Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
265 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
The pressure in the systemic arteries during ventricular contractions is: a. diastolic blood pressure b. osmotic pressure c. systolic blood pressure d. low pressure |
The pressure in the systemic arteries during ventricular contraction is (c) systolic blood pressure. Diastolic blood pressure is present when the ventricles are relaxed and therefore is lower than systolic blood pressure |
|
|
The difference between systolic and diastolic pressures of the expanding and contracting arterial walls is the: a. pulse b. osmotic pressure c. end-systolic volume d- stroke volume |
The difference between systolic and diastolic pressures of the expanding and contracting arterial walls is the (a) pulse A stronger palpated pulse is due to a greater pulse pressure |
|
|
The wave on an electrocardiogram that is associated with arterial wall depolarization is the: a. PR interval b. T wave c. QRS complex d. P wave |
The wave on an electrocardiogram that is associated with arterial wall depolarization is the (d) P wave. The PR interval is the length of time for the impulse to travel through the AV node. T wave is ventricular repolarization and the QRS complex is ventricular depolarization. |
|
|
In what order does the impulse for depolarization travel through the heart? a. AV node, SA node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers b. SA node, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers c. SA node, AV node, Purkinje fibers, bundle of His d. AV node, SA node, Purkinje fibers, bundle of His |
The order the impulse for depolarization travels through the heart is (b) SA node, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers |
|
|
The adrenal cortex is made up of all of the following except a. zona glomerulosa b. zona medullata c. zona fasciculata d. zona reticularis |
The adrenal cortex is made up of all of the following zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata, zona reticularis but not the (b) zona medullata |
|
|
the lymphatic system is not involved in a. waste material transport b. protein transport c. carbohydrate transport d. fluid transport |
the lymphatic system is involved in waste material transport, protein transport, and fluid transport but not (c) carbohydrate transport |
|
|
which is not a lymphatic structure? a. peyers patches b. haustra c. lacteals d. thoracic duct |
Pyers patches, haustra, and lacteals are lymphatic structures but (d) thoracic ducts are not |
|
|
The lymphatic structure found in the small intestines responsible for the transport of fats and fat-soluble vitamins is a. peyers patches b. lacteals c. popliteal lymph nodes d. spleen |
The lymphatic structure found in the small intestines responsible for the transport of fats and fat-soluble vitamins is (b) lacteals Lacteals are intestinal lymph tissue thattransports fats that are too large to be transported by the circulatory system |
|
|
what structure is not found in the brainstem? a. midbrain b. pons c. hypothalamus d. medulla oblongata |
The midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata is found in the brainstem but the (c) hypothalamus is not |
|
|
which of these is not a catecholamine? a. norepinephrine b. acetylecholine c. epinephrine d. dopamine |
Norepinephrine, epinephrine, and dopamine are catecholamines but (b) acetylecholine is not |
|
|
which animal does not have a gall bladder? a. goat b. donkey c. cat d. sheep |
(b) donkeys do not have a gall bladder |
|
|
which of the following is a posterior pituitary hormone? a. luteinizing hormone b. growth hormone c. oxytocin d. follicle stimulating hormone |
(c) oxytocin is a posterior pituitary hormone |
|
|
Sperm cells are produced by the a. seminiferous tubule b. epididymis c. vas deferens d. seminal vesicles |
Sperm cells are produced by the (A) seminiferous tubule |
|
|
what domestic species lacks the bulbourethral gland, also called Cowpers gland? a. equine b. feline c. canine d. bovine |
(c) canines lack the bulbourethral gland also called Cowpers gland |
|
|
all of the following are induced ovulators except a. rabbit b. rat c. cat d. ferret |
all of the following are induced ovulators rabbits, cats, and ferrets but not (b) rats |
|
|
the time period from the beginning of one heat cycle to the beginning of the next is called a. estrous b. estrus c. ovulation d. the mating cycle |
the time period from the beginning of one heat cycle to the beginning of the next is called (a) estrous Estrous is the time from the start of one heat cycle to the start of the next. estrus is the actual heat period |
|
|
What primary ovarian structure is responsible for the release of estrogen? a. follicle b. placenta c. corpus hemorrhagicum d. corpus luteum |
THe primary ovarian structure responsible for the release of estrogen is (a) follicle |
|
|
what hormone is given to prevent pregnancies in dogs that have been unintentionally "mismatched"? a. oxytocin b. LH c. estrogen d. progesterone |
(C) estrogen is given to prevent pregnancies in dogs that have been unintentionally "mismatched" |
|
|
The average gestation length in the ferret is a. 69 days b. 42 days c. 151 days d. 20 days |
The average gestation length in the ferret is (b) 42 days |
|
|
The condition known as pseudopregnancy can result from an exaggerated a. anestrus b. metestrus c. diestrus d. proestrus |
The condition known as pseudopregnancy can result from an exaggerated (c) diestrus |
|
|
The thorax is normally under a. partial pressure b. positive pressure c. equilibrium d. negative pressure |
The thorax is normally under (d) negative pressure The thorax is under negative pressure. This pulls the lungs against the thoracic wall allowing the lungs the move with the thorax as it expands or contracts |
|
|
The hormone primarily responsible for preventing hypocalcemia is a. t4 b. parathyroid hormone c. calcitonin d. vitamin D |
The hormone primarily responsible for preventing hypocalcemia is (B) parathyroid hormone parathyroid hormone prevents hypocalcemia by stimulating bone degradation |
|
|
the hormone primarily responsibile for prevent hypercalcemia is a. t4 b. parathyroid hormone c. calcitonin d. vitamin d |
The hormone primarily responsible for preventing hypercalcemia is (C) calcitonin Calcitonin prevents hypercalcemia by depositing excess calcium in the bones |
|
|
The shaft of the bone is also called the a. trunk b. epiphysis c. periosteum d. diaphysis |
the shaft of the bone is also called the (D) diaphysis |
|
|
The first cervical vertebra C1 is referred to as the a. axis b. atlas c. arch d. auricle |
The first cervical vertebra C1 is referred to as the (b) atlas C2 is the axis |
|
|
The average rate of equine hoof growth per month is a. 2 inches b. 1/2 inch c. 1 inch d. 1/4 inch |
The average rate of equine hoof growth per month is (d) 1/4 inch |
|
|
Adult cattle have how many upper incisors a. 6 b. 4 c. 0 d. 5 |
Adult cattle have (C) 0 upper incisors The dental formula for adult cattle is 0033/3133 |
|
|
The anatomic term for synovial joints is a. fibroarthroses b. amphiarthorses c. synarthroses d. diarthroses |
The anatomic term for synovial joints is (D) diarthroses |
|
|
which joint is not a synovial joint? a. hinge joint b. gliding joint c. swinging joint d. pivot joint |
A hinge joint, gliding joint, and pivot joint are examples of synovial joints but a (c) swinging joint is not |
|
|
In the kidney, the primary site of action of ADH is in the a. loop of henle b. proximal convoluted tubule c. glomerulus d. collecting ducts |
In the kidney, the primary site of action of ADH is in the (D) collecting ducts |
|
|
The renal corpuscle is located in the a. renal pelvis b. hilus c. medulla d. cortex |
the renal corpuscle is located in the (d) cortex |
|
|
the renal corpuscle is composed of the a. glomerulus and bowman capsule b. collecting ducts and proximal convoluted tubule c. descending and ascending loops of henle d. collecting ducts and afferent arteriole |
the renal corpuscle is composed of the (A) glomerulus and bowman capsule |
|
|
the trunk of an animal is defined as a. the front half of the animal b. the back half of the animal c. the thorax of the animal d. the thorax and the abdomen of the animl |
the trunk of an animal is defined as (D) the thorax and abdomen of the animal the trunk is the part of the body that the head and limbs are attached to |
|
|
the area between the thorax and the front leg is called the a. axilla b. inguina c. forearm d. armpit |
the area between the thorax and the front leg is called the (a) axilla proper veterinary terminology should always be used, animals do not have "Arms" |
|
|
the middle phalanx is located a. lateral to the distal phalanx b. distal to the distal phalanx c. medial to the distal phalanx d. proximal to the distal phalanx |
the middle phalanx is (D) proximal to the distal phalanx phalanges are named proximal, middle, and distal from the point closest tot he trunk of the body |
|
|
The feline liver is normally ___ to the kidneys a. dorsal b. ventral c. caudal d. cranial |
The feline liver is normally (D) cranial to the kidneys in a normally positioned animal with a normal liver, the liver sits cranial in the abdomen, and the kidneys are in the midlumbar region |
|
|
The large muscle of the caudal aspect of the canine lower hind leg is the a. tibialis anterior b. gracilis c. semimbranosus d. gastrocnemius |
The large muscle of the caudal aspect of the canine lower hind leg is the (D) gastrocnemius
in humans this is the "calf" muscle. in dogs it is the largest bellied muscle on the back of the lower hind leg |
|
|
Fascia is described as a. the facial muscular surface b. a tough sheet of fibrous connective tissue c. a broad band of muscle fiber d. a lacy network of connective tissue |
fascia is described as (b) a tough sheet of fibrous connective tissue fascia can be found in several parts of the body but is always a sheet or band of fibrous connective tissue |
|
|
the deltoid muscles allow fine movements of the a. shoulder b. hip c. elbow d. spine |
the deltoid muscles allow fine movements of the (A) shoulder the deltoid muscles are a group of muscles at the lateral edge of the scapula; they are triangular in shape and help flex the shoulder and abduct the foreleg |
|
|
cats have several salivary glands. the gland that is located under the eye above the upper jaw is called the a. interorbital gland b. supraorbital gland c. infraorbital gland d. intraorbital gland |
cats have several salivary glands. the gland that is located under the eye above the upper jaw is called the (c) infraorbital gland under = sub or infra; the eye = orbit |
|
|
The middle portion of the small intestine is the a. jejunum b. jejunem c. jajunem d. jujunem |
The middle portion of the small intestine is the (a) jejunum Spelling counts. This is the only one of the small intestinal divisions that ends in -unum. The e at the beginning of the word is for "Eat" |
|
|
The cat larynx is made up of four cartilages. Which one is not one of them? a. arytenoid b. cricoid c. epiglottis d. glottis |
The cat larynx is made up of four cartilages, which includes the arytenoid, cricoid, and epiglottis but not the (D) glottis the glottis is the opening between the vocal folds through which an endotracheal tube passes |
|
|
the muscle that lies along the outer thorax that looks like a fan of fingers or a jagged saw edge is the a. latissimus dorsi b. serratus ventralis c. subscapularis d. external intercostals |
the muscle that lies along the outer thorax that looks like a fan of fingers or a jagged saw edge is the (B) serratus ventralis serratus means "saw like" |
|
|
A cloven-hoofed animal has how many phalanges on each digit? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 |
A cloven-hoofed animal has (c) 3 phalanges on each digit |
|
|
the cardiovascular system has four components. which of the following is not part of the system? a. heart b. blood circulation c. blood vessels d. lungs |
The cardiovascular system has 4 components - the (D) lungs are not part of system the cardiovascular system includes the heart, blood, blood circulation , and blood vessels |
|
|
the appendicular skeleton includes the a. os cordis b. ribs c. pelvic girdle d. clavicles |
the appendicular skeleton includes the (c) pelvic girdle the os cordis, ribs, and clavicles, are part of the visceral skeleton |
|
|
which animal does not have an os penis? a. dog b. cat c. wolf d. pig |
the (D) pig does not have an os penis no ungulates (hoofed animals) have an os penis |
|
|
which statement best describes short bones? a. greater size in one dimension than another b. filled with spongy bone and marrow spaces c. thick outer layer of compact bone d. developed along the course of tendons |
The best description of short bones is (B) filled with spongy bone and marrow spaces short bones are somewhat cubodial or approximately equal in all dimensions. they have no large marrow cavity but the interior is filled with spongy bone and marrow spaces. the exterior is a thin layer of compact bone. their function is to absorb concussion forces, and they are found in complex joints such as the carpus and tarsus |
|
|
the scapula is an example of a a. long bone b. short bone c. flat bone d. irregular bone |
the scapula is an example (c) flat bone flat bones are thin, expand in 2 dimensions, and consist of 2 plates of compact bone separated by spongy material. they protect vital organs such as the brain (skull), heart and lungs (scapula), pelvic viscera (pelvis), and thoracic organs (Ribs) |
|
|
a cloven-hoofed animal stands on which digits a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 3 and 4 d. 4 and 4 |
A cloven-hoofed animal stands on digits (C) 3 and 4 most cloven-hoofed animals have no first digit and their second and fifth digits are either vestigial or missing |
|
|
A skull suture is an example of what type of joints? a. diarthrosis b. synarthrosis c. amphiarthrosis d. cartilaginous |
a skull suture is an example of a (b) synarthrosis joint the skull suture is an example of a fibrous or synarthrotic joint in which fibrous tissue unites bone and permits no movement |
|
|
muscles and ligaments attach to structures on bony surfaces. which of the following is not one of these found in the forelimb? a. trochanter b. tuberosity c. spine d. epicondyle |
muscles and ligaments attach to structures on bony surfaces. Tuberosities, spines, and epicondyles are found in the forelimb while (a) trochanters are found on the femur only |
|
|
which structure will not allow blood vessels and nerves to pass through a. meatus b. sinus c. foramen d. facet |
(d) a facet will not allow blood vessels or nerves to pass through a facet is a smooth, nearly flat articular surface. A meatus, foramen, and facet are holes or channels |
|
|
the joint between the bony rib and the cartilaginous portion of the rib is called the a cartilaginous junction b. chondrocartilaginous junction c. costochondral junction d. costicartilaginous junction |
the joint between the bony rib and the cartilaginous portion of the rib is called the (C) costochondral junction costo = rib, chondral = cartilage |
|
|
dogs have how many cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae? a. 7, 13, 6 b. 7, 12, 7 c. 6 , 13, 7 d. 7, 13, 7 |
Dogs have (d) 7 cervical vertebrae, 13 thoracic vertebrae, and 7 lumbar vertebrae |
|
|
what is the value of X in this cow's dentition chart? I 0/3; C 0/1; PM 3/3-4; M X/3 a.4 b.3 c.2 d.1 |
The dentition of a cow is I 0/3; C 0/1; PM 3/3-4; M 3/3 meaning the value of x was (B) 3 |
|
|
What structure disseminates electrical impulses across the ventricles? a. perkinje fibers b. purkinje fibers c. purkinge fibers d. perkingi fibers |
(b) the purkinje fibers disseminate electrical impulses across the ventricles the fibers that lie along the bottom and sides of the inner ventricles are named after J.E. purkinjem a bohemian anatomist |
|
|
Systole is a. contraction of the atria and ventricles b. relaxation of the atria and ventricles c. contraction of the atria and relaxation of the ventricles d. relaxation of the atria and contraction of the ventricles |
Systole is (a) contraction of the atria and ventricles Diastole is the relaxation period between contractions; conversely systole describe the contraction phases, first of the atria, then of theventricles |
|
|
Blood enters the heart from the pulmonary veins in the a. left ventricle b. right ventricle c. left atrium d. right atrium |
Blood enters the heart from the pulmonary veins in the (c) left atrium |
|
|
What blood pressure value is not as important in veterinary medicine in comparison to human medicine? a. systolic b. diastolic c. pulse d. vessel |
(b) diastolic blood pressure is not as important in veterinary medicine in comparison to human medicine systole is the contraction that provides the blood pressure in the arteries and is more easily measured |
|
|
Systemic circulation includes a. portal and peripheral circulation b. cardiac and portal circulation c. cardiac and pulmonary circulation d. pulmonary and appendicular circulation |
Systemic circulation includes (a) portal and peripheral circulation Systemic refers the blood circulation outsides the thorax |
|
|
The name of the hole between the cardiac atria that closes at birth in the mammal is a. cardiac fossa b. atria foramen c. fossa foramen d. foramen ovale |
The name of the hole between the cardiac atria that closes at birth in the mammal is (D) foramen ovale the closed-up foramen ovale is called the fossa ovalis in an adult |
|
|
which of these is not a characteristic of lymph? a. tissue fluids b. a large number of neutrophils c. virtually colorless d. part of the circulatory system |
the following are characteristics of lymph: tissue fluids, virtually colorless, and part of the circulatory system but (b) a large number of neutrophils is not a characteristic of lymph lymph is made up of 95% water, plasma proteins, and chemical substances from the blood plasma. its sparse cellular components contains mostly lymphocytes |
|
|
The thymus a. is another name for the thyroid gland b. produces cells that destroy foreign substances c. is more prominent in adults than in young animals d. is located in the cranial abdomen |
The thymus (b) produces cells that destroy foreign substances The thymus is lymphy tissue located in the mediastinum, cranial to the heart and produces cells that destroy foreign substancesa nd the formation of lymphocytes. it is most easily seen in young aniamls because it begins to atrophy as the animal ages |
|
|
what organ is most commonly associated with the capacity for extramedullary hematopoiesis if necessary? a. spleen b. pancreas c. lung d. prostate |
the (a) spleen is most commonly associated with the capacity for extramedullary hematopoiesis if necessary the spleen's major functions are hemopoiesis, phagocytosis, and storage of blood in the splenic pulp |
|
|
association neurons are part of what system? a. peripheral b. interneuron c. sensory d. extraneuron |
association neurons are part of (B) the interneuron system association neurons, also called interneurons, link sensory neurons with motor neurons or other association neurons |
|
|
Efferent neurons are part of what system? a. motor b. interneuron c. sensory d. extraneuron |
efferent neurons are part of the (A) motor system efferent neurons are neurons that response to afferent stimulus to create an effect. a simple example is touching something hot; the afferent neurons relay a message to the brain to pull away and the efferent neurons stimulate the action to pull away, which is a motor function |
|
|
afferent neurons are part of what system? a. motor b. interneuron c. sensory d. extraneuron |
afferent neurons are part of the (C) sensory system Afferent neurons are the sensing neurons that affect the brain to respond a simple example is touching something hot; the afferent neurons relay a message to the brain to pull away and the efferent neurons stimulate the action to pull away, which is a motor function |
|
|
Albumin is produced in the a. liver b. red bone marrow c. lymph nodes d. pancreas |
albumin ins produced in the (a) liver |
|
|
how does the volume of the right ventricle compare with that of the left ventricle a. the right ventricle has less volume than the left but pumps more blood than the left ventricle b. the right ventricle has less volume than the left c. the right and left ventricles have the same volume d. the right ventricle generally holds more blood than the left but does not pump as much as the left |
in regards to the volume of the right and left ventricles (C) the right and left ventricles have the same volume |
|
|
which of the following are antibodies? a. gamma globulines b. albumin c. fibrinogen d. thrombocytes |
(a) gamma globulins are antibodies |
|
|
the liver receives blood via what two different routes? a. mesenteric arteries and the caudal vena cava b. hepatic artery and the portal veins c. cranial mesenteric artery and the hepatic artery d. hepatic artery and the haptic vein |
The liver receives blood vai the (B) hepatic artery and the portal veins |
|
|
red blood cell production is stimulated by a. hypoxia and erythropoietin b. erytropoietin and throbocytes c. fibrinogen and acetylecoline d. coagulation cascade |
red blood cell production is stimulated by (A) hypoxia and erythropoietin |
|
|
When an animal becomes severely dehydrated, it loses both tissue fluid and plasma fluid. what effect would this have on the hematocrit and PCV? a. increase both values b. decrease both values c. increase the hematocrit but no effect on the PCV d. no change in either |
When an animal becomes severely dehydrated, it loses both tissue fluid and plasma fluid. This causes (A) an increase in both the hematocrit and the PCV |
|
|
What is meant by cardiac output a. strokes (Beats) per minute b. volume of blood pumped per stroke (beaT) c. volume of blood pumped per minute d. strokes (Beats) per volume |
Cardiac output means (C) volume of blood pumped per minute cardiac output =stroke volume x heart rate |
|
|
in the normal heart ECG, the QRS complex corresponds to what portion of the cardiac cycle? a. atrial systole b. atrial diastole c. ventricular systole d. ventricular diastole |
In the normal heart ECG, the QRS complex corresponds to (c) ventricular systole
The QRS complex represent depolarization of the ventricles |
|
|
decreased osmotic pressure in blood would cause a. decreased blood flow b. edema in tissues and/or lungs c. increased hydrostatic pressure d. increased cardiac output |
decreased osmotic pressure in blood would cause (b) edema in tissues and/or lungs decreased osmotic pressure in the blood would result in fluid moving out into the tissues |
|
|
Albumin plays a role in a. bladder control b. hydrostatic pressure in blood c. osmotic pressure in blood d. nervous stimulation |
Albumin plays a role in (c) osmotic pressure in the blood albumin is one of the plasma proteins |
|
|
horses and ruminants gain much of their energy from a product produced by microbes during fermentation. What is this product? a. lipids b. volatile fatty acids c. amalyase d. trypsinogen |
horses and ruminants gain much of their energy from a product produced by microbes during fermentation. This product is (b) volatile fatty acids |
|
|
Fermentation in the horse occurs in what two portions of the digestive tract? a. cecum and large colon (ventral and dorsal colons) b. ileum and jejunum c. duodenum and large colon (Ventral and dorsal colons d. cecum and rectum |
Fermentation in the horse occurs in the (A) cecum and large colon (Ventral and dorsal colons) |
|
|
The term for an animal ingesting its own feces is a. corpophagy b. coprophagy c. corpology d. coprology |
The term for an animal ingesting its own feces is (b) coprophagy |
|
|
In the bovine, ingesta freely moves back and forth between the rumen and the a. omasum b. abomasum c. reticulum d. duodenum |
In the bovine, ingesta freely moves back and forth between the rumen and the (c) reticulum |
|
|
Which of these species does not posses a gall bladder? a. pig b. horse c. goat d. dog |
pigs, goats, and dogs all have gall baldders but (b) horses do not have a gall bladders |
|
|
What hormone stimulates the release of gastric secretions? a. gastrin b. secretin c. calcitonin d. insulin |
(A) gastrin stimulates the release of gastric secretions |
|
|
The lymph vessels that absorb fats within the villi of the small intestine are called a. pylorus b. ileus c. lacteals d. peyers patches |
The lymph vessels that absorb fats within the villi of the small intestine are called (C) lacteals |
|
|
What enzyme group breaks down fats within the digestive tract? a. amylase b. lipase c. protease d. secretin |
(b) lipase is the enzyme group that breaks down fats within the digestive tract |
|
|
What are the two vitamins produced by the gut bacteria involved in fermentation? a. vitamins C and D b. vitamins B12 and niacin c. vitamins B and K d. vitamins A and E |
(c) Vitamins B and K are the two vitamins produced by the gut bacteria involved in fermentation |
|
|
what enzyme breaks down carbohydrates in the digestive tract? a lipase b. amylase c. protease d. tryptase |
(b) amylase is the enzyme that breaks down carbohydrates in the digestive tract amylase breaks down carbohydrates and is contained in the saliva |
|
|
What structures in the mucosa of the small intestine increase the surface area? a. fimbria b. cilia c. brush borders d. villi |
(d) villi are structures in the mucosa of the small intestine that increase surface area villi, which also contain microvilli, are adaptations of the mucosa to increase surface area for absorption of nutrients |
|
|
What substance provides lubrication to joints and nourishment to articular cartilage cells?
a. intra-articular fluid b. plasma c. serum d. synovial fluid |
(D) synovial fluid provides lubrication to joints and nourishment to articular cartilage cells synovial fluid is produced by the synovial membrane that lines the joint capsules |
|
|
Which of the following is isotonic to plasma? a. sterile water b. 0.9% saline solution c. 7.5% NaCl solution d. 0.45% NaCl saline solution |
(b) 0.9% saline solution is isotonic to plasma |
|
|
where would you find stratified squamous epithelial tissue in the mammalian body? a. in the urinary bladder b. in the epidermis c. lining the heart d. in the tendons and ligaments |
You would find stratified squamous epithelial tissue (b) in the epidermis in the mammalian body |
|
|
The layer of the integument that contains the blood vessels is the a. epidermis b. stratum corneum c. dermis d. hypodermis |
The layer of the integument that contains the blood vessels is the (c) dermis |
|
|
The bone type that makes up the diaphysis of the long bone is a. cancellous b. spongy c. articular d. compact |
The bone type that makes up the diaphysis of the long bone is (d) compact |
|
|
prolonged inactivity causes a decrease in muscle size, which is called a. atrophy b. hypotrophy c. hypertrophy d. inotrophy |
prolonged inactivity causes a decrease in muscle size, which is called (a) atrophy |
|
|
The second heart sound is produced by a. closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves b. closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves c. closure of the aortic and mitral valves d. closure of the mitral and pulmonary valves |
The second heart sound is produced by (a) the closures of the aortic and pulmonary valves The first heart sound is produced by the closure of the two atrioventricular valves. the second heart sound is produced by the closure of the two ventricular outflow valves |
|
|
Which of the following organs is not essential to life? a. heart b. liver c. pancreas d. spleen |
the heart, liver, and pancreas are all essential to life but the (D) spleen is not essential to life removal of the spleen is not life threatening. removal of any of the organs listed is fatal |
|
|
Which of the following white blood cells is not a granulocyte? a. basophil b. eosinophil c. monocyte d. neutrophil |
Basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils are granulocytes but (c) monocytes are agranulocytes |
|
|
for what blood cell is phagocytosis the main function? a. basophil b. eosinophil c. monocyte d. red blood cell |
Phagocytosis is the main function of the (C) monocyte |
|
|
What blood vessel normally carries oxygen-rich blood? a. aorta b. pulmonary artery c. umbilical artery d. vena cava |
The (a) aorta normally carries oxygen-rich blood |
|
|
Atropine works primarily by a. stimulating the sympathetic system b. blocking the sympathetic system c. stimulating the parasympathetic system d. blocking the parasympathetic actions |
Atropine works primarily by (D) blocking the parasympathetic actions |
|
|
Edema would most likely develop during or after which one of the following conditions? a. salt defciency b. dehydration c. low blood pressure d. inactivity |
Edema would most likely develop during or after (d) inactivity |
|
|
The primary constituent of blood responsible for the oncotic (osmotic) pressure of blood is a. NaCl b. albumin c. hemoglobin d. red blood cells |
The primary constituent of blood responsible for the oncotic (osmotic) pressure of blood is (b) albumin |
|
|
on inspiration the pressure in the thoracic cavity compared with the ambient air pressure is a. negative b. positive c. same as the ambient air pressure d. fluctuating |
on inspiration the pressure in the thoracic cavity compared with the ambient air pressure is (a) negative |
|
|
An increased PCV (packed cell volume) could be indicative of a. liver disease b. anemia c. leucocytosis d. dehydration |
An increased PCV (packed cell volume) could be indicative of (D) dehydration |
|
|
apnea will cause a. metabolic acidosis b. metabolic alkalosis c. respiratory acidosis d. respiratory alkalosis |
apnea will cause (c) respiratory acidosis cause by a buildup of CO2 |
|
|
Which of the following nutrients can be used for gluconeogenesis? a. long-chain fatty acids b. amino acids c. vitamin c d. iron |
(b) amino acids can be used for gluconeogenesis |
|
|
A physiologic isotonic solution would contain a. 100 mOsm b. 200 mOsm c. 300 mOsm d. 500 mOsm |
A physiologic isotonic solution would contain (c) 300 mOsm |
|
|
Cholesterol is necessary for a. extracellular transport b. cell membrane production c. urine excretion d. vitamin C metabolism |
Cholesterol is necessary for (d) vitamin C metabolism |
|
|
Which of the following is not a function of insulin? a. increased glucose transport into muscle b. lipogenesis c. fatty acid syntehsis d. increased blood pressure |
The functions of insulin include increased glucose transport into muscle, lipogenesis, and fatty acid synthesis but (d) increased blood pressure is not a function of insul |
|
|
Nociceptors are important for detecting a. color b. warmth c. lactic acid d. pain |
Nociceptors are important for detecting (D) pain |
|
|
Areas with low sensory sensitivity are characterized by a. nerves with small receptor fields b. overlapping receptor fields c. large numbers of neurons d. lots of convergence |
Areas with low sensory sensitivity are characterized by (d) lots of convergence |
|
|
The vagus cranial nerve is cranial nerve a. X b. XII c. V d. VI |
The vagus cranial nerve is cranial nerve (A) X which controls sensory, motor, and autonomic functions of the viscera Cranial Nerve XII is the hypoglossal nerve which controls tongue movement. Cranial nerve V is the Trigeminal nerve which is involved with somatosensory information from the face and head and muscles for chewing. Cranial nerve VI is the abducens nerve which controls eye movement |
|
|
Fat in the lymph would most likely be associated with a. HDL cholesterol b. chylomicrons c. chyle d. LDL cholesterol |
Fat in the lymph would most likely be associated with (b) chylomicrons |
|
|
Clinical ketosis in dairy cattle is most common in a. first-calf heifers b. fat cows c. dairy bulls d. steers |
Clinical ketosis in dairy cattle is most common in (B) fat cows |
|
|
For an animal that has lost RBCs to a moderate hookworm infection, one would expect capillary refill time to be a. less than 2 seconds b. greater than 4 seconds c. greater than 2 minutes d. greater than 4 minutes |
For an animal that has lost RBCs to a moderate hookworm infection, one would expect capillary refill time to be (a) less than 2 seconds to compensate for the moderate anemia, the blood pressure would be nomral to increased |
|
|
What is called the "knee" in the forelimb of horse would be called the ____ in the human a. hip joint b. wrist joint c. finger joint d. knee joint |
What is called the "knee" in the forelimb of horse would be called the (b) wrist joint in the human the carpus in the horse is called a knee joint which is the equivalent to the wrist joint in a person |
|
|
A capillary refill time of 2 seconds would suggest a. shock b. anemia c. a healthy animal d. dehydration |
A capillary refill time of 2 seconds would suggest (C) a healty animal two seconds or less is a normal value for capillary refill time |
|
|
What is the name for the larger, flat projection located lateral to the head of the femur? a. lesser trochanter b. greater trochanter c. trochanteric fossa d. tubercle |
the (B) greater trochanter is the large, flat projection located lateral to the head of the femur |
|
|
what layer of bone tissue is necessary for attachment of ligaments and tendons? a. periosteum b. endosteum c. cartilage d. meniscus |
(a) periosteum is a layer of bone tissue necessary for attachment of ligaments and tendons |
|
|
The fibrous covering around the part of the bone not covered by articular cartilage is a. endosteum b. ligament c. tendon d. periosteum |
The fibrous covering around the part of the bone not covered by articular cartilage is (d) periosteum |
|
|
What two valves comprise the semilunar valves? a. mitral valve, pulmonic valve b. pulmonic valve, aortic valve c. mitral valve, tricuspid valve d. pulmonic valve, tricuspid valve |
the semilunar valves are the (B) pulmonic valve and the aortic valve The pulmonic valve is the right ventricular outflow valve and the aortic valve is the left ventricular outflow valve |
|
|
The normal dentition pattern for an adult cat is a. incisor 3/3, canine 1/1, premolar 3/2, molar 1/1 b. incisor 3/3, canine 1/1, premolar 4/3, molar 2/2 c. incisor 3/3, canine 1/1, premolar 4/4, molar 3/3 d. incisor 3/3, canine 1/1, premolar 4/4, molar 2/3 |
The normal dentition pattern for an adult cat is (A) incisor 3/3, canine 1/1, premolar 3/2, molar 1/1, adult cats have a total of 30 teeth answer (C) incisor 3/3, canine 1/1, premolar 4/4, molar 3/3 is the dentition of an adult pig answer (D) incisor 3/3, canine 1/1, premolar 4/4, molar 2/3 is the dentition of an adult dog |
|
|
how many air sacs does a chicken have? a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 9 |
a chicken has (c) 8 air sacs Chickens have eight air sacs; single cervical and clavicular sacs and paired cranial thoracic caudal thoracic and abdominal sacs |
|
|
in birds, the cloaca is a. an appendage suspended from the head b. a blind sac at the distal end of the jejunum c. a cleft int he hard palate d. a common passage for fecal, urinary, and reproductive systems |
in birds, the cloaca is (d) a common passage for fecal, urinary, and reproductive systems |
|
|
In the avian species, the gizzard is also referred to as the a. proventriculus b. ventriculus c. crop d. colon |
In the avian species, the gizzard is also referred to as the (b) ventriculus the gizzard or ventriculus is the muscular stomach of birds |
|
|
the femoral artery is cranial to what muscle? a. sartorius b. pectineus c. rectus femoris d. tensor fascia lata |
The femoral artery is cranial to the (b) pectineus muscle the boundaries of the femoral triangle are the sartorius muscle cranial, the pectineus muscle caudal, and the vastus medialis and iliopsoas deep laterally |
|
|
The uvea consists of the iris, ciliary body, and a. nervous tunic b. fibrous tunic c. anterior chamber d. choroid |
The uvea consists of the iris, ciliary body, and (D) choroid the choroid is the middle layer of the eyeball that contains blood vessels and supplies blood for the entire eye |
|
|
The oil glands of the skin are the a. anal glands b. mammary glands c. sebaceous glands d. sudoriferous glands |
The oil glands of the skin are the (c) sebaceous glands |
|
|
If a hair is pigmented, the pigment granules are present inw hat layer? a. cortex b. cuticle c. medulla d. periople |
If a hair is pigmented, the pigment granules are present in (C) the medulla granules of melanin are deposited in the cortex of pigmented hairs by melanocytes in the hair follicles |
|
|
Which of the following is a sweat gland? a. mammary b. salivary c. sebaceous d. sudoriferous |
a (D) sudoriferous gland is a sweat gland |
|
|
Which of these statements about the epidermis is most accurate? a. it contains blood vessels b. its surface layer contains pigment cells c. it is composed of stratified squamous epithelium d. its surface layer is made up of living cells |
The epidermis is (c) composed of stratified squamous epithelium |
|
|
Which of these statements about the skin is least accurate? a. it is involved in synthesis of vitamin D b. it is the largest organ in the body c. its underlayer (dermis) consists of epithelial and connective tissues d. the epidermis is its more superficial layer |
Accurate statements about the skin include: it is involved in the synthesis of vitamin D, it is the largest organ in the body, and the epidermis is its more superficial layer meaning the least accurate statement listed was (C) its underlayer (dermis) consists of epithelial and connective tissues the dermis consists of connective tissue only |
|
|
The suspensory apparatus of the udder includes the a. symphyseal tendon b. urethralis muscle c. deep digital flexor tendon d. proximal digital annular ligament |
The suspensory apparatus of the udder includes the (b) urethralis muscle in addition to providing a common origin for the gracilis and adductor muscles of each limb, the symphyseal tendon also gives rise to part of the suspensory apparatus |
|
|
The portion of a hair beneath the skin surface is called the a. bulb b. follicle c. root d. shaft |
The portion of a hair beneath the skin surface is called the (A) bulb |
|
|
When a horse is standing on firm ground, the only portion of its hoof that normally contacts the ground is the a. coronary band b. sole c. wall d. white line |
When a horse is standing on firm ground, the only portion of its hoof that normally contacts the ground is the (c) wall |
|
|
The epidermis of the skin is composed of what kind of epithelium? a. simple squamous, keratinized b. simple squamous, nonkeratinized c. stratified squamous, keratinized d. stratified squamous, nonkeratinized |
The epidermis of the skin is composed of (c) stratified squamous, keratinized |
|
|
The number of teats on the mammary glands of different animals varies. List the correct number of teats for a mare. a. 2 b. 4 c. 12 d. 14 |
A mare has (a) 2 teats |
|
|
The number of teats on the mammary glands of different animals varies. List the correct number of teats for a cow a. 2 b. 4 c. 12 d. 14 |
A cow has (b) 4 teats |
|
|
The number of teats on the mammary glands of different animals varies. List the correct number of teats for a sow a. 2 b. 4 c. 12 d. 14 |
A sow has (a) 2 teats |
|
|
The number of teats on the mammary glands of different animals varies. List the correct number of teats for a rat a. 2 b. 4 c. 12 d. 14 |
a rat has (c) 12 teats |
|
|
In cows, the "milk vein" is the a. external pudendal b. femoral c. lateral thoracic d. subcutaneous abdominal |
In cows, the "milk vein" is the (d) subcutaneous abdominal |
|
|
the cranial nerves originate from the a. cerebellum b. spina cord c. brainstem d. cerebrum |
the cranial nerves originate from the (c) brainstem |
|
|
glaucoma is a. decreased pressure in the posterior chamber of the eye b. increased pressure in the posterior chamber of the eye c. icnreased pressure in the anterior chamber of the eye d. decreased pressure in the anterior chamber of the eye |
glaucoma is (C) increased pressure in the anterior chamber of the eye |
|
|
GnRH will stimulate the release of a. FSH b. thyroxine c. cortisol d. insulin |
GnRH will stimulate the release of (a) FSH |
|
|
the neurohypophysis is an anatomic section of the a. pituitary gland b. hypothalamus c. adrenal gland d. pancreas |
the neurohypophysis is an anatomic section of the (a) pituitary gland |
|
|
typically what percentage of an animal's body weight is blood? a. 0.1% b. 1% c. 8% d. 30% |
typically (c) 8% of an animal's body weight is blood |
|
|
a dog that weighs 10 kg would have approximately how much blood? a. 50 ml b. 800 ml c. 1.5 L d. 2 L |
a dog that weighs 10 kg would have approximately (C) 1.5 L of blood
approximately 8% of an animal's body weight is blood and 1 ml of blood weighs approximately 1 g |
|
|
lymph nodes that are found medial to the caudal part of the jaw are the a. popliteal nodes b. inguinal nodes c. mandibular nodes d. prescapular nodes |
lymph nodes that are found medial to the caudal part of the jaw are the (c) mandibular nodes |
|
|
lymph nodes found on the caudal aspect of the leg at the level of the patella are the a. popliteal nodes b. inguinal nodes c. mandibular nodes d. prescapular nodes |
lymph nodes found on the caudal aspect of the leg at the level of the patella are the (a) popliteal nodes |
|
|
sensory nerves are considered a. efferent motor nerves b. motor nerves c. efferent nerves d. afferent nerves |
sensory nerves are considered (D) afferent nerves afferent nerves conduct impulses from sensory receptors to the central nervous system. motor nerves are efferent nerves that send impulses to the skeletal muscles, organs, glands, and so forth from the central nervous system |
|
|
when a stimulus is strong enough to cause complete depolarization, it has reached a. threshold b. repolarization c. refractory period d. action potential |
when a stimulus is strong enough to cause complete depolarization, it has reached (a) threshold |
|
|
cattle and swine display what type of estrous cycle? a. polyestrous b. seasonally polyestrous c. diestrous d. monoestrous |
cattle and swine display (A) a polyestorus cycle cattle and swine continuously cycle throughout the year |
|
|
in what stage of the estrous cycle does the corpus luteum develop? a. proestrus b. estrus c. metestrus d. diestrus |
during (C) metestrus the corpus luteum develops the corpus luteum develops after ovulation |
|
|
the hormone produced by developing ovarian follicle is a. estrogen b. progesterone c. prolactin d. oxytocin |
the hormone produced by developing ovarian follicle is (a) estrogen the corpus luteum produces progesterone. prolactin is produced by the anterior pituitary gland and oxytocin by the posterior pituitary gland |
|
|
what hormone contracts the female reproductive tract to help move spermatozoa intot he ovidcuts? a. estrogen b. progesterone c. prolactin d. oxytocin |
(d) oxytocin contracts the female reproductive tract to help move spermatozoa intot he ovidcuts |
|
|
to achieve a normal pregnancy, the blastocyst attaches to what structure? a. endometrium b. placenta c. oviduct d. cervix |
to achieve a normal pregnancy, the blastocyst attaches to (a) endometrium endometrium is the lining of the uterus |
|
|
which animal has a cotyledonary placenta? a. cat b. dog c. horse d. sheep |
(D) sheep have cotyledonary placenta must ruminatns have cotyledonary placental attachments |
|
|
in cotyledonary placentation the mother's side of the attachment is called the a. caruncle b. cotyledon c. placentome d. polycyton |
in cotyledonary placentation the mother's side of the attachment is called the (a) caruncle the cotyledon is the fetal side of the placenta and the placentoma is the structure that results when the caruncle and cotyledon are joined |
|
|
a pregnant mare has what kind of placentation? a. zonary b. cotyledonary c. diffuse d. discoid |
a pregnant mare has (c) diffuse placentation |
|
|
a pregnant bitch has what kind of placentation? a. zonary b. cotyledonary c. diffuse d. discoid |
a pregnatn bitch has (a) zonary placentation |
|
|
a pregnant rodent has what kind of placentation a. zonary b. cotyledonary c. diffuse d. discoid |
a pregnant rodent has (d) discoid placentation |
|
|
a pregnant queen has what kind of placentation? a. zonary b. cotyledonary c. diffuse d. discoid |
a pregnant queen has (a) zonary placentation |
|
|
how many mammary glands are typically found on a bitch? a. 8-12 b. 12-14 c. 4-6 d. 10-16 |
(a) 8-12 mammary glands are typically found on a bitch the number varies but typically there are 4 thoracic mammae, four abdominal mammae and two inguinal mammae |
|
|
acetylecholine is released as a neurotransmitter by a. effector organs b. sensory bodies c. postganglionic parasympathic nerve fibers d. postganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers |
acetylecholine is released as a neurotransmitter by (c) postganglionic parasympathetic nerve fibers postganglionic sympathetic neurons release epinephrine or norepeinephrine |
|
|
on an electrocardiogram the T wave is most closely associated with a. atrial depolarization b. atrial repolarization c. ventricular depolarization d. ventricular repolarziation |
on an electrocardiogram the T wave is most closely associated with (d) ventricular repolarization |
|
|
on an electrocardiogram, the P wave is most closely associated with a. atrial depolarization b. atrial repolarization c. ventricular depolarization d. ventricular repolarization |
on an electrocardiogram, the P wave is most closely associated with (a) atrial depolarization |
|
|
which of the following conditions is most life threatening? a. atrial fibrillation b. ventricular fibrillation c. first-degree heart block d. complete heart block |
(b) ventricular fibrillation is most life threanting in ventricular fibrillation there is effectively no blood being pumped by the heart |
|
|
increasing a neuron's permeability to Na+ will cause a. hyperexcitability b. an increase in the intensity of the stimulus required to generate an action potential c. the neuron to become more hyperpolarized d. the membrane potential of the neuron to become more negative |
increasing a neuron's permeability to Na+ will cause (a) hyperexcitability lidocaine, a local anesthetic, is a Na+ channel blocker, that is it does the opposite of increasing permeability to Na+ |
|
|
which of the following dissections could be made without cutting through a bone to bone joint? a. forelimb from the body b. hind limb from the body c. head from the neck d. tial from the body |
(a) a forelimb from the body dissection could be made without cutting through a bone to bone joint there are only muscular connections between the scapula and torso |
|
|
the initial process of converting glucose into fat is called a. lipogenesis b. gluconeogenesis c. glycogenolysis d. fatty acid synthesis |
the initial process of converting glucose into fat is called (d) fatty acid synthesis lipogenesis is a term used to describe storing of fatty acids that are already formed |
|
|
which of the following is true about anaerobic metabolism? a. fat can be used b. glucose can be used c. it takes place in the mitochondria d. oxygen must be present |
in regards to anaerobic metabolism, (b) glucose can be used glucose is the primary nutrient used in anaerboic metabolism |
|
|
the amount of energy an animal would acquire form burning off adipose tissue would be a. 7700 kcal/kg b. 4 kcal/kg c. 4 kcal/g d. 9 kcal/kg |
the amount of energy an animal would acquire form burning off adipose tissue would be (a) 7700 kcal/kg if adipose were composed entirely of fat the correct answer would be higher (approx 9000 kcal/kg); however adipose is also constructed of connective tissue (protein) and blood vessels (Water) all of which decrease the caloric density of adipose tissue |
|
|
efferent nerves carry nerve impulses a. to the body from the central nervous system b. to the body from the spinal cord c. formt he body to the central nervous system d. form one part of a limb to another part of the samee limb |
efferent nerves carry nerve impulses (c) from the body to the central nervous system |
|
|
the name for the bile acid-lipid unit that carries fat within the gut is a. LPL b. Micelles c. VLDL d. chyomicrons |
the name for the bile acid-lipid unit that carries fat within the gut is (B) micelles |
|
|
what the lay press calls "good cholesterol" is actually a lipoprotein that is called a. chylomicron b. LPL c. LDL d. HDL |
what the lay press calls "good cholesterol" is actually a lipoprotein that is called(d) HDL the primary function of high-density liporotein HDL is to carry choolesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver |
|
|
the p wave component of a QRS complex usually corresponds to a. atrial contraction b. ventricular contraction c. atrial relaxation d. electrical conduction in Purkinje fibers |
the p wave component of a QRS complex usually corresponds to (a) atrial contraction elicited by atrial depolarization |
|
|
sympathetic stimulation of the heart increases strength of contractions by a. frank-starling mechanism b. increasing the firing rate of the SA node c. depolarizing the bundle of His d. increasing permeability of heart muscle to calcium |
sympathetic stimulation of the heart increases strength of contractions by (d) increasing permeability of heart muscle to calcium increasing the rate of contractions does not increase the strength of contractions |
|
|
the hormone that lowers the level of glucose in the blood by aiding the passage of glucose into cells is a. glucagon b. calcitonin c. growth hormone d. insulin |
the hormone that lowers the level of glucose in the blood by aiding the passage of glucose into cells is (d) insulin |
|
|
the hormone that is regulated by the renin-angiotensin system is a. aldosterone b. antiduiretic hormone c. thyroid homrone d. prolactin |
the hormone that is regulated by the renin-angiotensin system is (a0 aldosterone |
|
|
what type of hormone is bovine somatotorpin (BST)? a. estrogen b. growth hormone c. prolactin d. insulin |
bovine somatotropin (BST) is a (B) growth hormone bovine somatotropin is the naturally occuring growth hormone of cattle |
|
|
cerebrospinal fluid lies within the a. epidural space b. subdural space c. subarachnoid space d. epiarachnoid space |
cerebrospinal fluid lies within the (c) subarachnoid space |
|
|
which of the following is not a response of increased stimulation to the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system? a. constriction of the pupils b. dilation of the bronchioles c. decreased heart rate d. increased digestive activity |
constriction of the pupils, decreased heart rate, and increased digestive activity are all responses of the increased stimulation to the parasympathetic division of hte autonomic nervous system but (b0 dilatioin of the bronchioles is not |
|
|
the anterior pituitary hormone that promotes follicular development on the ovary is a. LH b. glucagon c. FSH d. estrogen |
the anterior pituitary hormone that promotes follicular development on the ovary is (c) FSH, follicle stimulating hormone |
|
|
what structure is not part of the "foot" of a horse? a.hoof and corium b. distal end of the proximal phalanx c. distal phalanx d.navicular bone |
(B) the proximal phalanx is not included as part of the foot of the horse the hoof and corium, the distal phalanx and the navicular bone are all included as parts of the foot of the horse |
|
|
the dermis is also called the
a. cutis b. subcutis c. corium d. subcorium |
the dermis is also called the (c) corium the subcutis is also called the hypodermis |
|
|
what layer of the skin contains sebaceous and sweat glands? a. dermis b. epidermis c. subcorium d. hypodermis |
the (a) dermis contains sebaceous and sweat glands |
|
|
the glands found on the lips of cats used for marking territory are called
a. apocrine sweat glands b. circumoral glands c. horn glands d. anal sacs |
the glands found on the lips of cats used for marking territory are called (b) circumoral glands |
|
|
dog hair grows a. in cycles b. continously c. from specialized glands d. in layers |
dog hair grows (a) in cycles |
|
|
what structure is located most distal on a horse's leg? a. ergot b. elbow joint c. chestnut d. withers |
the (a) ergot is the most distal structure on the horse's leg of the structures listed |
|
|
which of the following types of hair make up the undercoat of mammals and are also called wool hairs? a. primary b. tactile c. vibrissa d. secondary |
(D) secondary hairs make up the undercoat of mammals and are also called wool hairs |
|
|
where is the sensitive laminae of an equine hoof located? a. frog b. wall c. white line d. bars |
the sensitive laminae of an equine hoof is located on the (C) white line the white line should not be penetrated with the nail during shoeing because the anil will enter the sensitive laminae layer |
|
|
an animal's body temperature is not routinely affected by a. drinking water b. sex of the animal c. exercise d. time of day |
an animal's body temperature is not routinely affected by (b) the sex of the animal drinking water, exercise, and the time of day can all affect an animal's body temperature |
|
|
evaporation of water from the body results in cooling. which of the following causes the most common types of evaporated heat loss in animals? a. running, drinking b. drinking, panting c. panting, sweating d. sweating, bathing |
evaporation of water from the body results in cooling. (C) panting and sweating are the most common types of evaporated heat loss in animals |
|
|
in equine, what term describes a degenerative condition of the frog associated with filth?
a. gravel b. thrush c. toe crack d. corns |
in equine (b) thrush describe a degenerative condition of the frog associated with filth
thrush is defined as a degnerative condition of the frog associated with standing in wet, filthy, and contaminated grounds |
|
|
in equine, what term describes a drainage tract resulting from a crack in the white line? a. corn b. white line disease c. gravel d. seedy toe |
in equine, (c) gravel describes a drainage tract resulting from a crack in the white line gravel is a term used to describe a drainage tract up the sensitive laminae cause dby a crack in the hoof wall |
|
|
how many bones are found in the normal equine carpus? a. 1-2 b. 3-4 c. 6-7 d. 9-10 |
(c) 6-7 bones are found in the normal equine carpus carpal bones 1 and 5 are present in a minority of horses |
|
|
the function of the muscles making up the quadriceps femoris is a. extension of the elbow b. extension of the stifle c. flexion of the hock d. flexion of the stifle |
the function of the muscles making up the quadriceps femoris is (b) extension of the stifle the main function of the muscles of the quadriceps is to extend the stifle |
|
|
toxins that interfere with the function of acetylecholinestererase would have what effect on muscle fibers a. they would prevent contraciton completely, so the muscle would be paralyzed b. they would cause the muscles to become very weak and flaccid c. the muscle fiber would continue to contract causing tremors and cramping d. they would cause rigor mortis |
toxins that interfere with the function of acetylecholinesterase have the following effect on muscle fibers (C) the muscle fiber would continue to contract causing tremors and cramping the acetylcholine within the synaptic cleft wound continue to stimulate the muscle |
|
|
the space between the nerve end and the sacrolemma of the muscle is called the a. neurolemma b. synaptic cleft c. nodes of ranvier d. synaptic knob |
the space between the nerve end and the sacrolemma of the muscle is called the (b) synaptic cleft |
|
|
aqueous humor is secreted by the a. ciliary body b. sclera c. choroid layer of the retina d. iris |
aqueous humor is secreted by the (a) ciliary body |
|
|
a cat presents with a urolith (stone) blocking the urethra. where is the first place that the urine backs up into? a. renal pelvis b. bladder c. kidney d. ureter |
a cat presents with a urolith (stone) blocking the urethra. the first place the urine backs up into is the (B) bladder |
|
|
the most important function of ADH is to a. decrease water reabsorption by the distal convoluted tubules b. increase water reabsorption by the distal convoluted tubules c. decrease water reabsorption by the glomerulus d. increase water reabsorption by the glomerulus |
the most important function of ADH is to (b) increase water reabsorption by the distal convoluted tubules antidiuretic hormone causes the kidney to conserve water when the body gets dehydrated |
|
|
the major factor determining glomerular filtration rate is a. pulse rate b. carbon dioxide saturation of blood c. oxygen saturation of blood d. blood pressure |
the major factor determining glomerular filtration rate is (d) blood pressure |
|
|
what is a normal function of estrogen? a. inducing estrus b. decreasing blood flow to the uterus c. inducing parturition d. constricting the cervix |
a normal function of estrogen is (A) inducing estrus |
|
|
what two organs have receptors to and thus are responsive to oxytocin? a. ovary and uterus b. ovary and vagina c. uterus and mammary glands d. colon and mammary glands |
the (C) uterus and mammary glands have receptors to and are thus responsive ot oxytocin oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions and milk let-down |
|
|
the hormone that regulates sodium reabsorption in the nephron is a. ADH b. estrogen c. aldosterone d. calcitonin |
the hormone that regulates sodium reabsorption in the nephron is (c) aldosterone aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid hormone produced in the adrenal cortex |
|
|
osteoclasts are cells involved in bone destruction. their activity is increased by a. calcitonin b. parathyroid hormone (PTH) c. thyroxine (T4) d. aldosterone |
osteoclasts are cells involved in bone destruction. their activity is increased by (b) parathyroid hormone (PTH) |
|
|
the fibrous layer around bone that is necessary for bone growth, repair, nutrition, and attachment of ligaments and tendons is the a. endosteum b. peritoneum c. periosteum d. mesothelium |
the fibrous layer around bone that is necessary for bone growth, repair, nutrition, and attachment of ligaments and tendons is the (c) periosteum |
|
|
what type of joint movement decreases the angle between bones? a. abduction b. adduction c. extension d. flexion |
(d) flexion decreases the angle between bones |
|
|
the hip joint is classified by which of the following terms? a. no joint capsule, ball-and-socket joint, flexion and extensions b. synovial joint, hinge joint, freely movable c. synovial joint, ball-and-socket joint, universal movement d. no joint capsule, pivot joint, slightly movable |
the hip joint is classified by (c) synovail joint, ball-and-socket joint, universal movement |
|
|
the elbow joint is classified by which of the following terms? a. compound hinge joint, synovial joint, flexion and extension b. synovial joint, ball-and-socket joint, universal movement c. no joint capsule, pivot joint, rotational movement d. simple hinge joint, contains no joint capsule, universal movement |
the elbow joint is (a) a compound hinge joint that moves at right angles causing flexion and extension; it is also a synovial joint |
|
|
the obturator foramen is found a. at the base of the skull b. in the mandible c. in the maxillary bone d. in the pelvis |
the obturator foramen is found (d) in the pelvis the obturator foramen helps reduce the weight of the pelvis |
|
|
during episodes of chronic laminitis, what bone in the equine foot may rotate downward, pressing against the sole causing pain? a. navicular b. coffin c. short pastern d. cannon |
during episodes of chronic laminitis, the (b) coffin bone in the equine foot may rotate downward pressing against the sole causing pain the coffin bone (Distal phalanx) may rotate during chronic episodes of laminitis. this is also called a dropped sole |
|
|
the anatomic name for the hip joint is the a. temporomandibular joint b. glenohumeral joint c. femorotibial jiont d. coxofemoral joint |
the anatomic name for the hip joint is the (d) coxofemoral joint |
|
|
muscle fibers are held together by connective tissue and are enclosed in a sheet of fibrous membrane called a. tendon b. aponeurosis c. fascia d. ligament |
muscle fibers are held together by connective tissue and are enclosed in a sheet of fibrous membrane called (C) fascia fascia is a sheet of fibrous membrane that separates layers of muscles |
|
|
a muscle whose movement increase the angle between two bones is known as a. abductor b. adductor c. extensor d. flexor |
a muscle whose movement increase the angle between two bones is known as (c) extensor the action of an extensor increases the angle between bones |
|
|
the extensive aponeurosis that covers the lower back to joint the superficial muscles in that area is called the a. fascia lata b. cutaneous maximus c. lumbodorsal fascia d. linea alba |
the extensive aponeurosis that covers the lower back to joint the superficial muscles in that area is called the (c) lumbodorsal fascia the lumbodorsal fascia is the extensive aponeurosis that covers the lwoer back |
|
|
the muscles that is located on the shoulder, originates on the clavicle, inserts on the ulna, and whose action is the flex the forearm is the a. clavobrachialis b. pectoantebrachialis c. sternomastoid d. latissimus dorsi |
the muscles that is located on the shoulder, originates on the clavicle, inserts on the ulna, and whose action is the flex the forearm is the (a) clavobrachialis |
|
|
the gluteal muscles include the gluteus medius, gluteus maximus, and the a. biceps femoris b. tensor fascia lata c. sartorius d. caudofemoralis |
the gluteal muscles include the gluteus medius, gluteus maximus, and the (d) caudofemoralis |
|
|
which of the following sequences lists the abdominal muscle layers in order, starting with the most superficial? a. external oblique, internal oblique, transverse abdominis b. external oblique, internal oblique, rectus abdominis c. internal oblique, external oblique, transverse abdominis d. rectus abdominis, internal oblique, external oblique |
the abdominal muscle layers in order from most superficial to deepest are (a) external oblique, internal oblique, transverse abdominis |
|
|
the muscle that is found in the midventral abdominal area on either side of the linea alba, extending from the pubis to the upper ribs and sternum is the a. transverse abdominis b. latissimus dorsi c. rectus abdominis d. spinotrapezuis |
the muscle that is found in the midventral abdominal area on either side of the linea alba, extending from the pubis to the upper ribs and sternum is the (c) rectus abdominis |
|
|
which is a powerful muscle of the head that contributes to the act of chewing by closing the mouth? a. digastricus b. massater c. mylohyodeus d. platysma |
the (B) massater is a pwoerful muscle of the head that contributes to the act of chewing by closing the mouth |
|
|
what muscle condition would result from a lack of use, such as during immobilization of a fractured bone or as a result of nerve damage to a body part? a. myopathy b. atrophy c. hypertrophy d. myalgia |
(B0 atropy is a muscle condition that would result from a lack of use, such as during immobilization of a fractured bone or as a result of nerve damage to a body part atrophy is describe as a decrease in muscle size resulting from lack of use |
|
|
what muscle is observed from the medial surface of the thigh? a. gracilis b. gastrocnemius c. biceps femoris d. caudofemoralis |
the (A) gracilis is a muscle observed from the media surface of the thigh the gracilis is a braod superficial muscle extending down from the medial surface of the thigh to insert on the tibia |
|
|
the chief action of the quadriceps femoris group is to a. flex the foot b. extend the stifle c. extend the elbow d. abduct the hind leg |
the chief action of the quadriceps femoris group is to (b) extend the stifle the quadriceps muscles include the rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, and the vastus intermedius that act to extend the stifle and flex the hip |
|
|
what is the chief action of the three heads of the triceps brachii? a. extension of the forearm b. flexor of the lower hind limb c. adduction of the shoulder d. flexion of the neck |
the chief action of the three heads of the triceps brachii is (a) extension of the forearm the triceps brachii muscles, which include the long, lateral, and medial heads, work to extend the elbow or forearm |
|
|
which of the following is not a function of the muscular system? a. protection b. generation of body heat c. transport of ingest through intestinal tract d. movement of the skeleton |
generation of body heat, transport of ingesta through the intestinal tract, and movement of the skeleton are all functions of the muscular system but (a) protection is not the muscular system does not act to protect the body. this is the function of the integumentary system |
|
|
which one of the following works in opposition to the prime mover, relaxing as the prime mover is contracting? a. fixator b. antagonist c. synergist d. flexor |
(b) the antagonist works in opposition to the prime mover, relaxing as the prime mover is contracting |
|
|
the huge, comma-shaped section of the large intestine of the horse that occupies much of the right side of the abdomen is the a. cecum b. colon c. rectum d. ileum |
the huge, comma-shaped section of the large intestine of the horse that occupies much of the right side of the abdomen is the (a) cecum |
|
|
which of the following lists the sections of the small intestine in order from anterior to posterior? a. jejunum, ileum, duodenum c. duodenum, colon, jejunum c. ileum, duodenum, cecum d. duodenum, jejunum, ileum |
the sections of the small intestine in order from anterior to posterior is (D) duodenum, jejunum, ileum |
|
|
in what portion fothe ruminant digestive system does most of hte microbial fermentation take place? a. abomasum b. duodenum c. rumen d. omasum |
most microbial fermentation takes place in the (c) rumen of the ruminant digestive system the rumen is called the fermentation vat and is responsible for the majority of the fermentaiton |
|
|
in the ruminant animal, the fermentation process produces gas in the rumen, which if not eliminated can cause a condition called bloat. what instrument can be used to relieve this condition a. emasculator b. troacr c. burdizzo d. rochester-carmalt forceps |
in the ruminant animal, the fermentation process produces gas in the rumen, which if not eliminated can cause a condition called bloat. the instrument that can be used to relieve this condition is the (B) trocar the troacar is a sharp instrument used to relieve bloat in ruminants by puncturing the abdominal wall into the rumen to release gas |
|
|
rumination is a cycle of activity composed of four phases. which of the following is not included in this process? a. eructation b. remastication c. redeglutition d. reurination |
rumination is a cycle of activity composed of four phases. (d) reurination is not part of this process rumination is a four-stage process consisting of eructation, reinsalivation, remastication, and redeglutition |
|
|
where does fermentation occur in nonruminant herbivores such as the horse? a. jejunum and ileum b. cecum and colon c. ileum and cecum d. rumen and cecum |
in nonruminant herbivores such as horses fermentation occurs in the (B) cecum and colon |
|
|
what organ is located immediately behind the diaphragm in the carnivore? a. liver b. spleen c. pancreas d. kidney |
the (a) liver is located immediately behind the diaphragm in the carnivore
|
|
|
hardware disease is usually associated with ingestion of nails, wire, or other sharp objects. the portion of the digestive tract that collects these objects is the a. reticulum b. omasum c. rumen d. abomasum |
hardware disease is usually associated with ingestion of nails, wire, or other sharp objects. the portion of the digestive tract that collects these objects is the (a) reticulum the reticulum is the most proximal portion of the ruminant stomach and collects hardware swallowed during grazing |
|
|
the connecting peritoneum that suspends the intestinal tract fromt he abdominal wall and contains vessels, nerves, and lymphatics that supply their respective organs is the a. mesentery b. omentum c. pleura d. omasum |
the connecting peritoneum that suspends the intestinal tract fromt he abdominal wall and contains vessels, nerves, and lymphatics that supply their respective organs is the (a) mesentery |
|
|
what structure divides the rostral part of the pharynx into the oropharynx and nasopharynx? a. tongue b. hard palate c. epiglottis d. soft palate |
the (D) soft palate divides the rostral part of the pharynx into the oropharynx and nasopharynx |
|
|
the cell membrane that surrounds tissue cells is made up of a. two lipid layers that surround a protein layer b. two protein layers that surround a lipid layer c. an outer protein layer and an inner lipid layer d. an outer lipid layer and an inner protein layer |
the cell membrane that surrounds tissue cells is made up of (b) two protein layers that surround a lipid layer three layers make up a cell membra;e a lipid layer is sandwiched between the two protein layers |
|
|
what type of epithelium lines the upper portion of the respiratory system and plays an important role in the body's defense mechanism? a. pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium b. stratified columnar epithelium c. simple ciliated cuboidal epithelium d. stratified squamous epithelium |
the (A) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium lines the upper portion of the respiratroy systema nd plays an important role in the body's defense mechanism the wave like motion of cilia helps move mucus and debris out of the respiratory system |
|
|
the type of epithelial cell capable of significant variation in shape, depending on changes in the size of the organ that it lines is called a a. squamous epithelium b. columnar epithelium c. transition epithelium d. cubodial epithelium |
the type of epithelial cell capable of significant variation in shape, depending on changes in the size of the organ that it lines is called a (c) transition epithelium transitional epithelium is cubodial when tissue is not in a contracted state but it may become flattened when an organ is distended |
|
|
the mineral most important for normal contraction of striated muscle fibers is a. phosphorus b. iron c. calcium d. magnesium |
the mineral most important for normal contraction of striated muscle fibers is (c) calcium calcium is invoeld in the breakage and recoupling of a cross linkages between myofilaments in a striated muscle fiber |
|
|
ccardiac muscle fibers can be identified by a. the presence of cross striations and peripheral nuclei b. the absence of cross striations and the presence of central nuclei c. the absence of cross striations and the presence of peripheral nuceli d. the presence of cross striations and central nuclei |
ccardiac muscle fibers can be identified by (D) the presence of cross striations and central nuclei the presence of cross striations and peripheral nuclei describes skeletal muscles. the absence of cross striations and the presence of central nuclei describes smooth muscle |
|
|
the junctions between adjacent cardiac muscle fibers are called a. terminal bars b. intercalated disks c. motor end plates d. synapses |
the junctions between adjacent cardiac muscle fibers are called (b) intercalated disks terminal bars are the attachments between columnar epithelial cells. motor end plates are the terminal area of the axon of a motor nerve fiber at the neuromuscular junction. synapses are the site of impulse transmission between neurons |
|
|
regeneration of cardiac muscle fibers following injury a. is possible when the nucleus and part of the cystoplasm are preserved b. occurs through mitotic division of fibers c. does not occur d. occurs from perivascular connective tissue cells |
regeneration of cardiac muscle fibers following injury (c) does not occur skeletal muscle fibers may regenerate when the nucleus and part of the cystoplasm are preserved. mitotic division of smooth muscle fibers is possible through mitotic division of fibers. a possible means of smooth muscle regeneration occurs from perivascular connective tissue cells |
|
|
peritoneum, pleura, and pericardium consist of a flattened arrangement of a. adipose tissue covered by a layer of mesothelium b. hyaline cartilage covered by a layer of endothelium c. loose connective tissue covered by a layer of endothelium d. loose connective tissue covered by a layer of mesothelium |
peritoneum, pleura, and pericardium consist of a flattened arrangement of (d) loose connective tissue covered by a layer of mesothelium |
|
|
the circulatory system is lined by what kind of epithelium? a. simpel columnar b. simple squamous c. stratified squamous d. transitional |
the circulatory system is lined by (b) simple squamous epithelium simpel squamous epithelium forms the very smooth endothelium that lines the entire circulatory system |
|
|
which vessels contain valves? a. arterioles b. capillaries c. lymph capillaries d. medium-sized veins |
(d) medium-sized veins contain valves |
|
|
the valve between the right atrium and right ventricle of the heart is the a. aortic b. mitral c. pulmonary d. tricuspid |
the valve between the right atrium and right ventricle of the heart is the (d) tricuspid valve (aka the right atroventricular valve) |
|
|
the valve at the outflow tract of the right ventricle is the a. aortic b. mitral c. pulmonary d. tricuspid |
the valve at the outflow tract of the right ventricle is the (c) pulmonary valve |
|
|
the left atrioventricular valve is the a. aortic b. mitral c. pulmonary d. tricuspid |
the left atrioventricular valve is the (b) mitral valve t |
|
|
the left ventricular outflow valve is the a. aortic b. mitral c. pulmonary d. tricuspid |
the left ventricular outflow valve is the (a) aortic valve |
|
|
the first heart sound is produced by a. closure of the left and right atrioventricular valves b. closure of the pulmoanry and aortic valves c. contraction of the left and right atria d. contraction of the left and right ventricles |
the first heart sound is produced by (a) closure of hte left and right atrioventricular valves |
|
|
the blood vessel that shunts blood fromt he pulmonary artery to the aorta in the fetus is the a. ductus arteriosus b. foramen ovale c. umbilicus arteriosus d. umbilicus venosus |
the blood vessel that shunts blood fromt he pulmonary artery to the aorta in the fetus is the (a) ductus arteriosus |
|
|
the main component of the tunic media of muscular arteries is a. cardiac muscle fibers b. elastic fibers c. skeletal muscle fibers d. smooth muscle fibers |
the main component of the tunic media of muscular arteries is (d) smooth muscle fibers |
|
|
the pulmonary valve prevents blood from flowing back into the a. left atrium b. right atrium c. left ventricle d. right ventricle |
the pulmonary valve prevents blood from flowing back into the (d) right ventricle the pulmonary valve is the right ventricular outflow valve |
|
|
the mitral valve prevents blood from flowing back into the a. left atrium b. right atrium c. left ventricle d. right ventricle |
the mitral valve prevents blood from flowing back into the (a) left atrium the mitral valve is the left atrioventricular valve |
|
|
the tricuspid valve prevents blood from flowing back into the a. left atrium b. right atrium c. left ventricle d. right ventricle |
the tricuspid valve prevents blood from flowing back into the (b) right atrium the tricuspid valve is the right atrioventricular valve |
|
|
the ductus arteriosus in a fetus joins the a. aorta and pulmonary artery b. aorta and pulmonary vein c. vena cava and pulmoanry artery d. vena cava and pulmonary vein |
the ductus arteriosus in a fetus joins the (a) aorta and pulmonary artery the ductus arteriosus shutns blood from the pulmoanry artery to the aorta of a fetus |
|
|
the valve that prevents blood from flowing back into the left ventricle at the end of ventricular systole is the a. aortic b. mitral c. pulmonary d. tricuspid |
the valve that prevents blood from flowing back into the left ventricle at the end of ventricular systole is the (a) aortic valve the aortic valve is the left ventricular outflow valve |
|
|
the purkinje fibers in the heart are located in the a. interventricular septum b. left and right ventricular walls c. right atrial wall d. interatrial septum |
the purkinje fibers in the heart are located in the (b) left and right ventricular walls the purkinje fibers conduct impulses from the bundle of His to the walls of the ventricles |
|
|
which structure of the fetal heart largely allows blood to bypass the pulmonary circulation? a. foramen magnum b. foramen ovale c. nutrient foramen d. obturator foramen |
the purkinje fibers in the heart are located in the (b) foramen ovale the foramen magnum, nutrient foramen, and obturator foramen are all bony foramina |
|
|
the large lympoid organ that sotres blood but is not essential to life is the a. kidney b liver c. pancreas d. spleen |
the large lympoid organ that sotres blood but is not essential to life is the (d) spleen |
|
|
which of the following is not a feature of the right isde of the heart? a. atrium b. chordae tendineae c. pulmonary valve d. mitral valve |
(d) the mitral valve is not a feature of the right side of the heart |
