, there is more chance of exposure to ionizing radiation |
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What safety feature on x-ray machine limits the size of the primary beam and reduces secondary x-ray exposure to the operator? a. filter b. collimator c. leaded glass d. dead-man switch |
(B) the collimator limits the size of the primary beam and reduces secondary x-ray exposure to the operator careful collimation reduces the amount of secondary scatter and therefore reduces exposure of the operator |
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How often are radiation-monitoring film-badges reports usually submitted? a. weekly b. monthly c. semiannually d. annually |
Radiation-monitoring film-badges reports are usually submitted (b) monthly |
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Exposure of personnel to radiation should be monitored if there is a reasonable possibility that individuals will be exposed to what fraction of the MPD? a. 1/4 b. 1/2 c. 1/3 d. Equal to the MPD |
Exposure of personnel to radiation should be monitored if there is a reasonable possibility that individuals will be exposed to 1/4 of the MPD Radiation protection is regulated by the national committee on radiation protection and measurements. their recommendation is to supply monitoring badges at a potential level of 1/4 MPD |
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What device offers technicians the least protection from x-radiation a. leaded apron b. leaded glasses c. dosimeter badge d. cassette holder |
Leaded aprons, leaded glasses, and cassette holders offer the technicians protection from x-radiant but a (c) dosimeter badge does not, it only detects radiation |
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Which of the following is a physical property of x-rays? a. travel in straight lines b. refract and reflect similar to visible light c. are visible in the dark d. may be deflected by magnets |
one of the physical properties of x-rays is (A) they travel in straight lines travel of x-ray photons is in a straight line until there is interaction with matter. the direction of the primary beam is then altered. photons possess no electrical charge and are not affected by either magnetic or electric fields and they cannot be refracted or reflected as per visible light |
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as the wavelength of x-ray photons shortens, the energy of the x-ray beam will a. stay the same b. length c. decrease d. increase |
as the wavelength of x-ray photons shortens, the energy of the x-ray beam will (d) increase as with other forms of electromagnetic radiation as the wavelength becomes shorter, the frequency of the x-ray beam increases. frequency is measured by the number of cycles that pass a stationary point per second. the higher the frequency, the greater the energy and penetrating power |
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the kVp setting on an ex-ray machine controls the a. quality of the x-ray beam b. quantity of x-ray beams c. number of electrons emitted d. focal spot size |
the kVp setting on an ex-ray machine controls the (A) QUALITY OF THE X-RAY BEAMS kilovoltage peak or kVP determines the peak energy of the x-rays which determines the penetrating power, a quality of the x-ray beam |
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The milliampere-seconds (mAs) setting on an x-ray machine controls the a. quality of the beam b. quantity of x-rays emitted c. speed of electrons emitted d. wavelength of the beam |
The milliampere-seconds (mAs) setting on an x-ray machine controls the (b) quantity of the x-rays emitted Milliampere seconds or mAs determines the amount of the electrical energy applied to the filament per second and determines the number of x-rays produced during the exposure |
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During an exposure, electrons in the x-ray tube travel from the a. anode to the cathode b. anode to the target c. cathode to the anode d. cathode to the filament |
During an exposure, electrons in the x-ray tube travel from the (c) cathode to the anode the cathode provides the source of electrons at the filament and kilovoltage directs the elctrons to the anode during the exposure |
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To produce x-rays, a great deal of energy in an x-ray tube is converted into heat. the ratio of heat generated to x-ray production is generaly considered to be a. 1%:99% b. 99%:1% c. 50%:50% d.75%:25% |
To produce x-rays, a great deal of energy in an x-ray tube is converted into heat. the ratio of heat generated to x-ray production is generally considered to be (b) 99%:1% 999 time more heat than actual x-rays is produced in an x-ray tube. part of this is the heat of the cathode filament, and part is produced when the elctron beam strikes the focal spot on the anode target. modern x-ray tubes are designed to preven this large amount of heat from destroying the x-ray tube |
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the acceleration of the electrons and their ultimate striking energy is determined by the a. milliamperage (mA) b. kilovoltage (kVp) c. milliamperage-seconds (mAs) d. exposure time (Time) |
the acceleration of the electrons and their ultimate striking energy is determined by the (c) kilovoltage (kVp) the kilovoltage peak (kVp) determines the maximum speed of the electrons flowing across the x-ray tube. this determines the maximum energy of the x-ray photons produced and thus their penetrating power |
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when depressing the "prep" switch on a rotating anode x-ray machine, you are effectively a. determine the acceleration of the electrons b. taking the exposure c. heating up the focal spot and spinning the rotating anode d. heating up the filament and spinning the rotating anode |
when depressing the "prep" switch on a rotating anode x-ray machine, you are effectively (d) heating up the filament and spinning the rotating anode before the electrons can be boiled off, the filament has to be at a proper temperature, and the anode must be rotating at the correct speed in preparation for the elctrons and subsequent heat. the focal spot (choice c), is the area on the target thar receives the electrons. the kVp determiens the acceeleration, (choice a) and the exposure is not made until the exposure button is depressed (choice b) |
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regarding the production of x-rays in the x-ray tube, the a. purpose of the anode is to provide a source of electrons b. target and focal spot are provided by the cathode c. cathode side of the tube is positively charged and thea node is negatively charged d. cathode includes the filament and the focusing cup |
regarding the production of x-rays in the x-ray tube, the (d) cathode includes the filament and the focusing cup the x-ray tube provides the source of the electrons, a method of accelerating them, a target for the interaction of the electrons to change into x-ray photons and heat, a method of heat disspation, and a glass envelope to maintain the evacuated path for the accelerated electrons to travel, the negatively charged cathode provides the source of electrons through the heated filament, the focusing cup helps direct the path, and the kVp provicdes the method of acceleration. the anode provides the target and focal spot |
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what transofrmer in an x-ray machine controls the temperature of the filament? a. step-up transformer b. step-down transformer c. autotransofmer d. self-rectifying transformer |
the (B) step-down transformer controls the temperature of the filament in the x-ray machine minimum energy is needed for heating the tungsten filament, so a step-down transformer is palced between the cathode filament and the power supply tot he x-ray machine. the extreme incoming voltage of 110 to 220 volts would cause instant evaporation of the filament. the step-down transformer decreases the incoming voltage to 10 V. a step-up transformer "(choice a) is necessary for increasing the incoming voltage to kilovoltage to transport the electrons at a fast enough speed to produce x-rays |
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the heel effect is going to be more noticeable with a. larger film, longer focal-0film distance and higher kVp b. larger film, shorter focal-film distance, and lower kVP c. smaller film, shoert focal-film distance, and higher kVp d. smaller film, longer focal-film distance, and lower kVp |
the heel effect is going to be more noticeable with ("b) larger film, shorter focal-film distance, and lower kVp because of the angle of the anode, there is a greater intesnity of the x-ray beam toward the cathode side. as with beams of light, there is increase spread of the beam from the source. the divergent effects are more noticable with larger film, because a greater percentage of the beam is affected. the full effect of the beam and the variation in intensity are more noticeable with shorter focal-film distance. at lower kVp there is a greater variation in the intensity of the beam as compared to higher kVp which leads to a more noticeable heel effect. |
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heavy lines on processed radiographs are most likely due to a. too high kVp b. light leaking into the cassette c. roller marks from an automatic processor d. too low mA |
heavy lines on processed radiograph are most likely due to (c) roller marks from an automatic processor light leaks appear as black aareas, not generalized heavy lines |
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all are true staetments regarding fast film except a. has large silver halide crystal b. requires more exposure by x-rays c. produces a grainier image that lacks definition d. has less latitude in exposure factors |
regarding fast film it has large silver halidide crystas; it produces a grainer image that lacks definition; it has less latitude in expsoures factors but it is false that (B) it requires more epxosure by x-rays fast film requires less exposure by x-rays |
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if a radiograph is too light and the image appears underpenetrated you should a. increase mAs 30 to 50% b. decrease kVp 10 to 15% c. decrease mAs 30 to 50% d. increase kVp 10 to 15% |
if a radiograph is too light and the image appears underpenetrated you should (d) increase kVp 10 to 15% |
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if a radiograph is too dark but the image shows adequate penetration you should a. increase mAs 30 to 50% b. decrease kVp 10 to 15% c. decrease mAs 30 to 50% d. increase mAs 10 to 15% |
if a radiograph is too dark but the image shows adequate penetration you should (c) decrease mAs 30 to 50% |
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if a film is too light but the image shows adequate penetration you should a. increase mAs 30 to 50% b. decrease kVp 10 to 15% c. decrease mAs 30 to 50% d. increase kVp 10 to 15% |
if a film is too light but the image shows adequate penetration you should (a) increase mAs 30 to 50% |
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if a film is too dark and the image appears overpenetrated you should a. increase mAs 30 to 50% b. decrease kVp 10 to 15% c. decrease mAs 30 to 50% d. increase kVp 10 to 15% |
if a film is too dark and the image appears overpenetrated you should (b) decrease kVp 10 to 15% |
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the technique chart should be modified by increasing the mAs by 50% for which of the following patients? a. a kitten b. excessively thin animals c. animals with ascites d. animals with pneumothorax |
the technique chart should be modified by increasing the mAs by 50% for (c) animals with ascites |
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Mitchell markers are used primarily in standing radiography of the equine head to assist in identifying a. right or left side b. fluid levels in the paranasal sinuses c. patient being radiographed d. tooth in quest |
Mitchell markers are used primarily in standing radiography of the equine head to assist in identifying (b) fluid levels in paranasal sinuses |
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the unit of absorbed ionizing radiation dose is a. maximum permissible b. Gray(Gy) c. Sievert (Sv) d. Rem |
the unit of absorbed ionizing radiation dose is (B) Gray (Gy) |
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the workplace program that has been developed to ensure radiation exposures are kept as low as possible is A. ALARA B. MPD C. NCRP D. NIOSH |
the workplace program that has been developed to ensure radiation exposures are kept as low as possible is (a) ALARA ALARA stands for "As low as reaosnably achievable" which means to use a technique to keep exposure levels to aminimum yet take a diagnostic quality film |
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if racks are present in protective apparel, they appear ___ when radiographed a. grey b. white c. black d. cldear |
if racks are present in protective apparel, they appear (C) black when radiographed |
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the minimum age, in years, for a person to be involved in radiographic procedures is a. 14 b. 16 c. 18 d. 21 |
the minimum age, in years, for a person to be involved in radiographic procedures is (C) 18 |
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one sievert (Sv) equals a. 1 rem b. 100 rad c. 1 rad d. 100 rem |
one sievert (Sv) equals (d) 100 rem |
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which of the following is a false staetment regarding scatter radiation? a. the main source of radiation exposure to the veterinary technician comes from the area of patient that is exposed during radiography b. scatter radiation is of concern because it decreases film quality and increases radiation c. scatter radiation is composed of high-energy x-ray photons that have undergone a change in direction after interacting with structures in the patient's body d. the best way to decrease radiation exposure is to use beam-limiting devices and pay clsoe attention to technical factors to avoid retakes |
regarding scatter radiation the main source of radiation exposure to the veterinary technician comes from the area of the patient that is exposed during radiography; scatter radiation is of concern because it decreases film quality and increases radiation; the best way to decrease radiation exposure is to use beam-limiting devices and pay close attention to technical factors to avoid retakes but it is false that (C) scatter radiation is composed of high-energy x-ray photons that have undergone a change in direction after interacting with structures int he patient's body scatter radiation has lower energy than the primary beam that produced it |
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a noninvasive imaging procedure that uses a small amount of radioactive material administered intravenously is a. ultrasound b tomography c. magnetic resonance d. scintigraphy |
a noninvasive imaging procedure that uses a small amount of radioactive material administered intravenously is (d) scintigraphy nuclear scintigraphy is a noninvasive imaging technique used in horses primarily |
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the imgagin technique that involes a piezolectric crystal within a transducer is a. ultrasound b. tomography c. magnetic resonance d. scintigraphy |
the imgagin technique that involes a piezolectric crystal within a transducer is (a) ultrasound |
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the ultrasound term that refers to few echoes detected and the area is a low-level gray compared with the surrounding tissue is a. anechoic b. hyperechoic c. echoic d. hypoechoic |
the ultrasound term that refers to few echoes detected and the area is a low-level gray compared with the surrounding tissue is (D) hypoechoic |
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the imaging technique that uses x-rays and computers to produce images that show anatomy in a cross section is a. scintigraphy b. CT c. MRI d. Fluroscopy |
the imaging technique that uses x-rays and computers to produce images that show anatomy in a cross section is (b) CT |
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which of the following involves no ionizing radiation to create the image? a. scintigraphy b. CT c. MRI d. Fluroscopy |
(c) MRI involves no ionizing radiation to create the image |
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assume that you are going to produce a technique chart by holding mAs constant whilte varying kVp. use Sante's rule to calculate the trial kVp that you would use for canine thorax using the following parameters: thorax measurement = 16 cm, assume no grid is to be used and the focal-film distance = 40 in a. 72 kVp b. 82 kVp c. 160 kVp d. 40 kVp |
assume that you are going to produce a technique chart by holding mAs constant whilte varying kVp. using Sante's rule and the following parameters : thorax measurement = 16 cm, assume no grid is to be used and the focal-film distance = 40 in, the trial kVp for the canine thorax would be (a) 72 kVp Sante's rule allows one to calcuelate kVp using the following formula: kVp = 2 x thickness measurement (cm) + 40 |
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the maximum permissible dose (MPD) for whole-body radiation per year in sieverts is a. 0.05 b. 0.50 c. 5.0 d. not established |
the maximum permissible dose (MPD) for whole-body radiation per year in sieverts is (a) 0.05 the MPD for personnel is 0.05 sieverts per year of whole-body radiation |
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which of the following is the best definition for ionizing radiation dose equivalent? a. quantity of energy from ionizing radiation per unit mass of tissue b. the quantity of radiation per unit mass taking into consideration the biologic effect on specific tissue types c. the number of grays of exposure per year d. the number of rads of exposure per year |
ionizing radiation dose equivalent is defined as (B) the quantity of radiation per unit mass taking into consideration the biologic effect on specific tissue types the quantity of ionizing radiation per unit of body mass best defines absorbed odse of radiation. dose equivalent measurements take into accoun tthe variable biologic effect of this ionizing radiation across tissue types. it better represents the functional effect of the radiation on various tissue types. grays are a unit of measurement for absorbed dose estimates and have replaced the unit formally used, called a rad |
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the primary difference between an OFA and a PennHIP evaluation is that a. PennHIP focuses on the degree of joint laxity using three views b. OFA focuses on the degree of joint laxity using three views c. OFA provides specific parameters for various breeds of dogs d. PennHIP does not require special training of personnel |
the primary difference between an OFA and a PennHIP evaluation is that (A) PennHIP focuses on the degree of joint laxity using three views three views are taken for a PennHIP evaluation and the primary predictor of susceptiblity to hip dysplasia is the degree of joint laxity. specific paramters are published for various breeds of dogs based on a large database. veterinary staff must receieve special traning before perfomring the PennHIP procedure as a diagnostic tool |
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to prevent geometric distortion when performing radiographs, which of the following guidelines should be followed? a. the primary x-ray beam should be perpendicular to the object of interest and the patient should be positioned parallel to the film b/ the primary x-ray beam should be parallel to the object of interst and the patient should be positioned parallel ot he film c. there is no magnificaiton or distortion that can occur if the patient is located close to the film d. geometric distortion can occur in very large-breed animals only |
to prevent geometric distortion when performing radiographs a. the primary x-ray beam should be perpendicular to the object of interest and the patient should be positioned parallel to the film geometric distortion, such as foreshortening, can occurw hent he beam is not directed perpendicularly to the object of intersted and/or when the patient is not parallel to the film |
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when must radiographs be labeled for certification organizations and for legal purposes? a. before exposure and after processing b. during or after exposure but before processing c. after exposure and after processing d. before mailing or filing |
radiographs be labeled for certification organizations and for legal purposes(B) during or after exposure but before processing for radiographic films to be legal in court and for the certification organizaiton to accept them they must be permanently identified. this can be done during the exposure iwth lead letters or radiopaque tape or after expsorue but the film should be identified before the film is processed with manual or photo labelers |
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what is the total time the film should be placed in the fixer a. two times the developing time b. three times the developing time c. the same as teh developing time d. 30 seconds |
film should be placed in the fixer for (a) two times the developing time the tota time the film must be in the fixer is double the time it was in the developer. the film can be viewed on a view box after the film has been in the fixer for 30 seconds only; however it must be placed back in the fixer for the remaining time to complete the process |
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a radiographic film of a dog's thorax is made. what occurs when the flm is place din the developer? a. the sensitized silver halide crystals are changed into black metallic silver b. the potassium bromide crystals are changed into black metallic silver c. the silver halide crystals are cleared from the film d, all of the silver halide crystals are changed into black metallic silver |
a radiographic film of a dog's thorax is made, when the film is placed in the developer (a) the sensitized silver halide crystals are changed into black metallic silver |
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when manually processing films. there are two methods for maintaining the tanks: the exhausted methods and the replenishing method. Match the method with the statement given. allows chemicals to drain from the film back into their respective tanks a. exhausted method b. replenshing method |
when manually processing films. there are two methods for maintaining the tanks: the exhausted methods and the replenishing method. the (a) exhausted method allows chemicals to drain from the film back into their respective tanks |
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when manually processing films. there are two methods for maintaining the tanks: the exhausted methods and the replenishing method. Match the method with the statement given. this method allows chemicals to drain into the wash tank only a. exhausted method b. replenishing method |
when manually processing films. there are two methods for maintaining the tanks: the exhausted methods and the replenishing method. the (B) replenishing method allows chemicals to drain into the wash tank only |
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when manually processing films. there are two methods for maintaining the tanks: the exhausted methods and the replenishing method. Match the method with the statement given. periodically, chemicals are added to bring chemical levels back up tot he top of the tanks a. exhausted method b. replenishing method |
when manually processing films. there are two methods for maintaining the tanks: the exhausted methods and the replenishing method. in the (B) replenishing method periodically, chemicals are added to bring chemical levels back up tot he top of the tanks |
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how often should manual processing tanks be drained and cleaned and old chemicals replaced with fresh chemicals? a. one a day b. once a week c. at least every 3 months d. once a year |
(C) at least every 3 months manual processing tanks be drained and cleaned and old chemicals replaced with fresh chemicals the fluids in manual processing tanks should be changed at least every 3 months. in busy practices the frequency may need to be increased to maintian the quality of the radiographic film |
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what would happen if exposed film were accidentally placed in the fixer before being placed int he developer? a. the radiographic film turns black b. the radiographic film turns clear c. if the mistake is detected soon enough, the image can be spared d. the radiographic film appears underexposed |
if exposed film were accidentally placed in the fixer before being placed int he developer(b) the radiographic film turns clear the radiographic film is clear because the fixer removes all of the silver halide crystal that remain after being in the developer. if the film has not been placed in the developer, the sensitized silver halide crystals have not yet been changed into black metallic silver. the fixer then removes all of the silver halide crystals clearing the film of any image |
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the pH of the developer chemicals is a. strongly acidic b. neutral c alkaline d. slightly acidic |
the pH of the developer chemicals is (c) alkaline developer chemicals are ketp at an alkaline pH, usually 9.9 to 11.4. develoepr chemicals cannot function in a neutral or acid solution |
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when reconstituting the powder form of processing chemicals. what is the most important factor to remember? a. always reconstitute the chemicals in the darkroom b. always reconstitute the chemicals under bright lights c. always use sterile saline to reconstitute the chemicals d. never reconstitute the chemicals inthe darkroom |
when reconstituting the powder form of processing chemicals, it is most important to remember (d) never reconstitute the chemicals in the darkroom the chemicals should be mixed in abucket outside of the darkroom to prevent the chemical dust from contaminating unprotected films, thus causing artifacts |
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a radiographic film of a cat's thorax is made. when viewing the film you note a decrease in radiographic density and a gray swirly appearance of the background. what caused this problem? a. processing chemicals were too hot b. film was not left in the fixer long enough c. processing chemicals were too cold d. film was not washed for 30 minutes after processing |
a radiographic film of a cat's thorax is made. when viewing the film you note a decrease in radiographic density and a gray swirly appearance of the background. this was caused by (C) the processing chemicals being too cold the processing chemicals should be at least 60 degrees F to be efficient |
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radiographic films made 5 years earlier have turned brown. what was the cause? a. too long int he developer b. too long in the fixer c incomplete development d. incomplete final wash |
radiographic films made 5 years earlier have turned brown. this was caused by (d) an incomplete final wash if the films were not completely washed, the fixer that remained in the emulsion would oxidize, turning them a brownish color |
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when using a direct safelight system, the distance fromt he workbench should be at least a. 20 inches b. 30 inches c. 48 inches d. 72 inches |
when using a direct safelight system, the distance fromt he workbench should be at least (c) 48 inches a direct system shines the safelight directly toward the workbench. to prevent possible fogging of the film, the safelight should be placed at least 48 inches from the workbench |
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lateral and ventrodorsal projections of a dog's abdomen are made and manually processed at the same time. however, both radiographic films have identical areas of decreased radiographic density that appears to be artifacts. waht could have ccaused this artifact on both films? a. they stuck together in the fixer b. they stuck together int he developer c. they stuck together in the wash tank d. theyw ere overexposed |
lateral and ventrodorsal projections of a dog's abdomen are made and manually processed at the same time. however, both radiographic films have identical areas of decreased radiographic density that appears to be artifacts. this could hae been caused by the film (B) being stuck together in the developer because both had identical areas of decreased density, this meanst he films were stuck together in the developer. the density is decreased because the developer was not able to change the sensitized silver halide crystals into black metalic silver; consequently, the fixer cleared the remaining silver halide crystals. this left areas of decreased density |
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what is a latent image? a. an image on the film after processing b. calcium tungstate crystals in the film's emulsion that have been exposed to radiant energy before processing c. silver halide crystals inthe film's emulsion that have been exposed to radiant energy before processing d. an image on the film before exposure |
a latent image is (c) silver halide crystals in the film's emulsion that have been exposed to radiant energy before processing a latent image is the silver halide crystals in the film's emulsion that have been exposed to radiant energy, causing them to become susceptible to chemical change |
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screen-type film a. is most sensitive to light produced by the intensifying screen b. is most sensitive to direct x-ray beams c. requires a longer exposure time than direct-exposure film d. can be processed manually only |
screen-type film (a) is most sensitive to light produced by the intensifying screen screen-type film is more sensitive to the light from intensifying screens than it is to direct x-ray exposure |
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some direct-exposure film cannot be processed in an automatic processor because a. it tends to scratch too easily b. the emulsion is too thick c. it cannot tolerate high temperatures d. it is too sensitive to safelights |
some direct-exposure film cannot be processed in an automatic processor because (B) the emulsion is too thick the emulsion is too thick for somet ypes of direct-exposure film to be automatically processed. the processing chemicals cannot reach all of the silver halide crystals in the time that they take to automatically process |
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direct-exposure film differs from screen-type film in that it requires a a. lower mAs b. higher mAs c. higher kVp d. lower kVp |
direct-exposure film differs from screen-type film in that it requires a (b) higher mAs direct-expsoure film requires that more x-rays be generated to expose it because it does not use the intensifying effect of screens |
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film is most sensitive a. before exposure and processing b. before exposure but after processing c. after exposure but before processing d. after exposure and processing |
film is most sensitive (c) after exposure but before processing film is most sensitive after it has been exposed but before it has been processed. care must be taken when handling the film after it has been exposed |
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high-speed film has a. larger silver halide crystals than slow-speed film which increases the detail ont he finished radiographic film b. larger silver halide crystals than slow-speed film which decreases the detail on the finished radiographic film c. smaller silver halide crystals than slow-speed film which increases the detail on the finished radiographic film d. the same size silver halide crystals as slow speed film |
high-speed film has (b) larger silver halide crystals than slow-speed film which decreases the detail ont he finsiehd radiographic film the crystals size in high-speed film is larger, allowing a decrease in mAs; however the detail is decreased compared with that of slow-speed film |
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long-latitude film a. produces a short scale of contract b. produces a long scale of contract c. has large calcium tungstate crystals d. cannot be processed manually |
long-latitude film (B) produces a long scale of contract |
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what are the topographic landmarks of the thorax? a. cranial landmark, second cervical vertebra; caudal landmark, fifth thoracic vertebra b. cranial landmark, manubrium sterni; caudal landmark halfway between the xiphoid and the last rib c. cranial landmark, three rib spaces cranial to the xiphoid; caudal landmark, greater trochanter d. cranial landmark, manubrium sterni; caudal landmark, greater trochanter |
the tophographic landmarks of the thorax are (b) cranial landmark, manubrium sterni; caudal landmark, halfway between the xiphoid and last rib |
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what are the topogrphaic landmarks of the abdomen? a. cranial landmark, second cervical vertebra; caudal landmark, fifth thoracic vertebra b. cranial landmark, manubrium sterni; caudal landmark halfway between the xiphoid and the last rib c. cranial landmark, three rib spaces cranial to the xiphoid; caudal landmark, greater trochanter d. cranial landmark, manubrium sterni; caudal landmark, greater trochanter |
the topogrpahic landmarks of the abdomen are (c) cranial landmark, three rib spaces cranial to the xiphoid; caudal landmark, greater trochanter |
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when radiographing the skull in the dorsoventral position, it is important to a. psoition the animal so the tympanic bullae are superimposed over one another b. position the animal so the hard palate is perpendicular to the cassette c. remove the endotracheal tube before making the exposure d. place the animal in left lateral recumbency |
when radiographing the skull in the dorsoventral position, it is important to (c) remove the endotracheal tube before making the exposure the endotracheal tube is removed to prevent superimposition over the main bony structures |
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foreshortening occurs when radiographing a long bone and the a. bone is not parallel to the cassette \b. bone is not perpendicular to the cassette c. cassette is of the wrong speed d. exposure technique is incorrect |
foreshortening occurs when radiographing a long bone and the (a) bone is not parallel tot he cassette causing the bone to appear shorter than it actually is |
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when radiographing a joint, why is it important ot center the primary beam on the joint? a. to decrease scatter radiation b. to decrease exposure c. to maximize joint space and minimize false narrowing d. to minimize the joint space and maximize false narrowing |
when radiographing a joint, it is important to center the primary beam on a joint (C) to maximize joint space and minimize false narrowing centering the bream on the joint maximizes the size of the joint space and minimizes the amount of false narrowing that can occur as the center of the primary beam is moved away from the joint |
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a lateral projeciton of a dog's shoulder is made. on finished radiographic film, the manubrium and the trachea are superimposed over the joint space. how can the animal e repositioned to correct this? a. extend the head cranioventrally and relax the caudal extension of the contralateral limb b. extend the head caudodorsally and draw the contralateral limb farther caudally c. pull the limb being imaged farther caudally d. nothing, the shoulder cannot be repositioned without superimposing other structures over it |
a lateral projeciton of a dog's shoulder is made. on finished radiographic film, the manubrium and the trachea are superimposed over the joint space. the way to reposition the animal to correc this is (b) extend the head caudodorsally and draw the contralateral limb farther caudally extending the head caudodorsally moves the tracchea off of the shoulder joint; extending the contralateral limb farther caudally moves the manubrium away from the shoulder joint |
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a dorsopalmar-lateromedial oblique projection of a horse's fetlock is made. which sesamoid listed is clearly delineated with this film?
a. medial b. lateral c. interdigital d. distal |
a dorsopalmar-lateromedial oblique projection of a horse's fetlock is made. the (b) lateral sesamoid is clearly delineated with this film with a dorsopalmar-lateromedial oblique projection, the lateral sesamoid is imaged without superimposition of any other bones |
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a left 20-degree ventral lateral dorsal oblique projection of a dog's skull is made. which tympanic bulba would be more ventral on the film? a. left b. right c. neither, they would be superimposed over one another d. neither, they are not imaged with this projection |
a left 20-degree ventral lateral dorsal oblique projection of a dog's skull is made. the (b) right tympanic bulba would be more ventral (more delineated) on this film |
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what procedure must be followed to take advantage of the heel effect when obtaining a radiographic film? a. place the distal part of the patient toward the anode b. place the thick or dense part of the patient toward the cathode c. place the thick or dense part of the patient toward the anode d. place the heavy or dense part of the patient in the middle of the beam |
in order to take advantge of the heel effect when obtaining a radiographic film you must (B) place the thick or dense part of the patient toward the cathode placing the thick part of the patient toward the cathode of the x-ray tube produces a more uniform density on the radiographic film |
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what information must be included on a radiographic film for proper identificaiton? a. name and address of the hospital; date (day, month, year); name of the client and patient; age, sex, and breed of the patient b. name of the hospital; date (day, month, year); name of the client and patient c. name and phone number of the hospital; date (day, month, year); name of the client d. name of the hospital; date (day, month, year); name of the person taking the radiographic film |
the information that must be included on a radiographic film for proper identification is (A) name and address of the hospital; date (day, month, year); name of the client and patient; age, sex, and breed of the patient radiographic films are legal medical records and must contain all of the information listed |
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where hsould the primary beam be centered when radiographic the canine lumbar spine in a ventrodorsal projection? a. L2 b. L3 c. L4 d. L5 |
the primary beam should be center on (c) L4 when radiographing the canine lumbar spine in a ventrodorsal projection L4 is midway between the pubis and the xiphoid cartilage ina dog lying in the ventrodorsal position |
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where should the primary beam be centered for a lateral view of the canine thoracic spine? A. T3 B. T5 C. T7 D. T9 |
the primary beam for a lateral view of the canine thoracic spine should be cenetered on (C) T7 T7 is approximately midway between the the 1st and 13th rib |
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if mA = 100, what is the mAs of the x-ray expsoure technique? a. 1 b. 10 c. 100 d. 1000 |
if mA = 100, the mAs of the x-ray exposure technique is (b) 10 mA x time (seconds) = mAs |
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what x-ray intesifying screen provides the least detail on the developed film? a. low speed b. par speed c. high speed d. rare earth |
(c) high speed x-ray intensifying screens provide the least detail on the developed film the larger the crystal size, the more light is produced. high-speed screens have larger crystals, even bigger than the rare-earth crystals |
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what is the term used to describe the tube-to-film distance? a. focal-film distance b. focal-object distance c. focal-skin distance d. focal spot |
(a) focal-film distance is the term used to describe the tube-to-film distance the distance between the source of an x-ray (focal spot) and the image receptor (x-ray film) is called focal-film distance |
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when the object-tofilm distance is increased, the image is a. distorted b. magnified c, darkened d. lightened |
when the object-tofilm distance is increased, the image is (b) magnified if the object being x-rayed is farther fromt he receptor, the image formed on the film is magnified because the x-ray beam strikes the object farther from the projected shadow |
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what piece of equipment helps reduce exposure time? a. collimeter b. grid c. rare-earth screens d. rotating anode |
(c) rare-earth screens help reduce exposure time x-rays are more efficiently converted to light by rare-earth phosphors than by calcium tungstate, a major factor in reducing exposure time. all of the otehr items have no effect on exposure time reduciton |
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what is the proper order of manual processing of x-ray film? a. develop, rinse, fix, wash, dry b. rinse, fix, dry, wash, develop c. wash, develop, rinse, fix, dry d. fix, wash, develop, dry, rinse |
the proper order of manual processing of x-ray film is (A) develop, rinse, fix, wash, dry |
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subject contrast on radiographic film depends on what two variables? a. focal-film and object-film distance b. mAs and kVp c. age and species of the subject d. thickness and density of the anatomic part |
subject contrast on radiogrpahic film depends on (d) thickness and density of the anatomic part the area of contrast is dependent upon the density and mass of the tissue or subject |
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a special study that involves use of negative contrast media is a. myelography b. pneumocystoram c. nephrogram d. arthrography |
a special study that involves use of negative contrast media is (b) pneumocystogram |
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the field of view of the pelvis for the orthropedic foundation for animals (OFA) includes a. pelvis, femurs, and stifles b. femurs and stifles c. lumbar 7 pelvis, and femurs d. pelvis and femurs |
the field of view of the pelvis for the orthropedic foundation for animals (OFA) includes (A) pelvis, femurs, and stifles |
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the standing lateral view of the thorax with a horizontal beam is used to confirm the presence of a. diaphragmatic hernia b. foreign body c. fluid or free air d. megaesophagus |
the standing lateral view of the thorax with a horizontal beam is used to confirm the presence of (c) fluid or free air |
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a skyline view is used to radiograph what part of a horse's anatomy? a. carpus b. guttural pouch c. elbow d. shoulder |
a skyline view is used to radiograph a horse's (a) carpus the skyline view is used to reduce superimposition of the capral bones |
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which of the following is a false statement regarding position for the lateral view of the shoulder? a. the patient is palce din lateral recumbency b. shoulder of interst is closest to the cassette c. leg of intereste is extended cranial and ventral to the sternum d. opposite limb is pulled in a craniodorsla position |
regarding position for the lateral view of the should: the patient should be placed in lateral recumbency; the should of interested is closets to the cassette; the leg of interest is extended cranial and ventral to the sternum; howver it is false that (D) the opposite limb is pulled ina cranial dorsal position the opposite limb is pulled in a caudodorsal direction to rotate the sternum slightly away from the muscle joint |
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the bisecting angle technique is associated with taking an x-ray of the a. thorax b. teeth c. spine d. hip |
the bisecting angle technique is associated with taking an x-ray of the (b) teeth use of the bisecting-angle technique prevents elongation or foreshortening of the tooth when taking intraoral radiographs |
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to determine whether an animal had an ununited anconeal process, the veterinarian would want you to x-ray the a. femur b. humerus c. elbow d. stifle |
to determine whether an animal had an ununited anconeal process, the veterinarian would want you to x-ray the (c) elbow |
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the pH of the fixer chemicals is a. strongly alkaline b. neutral c. acidic d. slightly alkaline |
the pH of the fixer chemicals is (c) acidic |
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the ideal temperature of the chemicals for manual radiographs processing is a. 68 degrees F b. 75 degrees F c. 39 degrees C d. 25 degrees C |
the ideal temperature of the chemicals for manual radiographs processing is (a) 68 degrees F |
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which of the following is a false statement regarding film storage? a. boxes should be stored flat, in a horizontal position b. film should be away from chemicals and sources of ionizing radiation c. storage areas should be cool, 10 degrees C to 15 degrees C d. storage areas should have a relative humidity of 40% to 60% |
regarding film storage film should be away from chemicals and sources of ionizing radiation; storage areas should be cool, 10 degrees C to 15 degrees C; storage areas should have a relative humidity of 40% to 60%. the false statement is (a) boxes should be stored flat, in a horizontal position boxes should be stored on end in a vertical position. if stored in ahorizontal position for an extended period, pressure on the emulsion of the film can show up after processing as a fogging artifact |
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nonscreen film would most likely be used to take what type of radiograph? a. thoracic b. abdominal c. hip dysplasia d. dental |
nonscreen film would most likely be used to take (D) dental radiographs nonscreen film would produce a high-detail image that would allow detection of subtle tooth and jaw changes |
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an x-ray film exposed to visible light and developed would appear a. white b. black c. green d. clear |
an x-ray film exposed to visible light and developed would appear (B) black |
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an x-ray film accidntally developed before exposure to radiation appears a. white b. black c. green d. clear |
an x-ray film accidntally developed before exposure to radiation appears (d) clear |
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a new x-ray film taken directly from the box appears a. white b. black c. green d. clear |
a new x-ray film taken directly from the box appears (c) green |
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a black "tree" pattern artifact on the film is caused by a. static electrical charge b. chemical splash c. dirt in the cassette d. bending the film |
a black "tree" pattern artifact on the film is caused by (a) static electrical charge |
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all artificats appear as clear or white marks on a film except a. scratches in film emulsion b. hair in the cassette c. contract media on the table d. crimping or folding of the film |
scratches in film emulsion, hair in the cassette, and contrast media on the table appear as clear or white marks on a film but (D) crimping or folding of the film does not bend marks appear as half-moon-shaped black artifacts |
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the triiodinated compound that is less irritating to the gastrointestinal (GI) tissues and has less toxicity is the a. sodium diatrizoic salt b. sodium metrizoic salt c. meglumine diatrizoic salt d. oily idoine solution |
the triiodinated compound that is less irritating to the gastrointestinal (GI) tissues and has less toxicity is the (C) meglumine diatrizoic salt meglumine triiodinated salt is less toxic because of the lower sodium content |
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a postive contrast compound that does not influence hte movement of fluid through the intestinal wall is a. barium sulfate preparation b. high osmolar triiodinated compound c. meglumine diatrizoic salt d. sodium diatrizoic salt |
a postive contrast compound that does not influence hte movement of fluid through the intestinal wall is (a) barium sulfate preparation the iodine compounds become diluted by fluid drawn into the GI tract |
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the veterinarian suspects perforation of the small bowel in a 9-yr-old lethargic German Shepherd and wishes to confirm her diagnosis via a special positive contrast study. what positive contrast would you use because it is the least irritating to the peritoneun? a. barium sulfate b. triiodinated compound c. carbon dioxide d. room air |
the veterinarian suspects perforation of the small bowel in a 9-yr-old lethargic German Shepherd and wishes to confirm her diagnosis via a special positive contrast study. the postive contrast you would use because it is the least irritating to the peritoneum is (b) triiodinated compound iodine does not irritate the peritoneum whereas barium is irritative and can cause a granuloma. air and carbon dioxide are negative contrast agents |
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an intravenous pyelogram (IVP) is also referred ot as a(n) a. cystogram b. gastrogram c. excretory urogram d. esophagram |
an intravenous pyelogram (IVP) is also referred ot as a(n) (c) excretory urogram |
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an upper GI study is performed to evaluate a. esophagus and stomach b. stomach and small intestine |
an upper GI study is performed to evaluate (b) stomach and small intestine an esophagram is used to study the esophagus and a barium enema is used to study the large intestine |
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the film-focal distance for a dental radiograph machine is _____ inches a. 16 b. 25 c. 36 d. 40 |
the film-focal distance for a dental radiograph machine is (A) 16 inches |
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which of the following is a false statement regarding portable x-ray units? a. commonly used in large animal practice b. can be carried easily from one location to another c. use long exposure times because of low mA capability d. have a rotating anode tube and single focal spot |
regarding portable x-ray tubes they are commonly used in large animal practice; they can be carried easily from one location to another; they used long exposure times because of low mA capability but it is false that (D) they have a rotating anode tube and a signle focal spot |
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the exposure factor that is responsible for accelerating the electrons from the cathode to the anode is a. film-focal distance b. time c. kVp d. mA |
the exposure factor that is responsible for accelerating the electrons from the cathode to the anode is (c) kVp kVp, the voltage difference between the anode and cathode in the x-ray tube, controls the speed of the electron beam |
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the temperature of the cathode filament is controlled by which of the following exposure factors? a. film-focal distance b. time c. kVp d. mA |
the temperature of the cathode filaent is controlled by (d) mA milliamperage controls how hot the filament gets, and this determines the number of electrons flowing from it |
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the nine-penny test is a quality control test for a. view box uniformity b. light field/x-ray field alignment c. screen-film contact d. source-image distance marks |
the nine-penny test is a quality control test for (b) light field/x-ray field alignment |
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elongation and foreshortening of anatomic structure are associated with a. radiographic deifnition b. geometric unsharpness c. radiographic detail d. geometric distortion |
elongation and foreshortening of anatomic structure are associated with (D) geometric distortion |
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sante's rule is used to calculate a. time b. focal-film distance c. mA d. kVp |
sante's rule is used to calculate (d) kVp Sante's rule is kVp = 2 x thickness measurement (cm) + 40 |
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if the mA is set at 300 and the time is set at 1/60 the mAs is a. 50 b. 20 c. 7.5 d. 5 |
if the mA is set at 300 and the time is set at 1/60 the mAs is (d) 5 mAs = mA x time in seconds |
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the crystals of high-speed screens, as compared to similar types of par screens are a. bigger, and ther eis less detail b. bigger and there is more detail c. smaller and there is more detail d. smaller and there is less detail |
the crystals of high-speed screens, as compared to similar types of par screens are (a) bigger and there is less detail high-speen screens hav elarger phosphor crystals. because one photon will affect a whoel crystal, less exposure will be needed to cause the whole area to fluoresce, emitting a larger source of light. the larger crystals also mean that the image will be grainier and less detailed |
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the main advantage of fast-speed screens and films is that a. the films can be processed more quickly b. x-rays can direclty affect the film without flurescing the screens c. lower exposure factors can be used, which can allow used of a smaller focal spot d. the system is not as costly |
the main advantage of fast-speed screens and films is that (c) lower exposure factors can be used, which can allow use of a smaller focal spot faster screens mean that less exposure is needed to create fluorescence and an image. if you use less exposure, then a lower mAs can be used, which often means a faster time and the use of the lower mA or smaller focal-spot size. the smaller focal-spot size helps increase the detail |
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if using rare-earth screens, what spectrum of light must the film be sensitive to? a. blue range b. green range c. violet range d. red range |
if using rare-earth screens, the film must be sensitive to (b) green range spectrum of light the rare-earth phosphors have peak wavelengths at 420 to 540 nm with most occuring at 540 nm, which is the green range. calcium tungstate crystals emit a wavelenght of 360 to 435 nm which is the ultraviolet to blue-violet range |
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you are looking at a radiograph that appears grey overall. this is best described as a. high-contrast film with few steps but large changes between each step b. high-contrast film with many steps but small changes between each step c. low-contrast film with few steps but lrage changes between each step d. low-contrast film with many steps but few changes between each step |
you are looking at a radiograph that appears grey overall. this is best described as (d) low-contrast film with many steps but few changes between each step a film that has low contrast has very little difference in optical densities between different portions of the radiograph. there are a lot of greys that are considered to have many steps, but the change between each variation is minimal. this is also expressed as a long scale of contrast |
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a radiograph in front of you appears dark. you note that the bones are grey. you are best to do what for the next radiograph? a. decrease kVp b. decrease mAs c. it really does not matter which setting you decrease d. increase kVp or mAs |
a radiograph in front of you appears dark. you note that the bones are grey. you are best to (A) decrease kVp for the next radiograph to tell which exposure factor you should change, you first need to tell whether it is too dark or too light (use a toast analogy - is the toast burnt or not dark enough?) in this case, it is too dark, so you need to descrease the exposure factors. to determine which exposure factor, first rule out kVp. this you can determine by looking at the contrast. for dark radiographs look at the bones. if the bones are grey, there has been too much penetration so you should decrease the kVp by about 10 to 15%. if the bones are dark but still appear to have some contrast compared with the surroudnign soft tissue, they have not been overpenetrated and the problem is too-high mAs. if the radiograph is too light, look at the organs. if you cannot clearly see the organs, the area has not had enough penetration so you need to increase your kVp about about 10 to 15% so that density and contrast can be improved. if the organs are discernible, penetration has not been a problem, so increase mAs to increase the density of blackness on the radiograph |
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grid cutoff can be described as a. the improvement of scatter noted with the use of one grid over another b. not using the grid when exposing a tabletop radiograph c. incorrect use of the grid, so taht the grid absorbs more radiation than it should d. incorrect use of the grid so that the grid absorbs less radiation than it should |
grid cutoff can be described as (c) incorrect use of the grid, so that the grid absorbs more radiation than it should grid cutoff is defined as the loss of the primary beam that occurs when the grid is used incorrectly. because the grid is normally oriented in such a way that most of the primary beam passes through the grid ,while the scatter radiation is absorbed, any misuse of the grid means increased primary beam absorption. problems include using the grid upside down, not having the central beam perpendicular to the center of the grid, not having the grid within the focusing range, having a tilted grid, or having any combination of these problems |
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you have taken a radiograph using 10 mAs and 60 kVp. to double the radiographic density for a second film, you should use a. 100 mA, 1/5 sec, 66 kVp b. 150 mA, 1/10 sec, 60 kVp c. 200 mA, 1/10 sec, 60 kVp d. 300 mA, 1/10 sec, 60 kVp |
you have taken a radiograph using 10 mAs and 60 kVp. to double the radiographic density for a second film, you should use (c) 200 mA, 1/10 second, 60 kVp to increase the density on the film, either increase the mAs by 50% to 100% or the kVp by about 10% to 15%. settings of 200 mA and 1/10 sec will give you 20 mAs, which is double the density. if you increase kVp and mAs you will quadruple the density |
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you want to set up an abdominal radiograph technique chart. all of the following factors should be standardized except a. whether to use a grid b. the type of film used c. focal-film distance d. the kVp used |
you want to set up an abdominal radiograph technique chart. all of the following factors should be standardized: whether to use a grid, the type of film used, and focal-film distance but not (d) the kVp used when setting up a technique chart, standardize as many factors as possible, ioncluding grid use, film and screen type and speed, focal-film distnace, processing time, and temperature. kVp will change depending on the thickness of the tissue |
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low mAs, high kVp techniques are recommended for abdominal radiography in dogs beccause they a. produce radiographs with higher contrast b. produce radiographs with lower contrast c. require increased exposure times d. do not necessitate use of a grid |
low mAs, high kVp techniques are recommended for abdominal radiography in dogs beccause they (b) produce radiographs with lower contrast low mAs and high kVp means that there is less contrast or more shade of grey, which is more desirable for soft tissue, to see all of the various steps or tissue changes |
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a grid with a ratio of 10:1 absorbs a. less scatter radiation and requires less exposure factors than a 5:1 grid b. less scatter radiation and requires greater more exposure factors than a 5:1 grid c. more scatter radiation and requires greater exposure factors than a 5:1 grid d. more scatter radiation and requires more exposure factors than a 5:1 grid |
a grid with a ratio of 10:1 absorbs (c) more scatter radiation and requires greater exposure factors than a 5:1 grid the grid ratio is the relation of the height of lead strips in a grid to the distance between them. a grid ratio of 10:1 means that the lead strip is 10 time higher than the width of the interspace. as the grid ratio increases, the grid becomes more efficient in absorbing the scatter radation, but it will also absorb more of the primary beam. to compensate for absorption of the primary beam, exposure factors need to be increased, otherwise the image iwll appear lighter with the higher ratio |
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a dog is lying in left lateral recumbency for a pelvis radiograph. the right femur will be a. less magnified because of increased focal-film distance and decreased object-film distance b. less magnified because of decreased focal-film distance and increased object-film distance c. more magnified because of decreased focal-film distance and increased object-film distance d. more magnified because of increased focal-film distance and decreased object-film distance |
a dog is lying in left lateral recumbency for a pelvis radiograph. the right femur will be (C) more magnified because of decreased focal-film distance and increased object-film distnace there will be increased magnification and distortion of as the object-film distance is increased and the focal-film distance is decreased. on the radiograph, the limb nearest to the film will appear closer in size to the actual body part and will have more distinct edges. because the right femur is further from the film and closer to the source of radiation it will be more magnified |
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in a lateral pelvic projection the affected limb should be a. closest to the film and pulled slightly caudally b. closest to the film and pulled slightly cranially c. farthest from the film and pulled slightly cranially d. farthest from the film and pulled slightly caudally |
in a lateral pelvic projection the affected limb should be(b) cloest to the film and pulled slightly cranially the affected area of interest should normally be placed against the film, so that a truer image is projected with less distortion. it is best that the affected limb be pulled cranially so that there is minimal joint interference |
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the term dorsomedial-plantarolateral oblique is in reference to the a. metatarsus b. stifle c. metatarsus and stifle d. carpus |
the term dorsomedial-plantarolateral oblique is in reference to the (a) metatarsus following proper anatomic nomenclature, this term is in reference to the portion of the limb distal to or including the tarsus. the terminology for the stifle is craniomedial-caudolateral oblique. the carpus is dorsomedial-palmarolateral oblique |
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the term dorsomedial-plantarolateral oblique means that the x-ray beam is direct at the a. dorsal limb aspect, and the film is against the medial side of the limb b. dosral limb aspect, and the film is against the lateral side of the limb c. plantar limb aspect, and the film is against the medial side of the limb d. plantar limb aspect, and the film is against the lateral side of the limb |
the term dorsomedial-plantarolateral oblique means that the x-ray beam is direct at the (B) dorsal limb aspect, and the film is against the lateral side of the limb positiong terminolgoy describes the path of the x-ray beam through the body - where it enters the body forms the first part of the term and wehre it exits forms the second part. in an olique view, the beam is directed about 45 degrees from the midsagittal plane. a dorsomedial view means that this oblique beam is directed toward the dorsal and medial aspects of the limb while it exist at the plantar and lateral limb side, which is also against the film |
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for proper radiographic exposure, a radiograph should be taken during maximum a. expiration for the abdomen and inspiration for the thorax b. expiration for the thorax and inspiration for the abdomen c. expiration for thorax and abdomen d. inspiration for thorax and abdomen |
for proper radiographic exposure, a radiograph should be taken during maximum (a) expiration for the abdomen and inspiration for the thorax for an abdomen ,exposures are best made during the pause at the end of expiration so taht the diaphragm is cranially displaced and the body wall is relaxed. this prevents crowding of the abdominal contents and also ensures enough time to make the exposure without possible blurring, resulting from respiratory movements, this also maximizes kidney separation in lateral projection. for the thorax. exposures are best made at maximum inspiration to enhance the contrast between the radiolucent and the radiodense structures. if one can observe the patient's breathing before exposure and breathe witht he animal, the proper phase cna more accurately be determined |
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the best view of the elbow is a.dorsopalmar b. palmarodorsal c. caudocranial d. craniocaudal |
the best view of the elbow is (d) craniocaudal for limbs distal to and including the elbow and stifle, the patient is best placed in sternal recumbency. for the front limb, the beam then enters from the cranial aspect of the limb and exists at the caudal aspect, here the film is also placed. distal to and including the carpus, the terminology becomes "Dorsopalmar" |
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the peripheral borders for an elbow radiograph are a. 1/3 of the radius/ulna and 1/3 of the humerus b. 1/3 of the tibia/fibula and 1/3 of the femur c. 2/3 of the bones distal and proximal d. the carpus and shoulder joint |
the peripheral borders for an elbow radiograph are (a) 1/3 of the radius/ulna and 1/3 of the humerus 1/3 of the long bones distal and proximal to the joint should be included, and becuase this is the front limb, portions of the radius and ulna should also be radiographed |
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the cranial and caudal borders for a lateral abdomen should be a. the 13th rib and the cranial aspect of the wings of the ilium b. the 8th rib and femoral head c. the scapulohumeral articulation and L7 d. the last rib and the first coccygeal vertebra |
the cranial and caudal borders for a lateral abdomen should be (b) the 8th rib and femoral head if interested in the whole abdomen, it is important to include the area from the diaphragm to the pubis. for larger patients, separate radiographs of the cranial and caudal abdomen may need to be taken |
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the best view for tympanic bullae is a. lateral b. open-mouthed ventrodorsal c. open-mouthed rostrocaudal d. dorsoventral oblique |
the best view for tympanic bullae is (c) open-mouthed rostrocaudal the patient would be placed in dorsal recumbency so that the head and nose are pointing upward. gauze can be placed around the upper canine teeth and pulled rostrally and gauze around the lower canine teeth should be pulled caudally. the vdertically directed beam will be perpendicular to the tabletop to bisect the angle created by the open-mouth. this view is sometimes referred to as a basilar view and also permits evaluation of the odontoid process. a true lateral would cause superimposition. if an oblique view is desired, the ventrodorsal (not DV) oblique should be used |
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for a dorsoventral (DV) view of the entire skull, you should center the primary beam a. at the medial canthi on the bridge of the nose b. between the ears c. at the highest point of the zygomatic arch d. between lateral canthi on sagittal crest |
for a dorsoventral (DV) view of the entire skull, you should center the primary beam (d) between lateral canthi on sagittal crest for a full skull, the vertically directed beam should be placed midway between the eyes at the level of the lateral canthi of the eyes. if the interst is in the rostral part of the skull, the beam should be centered just rostrally to the eyes |
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to ensure that your DV radiograph for the skull is parallel and perpendicular, you should try to have a. an imaginary line drawn between the medial canthi parallel to the iflm b. an imaginary line drawn between the medial canthi perpendicular to the film c. the nose pointing to the front of the cassette d. the ears parallel with each other |
to ensure that your DV radiograph for the skull is parallel and perpendicular, you should try to have (a) an imaginary line drawn between the medial canthi parallel to the film if one draws an imaginary line between the medial canthus of each eye, and ensurest his line is parallel to the film and table as noticed when looking at the patient from the front and at eye level ,the resulting radiogrpahic image should be perfectly positioned |
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you are required to take intraoral radiographs of the teeth of a labrador. you to use your regular x-ray machine because you do not have a dental unit in the facility. the animal is anesthetized. you should use a. nonscreen film b. hi-plus screens c. rare-earth screens d. an increased object-film distance |
you are required to take intraoral radiographs of the teeth of a labrador. you to use your regular x-ray machine because you do not have a dental unit in the facility. the animal is anesthetized. you should use (a) nonscreen film nonscreen film gives yout he greatest detail and is also easiest to position in the mouth |
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for cervical studies, you should center the primary beam at a. C7 to C8 b. the atlas c. the axis d. C3 to C4 |
for cervical studies, you should center the primary beam at (d) C3 to C4 there are 7 cervical vertebrae and the beam should always be centered int he middle of the area of interest |
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the femurs in a hip dysplasia view appear foreshortened. this is likely due to not having the a. the femurs kept stationary b. tube head perpendicular to the cassette and the femurs c. femurs perpendicular to the cassette d. femurs parallel to the cassette |
the femurs in a hip dysplasia view appear foreshortened. this is likely due to not having the (d) femurs parallel to the cassette to prevent image distortion, it is important that the area of interest always be parallel tot he film. in this case the proximal and/or distal portions of the femurs were not properly extended and thus not parallel to the table |
