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368 Cards in this Set
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What is the morphology of Vibrio sp. bacteria? a. bacillus b. coccus c. spirochete d. coccobacillus |
The morphology of vibrio sp. bacteria is (A) bacillus Vibrios are gram negative, curved rods |
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In the Gram stain procedure the mordant is a. crystal violet b. iodine c. alcohol d. safranin |
In the Gram stain procedure, the mordant is (b) iodine Iodine fixes crystal violet in gram-positive bacteria |
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Which of the following is an important function of bacterial fimbriae? a. attachment b. locomotion c. ion transport d. antibiotic resistance |
An important function of bacterial fimbriae is (A) attachment |
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Sarcinae morphology refers to what kind of bacterial arrangement? a. pairs b. grape like clusters c. groups of four d. cubes of eight |
Sarcinae morphology refers bacteria arranged in cubes of eight. |
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An iodine scrub on the skin would result in a. antisepsis b. disinfection c. fumigation d. sterilization |
An iodine scrub on skin would result in (a) antisepsis Antisepsis is destruction or inhibition of microbes on skin or living tissue; disinfection is the same but on inanimate objects. sterilization is the complete destruction of living organisms |
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Lyophilization is a. holding at 72 degrees Celsius for 15 seconds b. competitive inhibtion c. freeze- drying d. sterility testing |
Lyophilization is (c) freeze-drying |
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Compared to bacteria, fungi a. grow better at alkaline pH b. need less moisture to survive c. are less resistant to osmotic pressure d. are smaller |
Compared to bacteria, fungi (B) need less moisture to survive |
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The temperature that must be reached in an autoclave to destroy microorganisms is a. 110 degrees Celsius b. 121 degrees Celsius c. 170 degrees Celsius d. 240 degrees Celsius |
The temperature that must be reached in an autoclave to destroy microorganisms is (B) 121 degrees Celsius |
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The humoral immune system involves a. monocytes b. B cells c. T cells d. Erythrocytes |
The humoral immune system involves (b) B cells B cells produced antibodies used for humoral immunity |
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The sulfosalicyclic acid test of urine is used to detect a. bilirubin b. protein c. glucose d. hemoglobin |
The sulfosalicyclic acid test of urine is used to detect (b) protein |
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Urine samples should be centrifuged at a. low speed (1000 to 3000 rpm) for 20 minutes b. high speed (6000 to 10,000 rpm) for 20 minutes c. low speed (1000 to 3000 rpm) for 5 minutes d. high speed (6000 to 10,000 rpm) for 5 minutes |
Urine samples should be centrifuged at (c) low speed (1000 to 3000 rpm) for 5 minutes |
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You could observe a right shift on a stained blood smear of blood a. drawn from artery b. frozen before a smear was made c. stored at room temperature for a week d. collected in the wrong anticoagulant |
You could observe a right shift on a stained blood smear of blood (c) stored at room temperature for a week A right shift is characterized by hypersegmented neutrophils (>5 nuclear lobes). This would most likely be seen on smear of old, nonpreserved blood, because the neutrophils will continue to mature in the blood sample until they die of old age. THis is why it is important to make the blood smear form the freshest blood, preferably before it goes into anticoagulant |
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The ability to obtain the same results, time after time, on the same sample is, a. accuracy b. reliability c. quality control d. precision |
The ability to obtain the same results,time after time, on the same sample is, (d) precision |
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The extent to which measurements agree with the true value of the quantity a. accuracy b. reliability c. quality control d. precision |
The extent to which measurements agree with the true value of the quantity (a) accuracy |
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Controls are a. solutions with known constituents analyzed to calibrate instruments b. run on a weekly basis c. solutions with known properties that are analyzed for quality-control purposes d. used if a problem occurs |
Controls are (c) solutions with known properties that are analyzed for quality-control purposes controls are run for quality-control purposes only. they are not used to calibrate instruments |
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When interpreting quality-control data, a trend is defined as a. a change in the analytic system that happens abruptly and continues at a new level b. an abrupt change from high to low and then from low to high control levels c. a gradual change in control values, either to increase or decrease over a period of 6 consecutive days d. an increase or decrease in which control values are distributed on one side of a mean line and maintained at a constant level |
When interpreting quality-control data, a trend is defined as (c) a gradual change in control values, either to increase or decrease over a period of 6 consecutive days |
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what nuclear characteristic is associated with the most immature stage of eosinophil maturation? a. segmentation b. hypersegmentation c. chromatin clumping d. nucleoli |
The nuclear characteristic associated with the most immature stage of eosinophil maturation is (d) nucleoli |
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What organ has both lymphatic and hematologic functions? a. spleen b. pancreas c. tonsils d. liver |
The (a) spleen has both lymphatic and hematologic functions |
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which of these is not a function of the lymphatic system? a. transport of waste materials b. leukocyte production c. removal of excess tissue fluid d. protein transport |
Transport of waste materials, removal of excess tissue fluid, and protein transport are functions of the lymphatic system meaning (B) leukocyte production is not a function of the lymphatic system. Leukocyte production takes please in the bone marrow |
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What organ has storage sinuses that hold blood and release it into circulation when the need for oxygen is increased? a. spleen b. pancreas c. parathyroid d. liver |
the (A) spleen has storage sinuses that hold blood and release it into circulation when the need for oxygen is increased |
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What is the noncellular portion of anticoagulated whole blood called after it has been centrifuged? a. serum b. plasma c. anticoagulant d. hemolysin |
The noncellular portion of anticoagulated whole blood after it has been centrifuged is (b) plasma |
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What tissue processes B cells before they are sent to peripheral lymphoid tissue? A. GLNB B. GALB C. GALT D. GLAN |
The (C) GALT processes B cells before they are sent to peripheral lymphoid tissue Gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT)is often compared to the bursa of fabricius in birds where B lymphocytes are processed before being sent to peripheral lymphoid tissue |
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what would not cause shifts or trends in quality-control data? a. new lot numbers of reagents b. change in calibration of the instrument c. outdated reagents d. change in laboratory personnel |
New lot numbers of reagents, change in calibration of the instruments, and outdated reagents could cause shifts or trends in quality control data but (d) changes in laboratory personnel would not Quality-control data should not change when the people who conduct the tests are well trained and conscientious |
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what error is not detectable through use of quality-control program? a. poor technique b. sample quality c. equipment malfunctions d. reagent contamination or degeneration |
Poor technique, equipment malfunctions, and reagent contamination or degeneration are errors which are detectable through the use of quality-control programs but (b) sample quality is not. it is not possible to tell, through the use of quality-control measures, whether the samples are of acceptable quality. Example: a red-top tube may not have been handled properly before separating but the instrument may still produced a value; however it may not be accurate |
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To separate serum, whole blood should be spun down in a centrifuge at a. 4500 rpm for 30 minutes b. 10,000 rpm for 10 minutes c. 8500 rpm for 30 minutes d. 3500 rpm for 10 minutes |
To separate serum, whole blood should be spun down in a centrifuge at (d) 3500 rpm for 10 minutes centrifuging a sample at too high a speed or for an extended period may cause hemolysis |
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When mailing glass slides you must not a. send unstained slides b. send slides with samples preserved in formalin c. send slides in cardboard mailers d. send labeled slides |
When mailing glass slides, you mus tnot (B) send slides with samples preserved in formalin Slides should not be sent in the same package as formalin samples because the fumes can affect the slides |
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EDTA, sodium citrate, and sodium oxalate anticoagulants work by a. binding calcium b. chelating potassium c. forming soluable complexes d. removing fibrinogen |
EDTA, sodium citrate, and sodium oxalate anticoagulants work by (a) binding calcium Most anticoagulants work by forming insoluable complexes with calcium |
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When plasma is required for blood chemistry analysis, the anticoagulant of choice is a. EDTA b. sodium or lithium heparin c. sodium or lithium oxalate d. sodium floride |
When plasma is required for blood chemistry analysis, the anticoagulant of choice is (b) sodium or lithium heparin Heparin interferes the least with chemical assays |
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What anticoagulant is the first choice for coagulation studies? a. potassium oxalate b. sodium heparin c. calcium oxalate d. sodium citrate |
(D) sodium citrate is the first choice for coagulation studies because the anticoagulation is easily reversed by the addition of ionized calcium |
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Sodium citrate is used for coagulation tests because it chelates calcium, allowing the coagulation process to be easily reversed by the addition of a. thrombin b. ionized calcium c. prothrombin d. fibrinogen |
Sodium citrate is used for coagulation tests because it chelates calcium, allowing the coagulation process to be easily reversed by the addition of (b) ionized calcium |
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Which of the following is not a consideration when choosing the gauge and the length of a needle for blood sample collection a. amount of blood needed b. condition of phlebotomy sites c. tests to be run d. size of the animal |
Amount of blood needed, condition of phlebotomy sites, and size of the animal are all considerations when choosing the gauge and length of a needle for blood sample collection but (B) tests to be run is not
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IF you are unable to perform chemistry tests on a sample for a week, you should a. centrifuge the sample, separate the serum, and freeze it b. place the sample in the refrigerator c. place the sample in the freezer d. centrifuge the sample, separate the serum, and refrigerate it |
IF you are unable to perform chemistry tests on a sample for a week, you should (A) centrifuge the sample, separate the serum, and freeze it |
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Diagnostic testing performed in a laboratory setting, outside of the animal's body is a. in vita testing b. in viva testing c. in vivo testing d. in vitro testing |
Diagnostic testing performed in a laboratory setting, outside of the animal's body is (D) in vitro testing |
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Performing a group of blood chemistry tests to evaluate the overall health of an animal is a. biochemical profiling b. quality-control assurances c. a complete body count d. prognostic evaluation |
Performing a group of blood chemistry tests to evaluate the overall health of an animal is (A) biochemical profiling) |
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The anticoagulant used to preserve blood for glucose levels for blood chemistry analysis is a. EDTA b. sodium or lithium heparin c. sodium or lithium oxalate d. sodium fluoride |
The anticoagulant used to preserve blood for glucose levels for blood chemistry analysis is (D) sodium fluoride |
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In terms of approximate equivalents, one drop of serum is equivalent to a. 50 microliters b. 100 microliters c. 10 microliters d. 500 microliters |
In terms of approximate equivalents, one drop of serum is equivalent to (A) 50 microliters |
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As a general rule, sufficient blood should be collected from the animal to yield enough serum, plasma, or whole blood to run each test how many times? a. 1 b. 5 c. 3 d. 7 |
As a general rule, sufficient blood should be collected from the animal to yield enough serum, plasma, or whole blood to run each test (c) 3 times TEchnician, reagent, or equipment error may result int he need to repeat a test. some results may require dilution of the sample and retesting. it is good practice to initially collect enough blood in case repeat testing is necessary |
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For most of blood chemistry examinations, serum or plasma are stable at room temperature for a. 4 to 7 hours b. 4 to 7 days c. 4 to 7 weeks d. 4 to 7 months |
For most of blood chemistry examinations, serum or plasma are stable at room temperatures for (A) 4 to 7 hours General recommendation - chemicals in serum or plasma are least stable at room temp |
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For most of blood chemistry examinations, serum or plasma are stable at refrigerated temperatures for a. 4 to 7 hours b. 4 to 7 days c. 4 to 7 weeks d. 4 to 7 months |
For most of blood chemistry examinations, serum or plasma are stable at refrigerated temperatures for (B) 4 to 7 days general recommendation - chemicals in serum or plasma are more stable when refrigerated than at room temp |
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For most of blood chemistry examinations, serum or plasma are stable at frozen temperatures for a. 4 to 7 hours b. 4 to 7 days c. 4 to 7 weeks d. 4 to 7 months |
For most of blood chemistry examinations, serum or plasma are stable at (d) 4 to 7 months general recommendation - chemicals in serum or plasma are stable the longest when frozen although freezing may affect some tests |
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False elevations in potassium and inorganic phosphorus levels can be expected in a serum sample that is a. lipemic b. hemolyzed c. icteric d. refrigerated |
False elevations in potassium and inorganic phosphorus levels can be expected in a serum sample that is (b) hemolyzed Hemolysis (rupture of erythrocytes) releases intracellular components into the surrounding fluid (serum or plasma). among these intracellular components potassium is the principal cation; levels of potassium in the serum or plasma, therefore increase in hemolysis. Most of the phsophorus found in whole blood is organic phosphorus found inside erythrocytes ; inorganic phosphorus is found in the serum or plasma. Organic phosphorus released in hemolysis may interfere with the phosphorus assay performed on serum or plasma |
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A serum sample that is extremely icteric generally derives its color from an increased level of a. lipids b. total bilirubin c. electrolytes d. glucose |
A serum sample that is extremely icteric generally derives its color from an increased level of (B) total bilirubin Icterus is caused by an increase in the total bilirubin in the blood; total bilirubin is a combination of conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin. Icteric (For yellow) serum or plasma is frequently seen in animals with liver dz or hemolytic anemia |
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What is not a method of culturing animal viruses? a. laboratory animal inoculation b. cell culture c. agar plate inoculation d. embryonated egg inoculation |
Laboratory animal inoculation, cell culture, and embryonated egg inoculation are methods of culturing animal viruses but (C) agar plate inoculation is not Viruses multiply in living itssue only |
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What laboratory test evaluates kidney function and is a breakdown product of protein? a. glucose b. SGTP (ALT) c. creatinine d. BUN |
(D) BUN is a laboratory test used to evaluate kidney function and is a breakdown product of protein Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is a breakdown product of protein that healthy, functioning kidneys remove. SGTP is a liver function test, creatinine is a breakdown product of muscle creatine that the kidneys also normally remove increased glucose levels may indicate diabetes |
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what immunoglobulin is usually present ingreatest quantity a. IgA b.IgD c.IgE d.IgG |
(d) IgG is the immunoglobulin usually present in greatest quantity |
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The most common portal of entry for microorganisms into the body is a. skin b. gastrointestinal tract c. respiratory tract d. genitourinary tract |
The most common portal of entry for microorganisms into the body is (c) respiratory tract |
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which of the following would be a parenteral route of pathogen transmission a. transfusion b. contaminated food c. droplet infection d. direct contact |
(a) transfusion is a parenteral route of pathogen transmission |
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phagocytes are a type of a. red blood cell b. white blood cell c. platelet d. antibody |
phagocytes are a type of (b) white blood cell |
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Creatinine concentrations in serum are influenced by a. hydration level b. amylase concentration c. liver disease d. insulin production |
Creatinine concentrations in serum are influenced by (a) hydration level |
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nonrenal causes of increased levels of urea might include a. the amount of carbohydrate ingested b. the amount of protein ingested c. insufficient insulin d. insufficient ADH |
nonrenal causes of increased levels of urea might include (b) the amount of protein ingested |
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decrease in albumin may occur in a. chronic liver disease b. a carnivorous diet c. gastroenteritis d. a vegetarian diet |
decrease in albumin may occur in (a) chronic liver disease |
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fibrinogen is considered part of a. total plasma albumin b. total plasma protein c. total serum protein d. total serum globulin |
fibrinogen is considered part of (b) total plasma protein |
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Mesothelial cells are cells that a. line the pleural, peritoneal, and visceral surfaces b. are square with usually one round to oval nucleus c. line blood and lymph vessels d. are squamous with blue to purple oval inclusions |
Mesothelial cells are cells that (A) line the pleural, peritoneal, and visceral surfaces they can be hard to distinguish from macrophages once they have been activated |
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Approximately what percentage of the total erythrocyte mass is replaced every day in healthy mammals under normal circumstances a. 1% b 10% c. 20% d. 30% |
Approximately (a) 1% of the total erythrocyte mass is replaced every day in healthy mammals under normal circumstances The entire blood supply is replenished approximately every 3 months |
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calcium oxalate crystals a. are seen with ethylene glycol toxicity b. have a characterstic coffin-lid apperance c. are seen with hepatic disease d. have three to six sides |
calcium oxalate crystals (a) are seen with ethylene glycol toxicity |
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which of the following tests is not included in a routine CBC? a. total WBC count b.differential WBC count c. total protein d. reticulocyte count |
(d) a reticulocyte count is not included in a routine CBC |
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MCHC is expressed in a. percent b. g/dl c. mg/dl d. mg/L |
MCHC is expressed in (b) g/dl |
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toxic neutrophils may show large a. blue granules b. black granules c. red granules d. purple granules |
toxic neutrophils may show large (d) purple granules |
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which of the following cells has cytoplasmic granules that stain blue to blue-black and grey-blue cytoplasm, often with small vacuoles? a. neutrophil b. small lymphocyte b. basophil d. eosinophil |
(b) a basophil has cytoplasmic granules that stain blue to blue-black and grey-blue cytoplasm, often with small vacuoles |
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Papanicolaou stains are specialized stains used in which of the following procedures? a. red blood cell evaluation b. platelet evaluation c. cytologic evaluation d. parasitic evaluawtion |
papanicolaou stains are specialized stains used in (C) cytologic evaluation |
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supravital staining is a. use of a stain that has extreme toxicity so that vital processes can be stopped abruptly b. use of a stain that has low toxicity so that the vital processes can be studies in live cells c, use of a stain for nuclear material only d. use of a stain for phase contrast microscopy only |
supravital staining is (B) use of a stain that has low toxicity so that the vital processes can be studied in live cells |
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SMudge cells are a. created while spreading blood for making a blood smear b. seen with papanicolaou stains only c. created during the blood smear staining processes d. specific to species with nucleated RBCs only |
smudge cells are (A) created while spreading blood for making a blood smear |
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basophilic stippling may be seen in erythrocytes of patients with which of the following pathologic conditions a. hypersegmented neutrophils b. iron deficiency c. lead poisoning d. vitamin C toxicity |
basophilic stippling may be seen in erythrocytes of patients with (c) lead poisoning |
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Polychromasia in an immature RBC will appear as a ____ on a blood smear stained with new methylene blue stain a. reticulocyte b dohle body c barr body d schistocyte |
Polychromasia in an immature RBC will appear as a (A) reticulocyteon a blood smear stained with new methylene blue stain |
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Cytokines are a. chemicals that elicit a hormonal response after glandular stimulation b. chemicals that attract white blood cells to an area and activate macrophages c. chemicals secreted by monocytes after they ingest a foreign substance d. chemicals found in eosinophil granules that cause them to stain red |
Cytokines are (B) chemicals that attract white blood cells to an area and activate macrophages Cytokines are soluble biologic messenger proteins that control macrophages and lymphocytes taking part in the cell-mediated immune reaction |
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Combined immunodeficiency is a condition in which the animal fails to produce functioning ___ a. plasma cells b. B cells c. T cells d. B and T cells |
Combined immunodeficiency is a condition in which the animal fails to produce functioning (d) B and T cells Combined immunodeficiency occurs in approximately 2-3% of Arabian foals. The foals fail to produce functional T or B cells. They may receive maternal immunoglobulins as they suckle successfully but when the maternal immunoglobulins have been used the foal cannot produce its own antibodies. all foals stricken usually die within 4-6 months as a result of infection |
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What cells are chiefly concerned with the production and secretion of antibodies? a. B lymphocytes b. T lymphocytes c. Neutrophils d. Monocytes |
(a) B lymphocytes are chiefly concerned with the production and secretion of antibodies |
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Serology is the branch of science involved with detection of a. bacteria or fungi b. viruses or prions c. antibodies or antigens d. endoparasites and ectoparasites |
Serology is the branch of science involved with detection of (c) antibodies or antigens |
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ELISA is an acronym for a. Electro-linked immunosorbent assay b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay c. Enzyme-liked immunoassay d. Electrolytic isoantibody assay |
ELISA is an acronym for (b) Enzyme-liked immunosorbent assay |
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Which of these pig parasites can be diagnosed by muscle biopsy? a. Trichinella spiralis b. Oesophagostomum dentatum c. Eimeria suis d. Fasciola hepatica |
(A) trichinella spiralis (a nematode aka pork-worms) can be diagnosed by muscle biopsy Oesophagostomum dentatum is a nematode known as the "Node worm." Emeria suis is a coccidian parasite. Fasciola hepatica is a parasitic trematode aka as the liver fluke or the sheep liver fluke |
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Which of the following is least likely to cause vaccine failure? a. improper storage b. administration during anesthesia c. interference by maternal antibodies d. improper route of administration |
Improper storage, interference by maternal antibodies, and improper route of administration are possible causes of vaccine failure but (b) administration during anesthesia is least likely to cause vaccine failure |
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Which statement concerning ELISA testing is true? a. the test specificity is very low b. washing is a critical step in the methodology c. it may be used to detect only antibodies in the serum d. it is not available in kit form |
Of the statements provided (b) washing is a critical step in the methodology is true concerning ELISA testing Complete washing of test wells used in ELISA is the critical step to ensure accurate results. Follow the manufacturer's instructions explicitly regarding washing procedures |
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What serologic test is used for the diagnosis of autoimmune hemolytic anemia? a. coombs test b. coggins test c. intradermal testing d. latex agglutination test |
(A) a coombs test is a serologic test used for diagnosis of autoimmune hemolytic anemia Coombs tests are used to detect certain antigen-antibody reactions, one of which is used for diagnosis of autoimmune hemolytic anemia |
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Which of these parasites sucks blood from its host? a. Macracanthorhynchus hirudinaceus b. Onchocerca cervicalis c. Metastrongylus apri d. Ctenocephalides felis |
(d) Ctenocephalides felis (the cat flea) sucks blood from its host Fleas suck blood Macracanthorhynchus hirudinaceus is the giant thorny-headed worm. Onchocerca cervicalis are known as neck threadworms. Metastrongylus apri is a lungworm |
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What method favor detect of fluke ova? a. sedimentation b. centrifugal flotation c. simple flotatoin d. direct smear |
(a) sedimentaiton favors detection of fluke ova some fluke ova have a higher specific gravity than many other ova and tehrefore do not float in flotation solutions |
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what is unique about fluke ova that requires a specific detection procedure? a. they are found in fewer numbers than most other ova b. they have a lower specific gravity than most other ova. c. the cysts are the detectable form in feces. d. they have a higher specific gravity than mos tother ova. |
What is unique about fluke ova that requires a special detection procedure is (d) they have a higher specific gravity than most other ova |
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Which of the following is not a fecal flotation solution? a. sodium sulfate b. sugar c. sodium chloride d. sodium nitrate |
sugar, sodium chloride, and sodium nitrate are fecal flotation solutions but (A) sodium sulfate is not |
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to examine for trophozoites, it is best to use a mixture of fresh feces and ____ a. sodium chloride b. sodium nitrate c. zinc sulfate d. physiologic saline |
to examine for trophozoites, it is best to use a mixture of fresh feces and (D) physiologic saline trophozoites may collapse in nonisotonic flotation solutions and may be difficult to recognize |
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a puppy infected with Dirofilaria immitis the day it is born will not test positive for heartworm microfilariae until it is ____ old a. 12 months b. 6 to 7 months c. 3 to 4 months d. 1 month |
a puppy infected with Dirofilaria immitis the day it is born will not test positive for heartworm microfilariae until it is (B) 6 to 7 months old it takes 6 to 7 months for the heartworm to mature and produce microfilariae |
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The ELISA heartworm test kit detects the antigens of a. heartworm microfilariae b. female adult heartworms c. adult heartworms and microfilariae d. toxins produced by adult heartworms |
The ELISA heartworm test kit detects the antigens of (B) female adult heartworms |
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Otodectes cynotis is a a. cestode b. arthropod c. nematode d. trematode |
Otodectes cynotis is an (b) arthropod Otodectes cynotis is an ear mite |
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Transmission of lice is mostly via a. blood-sucking arthropods b. direct contact c. ingestion d. fecal contamination |
transmission of lice is mostly via (B) direct contact |
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a dog becomes infection with Dipylidium caninum by ingestion of a. saliva from infected dog b. feces from an infected dog c. tissues of an infected rabbit d. infected fleas |
a dog becomes infection with Dipylidium caninum by ingestion of (D) infected fleas The infective stage of Dipylidium caninum is found in the flea. rabbits are hosts for taenia pisiformis, another tapeworm of dogs and cats |
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A spurious parasite infection would occur if a. Dipylidium caninum ova were found in feline feces b. Moniezia expansa ova were seen in canine feces c. Strongyloides stercoralis larvae were found in canine feces d. Isospora felis oocysts were found in feline feces |
A spurious parasite infection would occur if (b) Moniezia expansa ova were seen in canine feces a spurious infection is not a true parasite infection. The ova are present because the dog has ingested ruminant feces that contain moniezia |
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In puppies, transplacental transmission is the primary route of infection for a. Dipylidium b. Toxocara c. Ancylostoma d. Trichuris |
In puppies, transplacental transmission is the primary route of infection for (B) toxocara |
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The most common intermediate host of Taenia pisiformis is a a. ruminant b. flea c. fly d. rabbit |
The most common intermediate host of Taenia pisiformis is a (d) rabbit |
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an intracellular parasite which appears as a structure called morula found in the cytoplasm of leukocytes is a. babesia b. ehrlichia c. anaplasma d. theileria |
an intracellular parasite which appears as a structure called morula found in the cytoplasm of leukocytes is (b) ehrlichia |
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the normal myeloid to erythroid ratio on a bone marrow smear is a. 1:1 b. 1:2 c. 3:1 d. 2:1 |
the normal myeloid to erythroid ratio on a bone marrow smear is (d) 2:1 |
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what ectoparasite is barely visible to the naked eye? a. ticks b. fleas c. lice d. mites |
(d) mites are barely visible to the naked eye ticks, fleas, and lice are all macroscopic. mites usually require microscopic examination for visualizaiton |
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which of these is a nonburrowing mange mite? a. notedres cati b. sarcoptes scabiei c. psoroptes cuniculi d. demodex |
(c) psoroptes cuniculi is a nonburrowing mange mite members of the family psoroptidae reside on the surface of the skin or within the external ear canal. notedres cati, sarcoptes scabei, and demodex all live under the surface of hte skin |
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the genus that is commonly known as the fur mite is a. Cheyletiella spp. b. Trixacarus spp. c. Psoroptes spp. d/ Notoedres spp |
the genus that is commonly known as the fur mite is (a) Cheyletiella spp. cheyletiella also known as walking dandruff is commonly know as the fur mite because of where it is normally found |
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the sarcoptic mange mite of the guinea pig is a. Sarcoptes caviae b. Trixacarus caviae c. Notoedres caviae d. Psoroptes caviae |
the sarcoptic mange mite of the guinea pig is (b) Trixacarus caviae |
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what tick is a soft tick? a. Amblyomma b. Dermacentor c. Ixodes d. Otobius |
(d) Otobius is a soft tick |
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what tick is a vector for Lyme disease? a. Argas persicus b. Ixodes scapularis c. Otobius megninii d. Rhipicephalus sanguineus |
(b) Ixodes scapularis is the vector for Lyme disease |
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it is possible to differentiate between sucking lice and chewing lice by which of the following features? a. chewing lice have antennae, wehreas sucking lice do not b. chewing lice are dorsoventrally flattened, whereas sucking lice are laterally flattened. c. chewing lice have three pairs of legs, whereas sucking lice have four pairs of legs d. chewing lice have a head that is broader than the thorax, whereas sucking lice have a head that is narrower than the thorax |
the way to differentiate between chewing and sucking lice is (D) chewing lice have a head that is broader than the thorax whereas sucking lice have a head that is narrower than the thorax |
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an ectoparasite known for both its host specificty and site specificity is the a. louse b. mite c. tick d. flea |
an ectoparasite known for both its host specificty and site specificity is the (a) louse |
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the parasite that is distinguished by white, operculated eggs that are cemeted to the hairs of its host is the a. tick b. flea c. mite d. louse |
the parasite that is distinguished by white, operculated eggs that are cemeted to the hairs of its host is the (d) louse |
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which is a lentivirus? a. coronavirus b. feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV) c. herpes virus d. parvovirus |
(B) feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV) is a lentivirus lentiviruses cause slowly developing diseases |
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a prodromal period a. is the time before the signs and symptoms appear b. immediately precedes convalascence c. involves early signs and symptoms d. involves acute signs and symptoms |
a prodromal period (c) involves early signs and symptoms |
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a non-gram staining bacterium is a. Clostridium b. Leptospira c. Pseudomonas d. Staphylococcus |
a non-gram staining bacterium is (B) Leptospira |
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a hospital-acquired disease is a. endemic b. nosocomial c. ergasteric d. iatrogenic |
a hospital-acquired disease is (b) nosocomial iatrogenic is of or relating to illness caused by medical examination or treatment |
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tetanus is considered a. endemic b. contagious c. noncommunicable d. epizootic |
tetanus is considered (c) noncommunicable |
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phagocytosis does not involve a. chemotaxis b. adherence c. ingestion d. antibiosis |
phagocytosis does not involve (d) antibiosis |
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what is the funciton of interferon? a. destroys toxins b. inhibits viruses c. kills bacteria d. inactivates protozoa |
the function of interferon is to (C) inhibit viruses |
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types of effector T cells include a. B cells b. helper T cells c. monocytes d. erythrocytes |
types of effector T cells include ( b) helper t cells |
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which of the following is a gram-positive bacterium a. Clostridium b. Pasteurella c. Pseudomonas d. Salmonella |
(a) clostridium is a gram-positive bacterium Pasteuralla, Pseudomonas, Salmonella are gram-negative |
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which of the following is a gram-negative bacterium? a. clostridium b. pasteurella c. staphylococcus d. leptospira |
(B) pasteurella is a gram-negative bacterium |
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it is most difficult to find antimicrobials for a. molds b. bacteria c. rickettsia d. viruses |
it is most difficult to find antimicrobials for (D) viruses |
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rocky mountain spotted fever is more prevalent in a. the northeastern US b. the southeastern US c the Pacific northwest d. the rocky mountains |
rocky mountain spotted fever is more prevalent in (b) the southeastern US despite its name, most cases occur far from the Rocky Mountains |
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most bacteria grow best at pH a. 1 b. 3 c. 9 d. 7 |
most bacteria grow best at pH (d) 7 |
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What blood chemistry test is not a test for liver damage? a. ALT b. GGT c. Lipase d. Bile acids |
ALT, GGT, and bile acids are blood chemistry tests which test for liver damage but (c) lipase is not
Lipase is a test for pancreatitis |
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what percentage of the body's calcium is in the bone? a. 49% b. 59% c. 79% d. 99% |
(d) 99% of the body's calcium is in the bone |
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electrolytes are commonly measured by what method? a. ion-specific electrodes b. refractometry c. adsorption d. enzymatic digestion |
electrolytes are commonly measured by (a) ion-specific electrodes |
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when referring to the alteration of bilirubin in the liver, the verb conjugation means a. to break apart in equal parts b. to precipitate c. to become pigmented d. to join together |
when referring to the alteration of bilirubin in the liver, the verb conjugation means (d) to join together |
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a test done to help diagnose hyperthyroidism is a. LH b. cortisol c. bile acids d. T4 |
a test done to help diagnose hyperthyroidism is (d) T4 T4, thyroxine, is typically elevated in hyperthyroidism, which may be seen in older cats. Leuteinizing hormone (LH) is measured for reproductive studies, cortisol for Cushing disease, and bile acids for liver abnormalities |
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When performing urinalysis testing, the sample should be analyzed within ____ minutes or refrigeration is required a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 |
When performing urinalysis testing, the sample should be analyzed within (c) 30 minutes or refrigeration is required |
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for cytologic evaluation of urine, which of the following conditions should be observed? a. the specimen should be refrigerated as soon as possible b. the specimen should be centrifuged as soon as possible c. the specimen may sit at room temperature for up to 6 hours d. the specimen may be frozen for later analysis |
for cytologic evaluation of urine (b) the specimen should be centrifuged as soon as possible this is necessary to concentrate any cells present; they are then removed from the supernatant |
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brown urine most likely contains a. hemoglobin b. bilirubin c. bile pigments d. myoglobin |
brown urine most likely contains (d) myoglobin |
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normal voided urine is clear, except in which of the following species? a. dogs b. cats c. horses d. cows |
normal voided urine is clear, except in (c) horses |
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the average urine specific gravity for a healthy adult dog is a. 1.025 b. 1.035 c. 1.040 d. 1.045 |
the average urine specific gravity for a healthy adult dog is (a) 1.025 |
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the average urine specific gravity for a healthy adult cat is a. 1.025 b. 1.030 c. 1.035 d. 1.040 |
the average urine specific gravity for a healthy adult cat is (b) 1.030 |
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urine crystals are estimate as the average per a. high-power field b. low-power field c. medium-power field d. oil-immersion field |
urine crystals are estimate as the average per (b) low-power field 10x objective |
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epithelial cells in urine are estimated as the average number per
a. high power field b. low power field c. medium power field d. oil immersion field |
epithelial cells in urine are estimated as the average number per (A) high power field 40x objective |
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hyaline casts a. are granular and contain white blood cells b. are clear and red c. are granular and contain fat d. are clear and colorless |
hyaline casts (d) are clear and colorless also highly refractile |
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serum electrolyte levels should be determined when evaluating function of the a. liver b. pancreas c. kidneys d. heart |
serum electrolyte levels should be determined when evaluating function of the (c) kidneys the kidneys play a role in electrolyte regulation |
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kidney disease leads to accumulation of metabolic waste in the blood, a condition known as a. hypernaturia b. hypernatremia c. azotemia d. azoturia |
kidney disease leads to accumulation of metabolic waste in the blood, a condition known as (c) azotemia elevated levels of nitrogenous waste products accumulate in the blood, especially urea nitrogen. hypernatremia is an increase is sodium levels in the blood. hypernaturia is an increase in sodium levels in the urine |
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the gland function that is elevated by measurement of blood cortisol levels before and after the administration of the adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is the a. thyroid gland b. pancreas c. liver d. adrenal glands |
the gland function that is elevated by measurement of blood cortisol levels before and after the administration of the adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is the (d) adrenal glands ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol. in the ACTH response test, cortisol levels are measured before and after administration of ACTH |
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measurement of blood levels of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) and ACTH is used to evaluate function of the a. thyroid gland b. pancreas c. pituitary gland d. adrenal glands |
measurement of blood levels of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) and ACTH is used to evalute function of the (c) pituitary gland TSH and ACTH are both secreted by the anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis) gland which is under the control of the hypothalamus. blood levels of these hormones may be used to evaluate pituitary gland function |
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blood chemistry analysis is commonly performed to evaluate function of the ____ in an animal showing lethargy, obesity, mild anemia, infertility, and alopecia a. thyroid gland b. pancreas c. thymus d. adrenal glands |
blood chemistry analysis is commonly performed to evaluate function of the (a) thyroid gland in an animal showing lethargy, obesity, mild anemia, infertility, and alopecia these are all signs of hypothyroidism |
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chemistry evalution of the kidney includes measurement of metabolic wastes int he blood in the form of a. aspartate aminotransferase and alanine transaminase b. urea nitrogen and creatinine c. ammonia and pyruvic acid d. bilirubin and urobilinogen |
chemistry evalution of the kidney includes measurement of metabolic wastes int he blood in the form of (b) urea nitrogen and creatinine urea nitrogen and creatinine are metabolic wastes measured to evaluate renal function |
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measurement of blood levels of amylase and lipase is used to evaluate function of the a. kidneys b. liver c. pancreas d. adrenal glands |
measurement of blood levels of amylase and lipase is used to evaluate function of the (c) pancreas the pancreas secretes these digestive enzymes; levels are elevated in acute pancreatitis |
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ammonia is metabolized by the liver and eliminated by the kidneys. levels of which metabolic by-product of ammonia are measured to asses kidney function? a. phsophorus b. creatinine c. aspartate aminotransferase d. urea nitrogen |
ammonia is metabolized by the liver and eliminated by the kidneys. levels of (d) urea nitrogen, a metabolic by-product of ammonia, is measured to asses kidney function ammonia is converted to urea by the liver. BUN is often decreased in hepatic disease and elevated in renal disease |
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Dioctophyma renale is often found in the ____ of dogs a. right kidney b. left kidney c. urinary bladder d. ureters |
Dioctophyma renale is often found in the (a) right kidney dioctophyma renale is the largest parasitic nematode |
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the adult form of the parasite ___ is a fly and the larval stage is an endoparasite a. Otobius b. Capillaria c. Thelazia d. Gasterophilus |
The adult form the parasite (d) Gasterophilus is a fly, and the larval stage is an endoparasite the larvae of Gasterophilus are known as bots and are equine parasites. the fly deposits eggs on the host's hair. the eggs hatch and the emerging larvae enter the mouth and migrate to the stomach where htey attach to the inner lining |
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which is least likely to be a sign of allergy? a. face rubbing b. ear problems c. loss of appetite d skin rashes |
face rubbing, ear problems, and skin rashes are all common signs of allergies but (c) loss of appetite is not |
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cornified epithelial cells are synonymous with ___ epithelial cells a. basal b. parabasal c. intermediate d. superficial |
cornified epithelial cells are synonymous with (d) superficial epithelial cells cornified and superficial are the same but cornified conjures the image of cells with corners which makes it easy to identify the cell |
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what type of epithelial cell is most prominent during estrus in a bitch? a. basal b. parabasal c. intermediate d. superfical |
(D) superficial epithelial cells are most prominent during estrus in a bitch the presence of many superficial cells is the predominant feature on a vaginal smear of a dog in heat |
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transudates and exudates are not usually examined for
a. cells b. protein c. color and turbidity d. hematocrit |
transudates and exudates are not usually examined for (d) hematocrit
a hematocrit is a blood test; an example of a transudate is the fluid of ascites form congestive heart failure; an example of an exudate is the fluid collected from septic peritonitis |
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an impression smear is the technique used for ____ analysis a. vaginal cytology b. tissue sample c. semen d. fine-needle aspirate |
an impression smear is the technique used for (b) tissue sample analysis diseased tissue removed during a surgical procedure is cut and the exposed portion is pressed to a microscope slide and stained for cytologic analysis |
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excess anticoagulant in a blood tube will a. affect red blood cells only b. affect white blood cells only c. affect red blood cells and white blood cells d. not affect the cellular components of blood |
excess anticoagulant in a blood tube will (c) affect red blood cells and white blood cells excess anticoagulant will dilute the blood sample, affecting both morphology and cell counts |
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common blood collection sites in the avian patient are the a. saphenous and cephalic veins b. retro orbital and toenail clip c. jugular and cutaneous ulnar veins d. tail and cephalic veins |
common blood collection sites in the avian patient are the (c) jugular and cutaneous ulnar veins the jugular and cutaneous ulnar vein (wing vein) along with the medial metatarsal vein, are the most common blood collection sites in this species |
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which pair are both agranulocytes? a. monocytes and neutrophils b. lymphocytes and monocytes c. eosinophils and basophils d. lymphocytes and eosinophils |
(b) lymphocytes and monocytes are both agranulocytes Granulocytes are those leukocytes that contain granules. basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils are all granulocytes |
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the least common leukocyte found a normal bovine differential count is a(n) a. neutrophil b. monocyte c. eosinophil d. basophil |
the least common leukocyte found a normal bovine differential count is a(n) (d) basophil basophils are a rare finding in peripheral blood |
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macrocytic anemia suggests a. regernation b. lack of hemoglobin c. iron deficiency d. bone marrow pathology |
macrocytic anemia suggests (a) regeneration macrocytosis is usually an indicaiton that there is ongoing regeneration of erythrocytes because immature cells are larger in size than fully mature erythrocytes |
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the bone marrow is not a major site of production for what cell type? a. erythrocytes b. lymphocytes c. neutrophils d. eosinophils |
the bone marrow is a major site of production for erythrosites, neutrophils and eosinophils but not a major site of production for (b) lymphocytes the major sites for production for lymphocytes are the lympoid organs and peripheral lympoid tissue (thymus, lymph nodes, spleen and tonsils); they are produced only secondarily int he bone marrow |
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looking undera microscope at a blood smear, you see erthrocytes that are elliptical, not nucleated and lacking central pallor. this blood was most likely collect from a healthy adult a. bird b. horse c. llama d. snake |
looking undera microscope at a blood smear, you see erthrocytes that are elliptical, not nucleated and lacking central pallor. this blood was most likely collect from a healthy adult (c) llama horse erythrocytes are round and anucleated. birds and reptile erythrocytes are usually oval in shape and nucleated. only red blood cells of llamas are ovoid and devoid of a nucleus |
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erythrocyte life spans vary from species to species but the average is generally considered to be a. 60 days b. 75 days c. 120 days d. 180 days |
erythrocyte life spans vary from species to species but the average is generally considered to be (c) 120 days |
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the total white blood cell count of a healthy adult dog ranges from a. 1000 to 3000/mcL b. 30000 to 50000/mcL c. 4000 to 8000/mcL d. 6000 to 17000/mcL |
the total white blood cell count of a healthy adult dog ranges from (d) 6000 to 17000/mcL |
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under the microscope you observe a leukocyte that you identify as an eosinophil. the eosinophil cytoplasm contains numerous rod-shape granules. this blood sample is most likely from a healthy adult a. dog b. cat c. horse d. cow |
under the microscope you observe a leukocyte that you identify as an eosinophil. the eosinophil cytoplasm contains numerous rod-shape granules. this blood sample is most likely from a healthy adult (b) cat dogs, horses, and cows have round to globoid granules in their eosinophils. only the cat has rod-shape granules |
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the leukocyte most commonly associated with parasitic and allergic conditions is the a. neutrophil b. monocyte c. lymphocyte d. eosinophil |
the leukocyte most commonly associated with parasitic and allergic conditions is the (d) eosinophil |
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a common finding on a blood smear form an animal with autoimmune hemolytic anemia is a. heinz bodies b. howell-jolly bodies c. spherocytes d. target cells |
a common finding on a blood smear form an animal with autoimmune hemolytic anemia is (c) spherocytes spherocytosis is considered a classic finding in patients with autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA) |
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what test is usually considered of little diagnostic value? A. MCV B. MCH C. MCHC D. RDW |
the test usually considered of little diagnotic value is (B) MCH the MCHC is considered the most accurate of all the indices |
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the hematology analyzer is not function properly. a good mathematical method to estimate hemoglobin is a. two times the PCV b. one half the PCV c. one third the PCV d. three times the PCV |
the hematology analyzer is not function properly. a good mathematical method to estimate hemoglobin is (c) one third the PCV |
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which erythrocyte count is within the normal reference range for a healthy adult cat? a. 35000/mcL b. 6250000/mcL c. 7500/mcL d. 275000/mcL |
(b) 6250000/mcL is a normal erythrocyte count for a healthy adult cat normal erythrocyte cell counts are in the millions |
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RBC fragments, resulting from shearing of the red blood cells by intravascular trauma are known as a. acanthocytes b. codocytes c. leptocytes d. schistocytes |
RBC fragments, resulting from shearing of the red blood cells by intravascular trauma are known as (d) schistocytes |
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heinz bodies may be a normal finding in up to 5% of the erythrocytes in what species? a. dogs b. cats c. horses d. cows |
heinz bodies may be a normal finding in up to 5% of the erythrocytes in (b) cats |
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what characteristic is not found in toxic neutrophils? a. howell-molly bodies b. vacuolated cystoplasm c.dohle bodies d. basophilic cystoplasm |
(a) howell-jolly bodies are not found in toxic neutrophilils but vacuolated cystoplasm, dhole bodies, and basophilic cytoplasm are howell-jolly bodies are remnants of nuclear material found in erythrocytes, not leukocytes |
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what laboratory test evaluates primary hemostasis? a. activated clotting time b. activated partial thromboplastin time c. buccal mucosal bleeding time d. one-step prothrombin time |
(c) the buccal mucosal bleeding time test evaluates primary hemostasis buccal mucosal bleeding time is the only test listed that evaluates primary hemostasis. activated clotting time, activated partial thromboplastin time, and one-step prothrombin time evaluate secondary hemostasis |
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the erythrocyte precursor that has a round, dense to completely pyknotic nucleus is a. rubricyte b. metarubricyte c. prorubricyte d. rubriblast |
the erythrocyte precursor that has a round, dense to completely pyknotic nucleus is (b) metarubricyte |
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secondary hemostasis refers to a. the coagulation cascade b. vascular spasm c. clot lysis d.platelet plug formation |
secondary hemostasis refers to (a) the coagulation cascade |
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as a erythrocyte develops a. the cell size increases b. the cytoplasm becomes bluer in color c. the nucleus becomes larger d. the nuclear chromatin becomes denser |
as a erythrocyte develops (D) the nuclear chromatin becomes denser as an erythrocyte develops it becomes smaller and pinker, its nucleus becomes smalelr and the nuclear chromatin becomes denser |
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vwhen collecting blood for a coagulation profile it is especially important to a. use a gray-top vacutainer b. analyze the sample immediately c. use EDTA as the anticoagulant d. minimize vascular trauma during venipuncture |
when collecting blood for a coagulation profile it is especially important to (d)D minimize vascular trauma during venipuncture trauma during venipuncture interefers with the results of a coagulation profile by increasing the blood's coagulability. samples are collected in blue citrate containg vacutainer. it is not necessary to immediately test the sample |
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a good presurgical screening test for von willebran disease is a(n) a. total platelet count b. buccal mucosal bleeding time c. activated clotting time d. activated partial thromboplastin time |
a good presurgical screening test for von willebrand disease is (B) a buccal mucosal bleeding time because von willebrand disease is a disorder of primary hemostasis - that is the coagulation cascade is normal - buccal mucosal bleeding time (BMBT) is the best screening test of those listed |
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which intracellular parasite appears fairly large, paired, and teardrop-shaped when viewed microscopically? a mycoplasma felis (haemobartonella felis b. anaplasma marginale c. babesia canis d. ehrlicia canis |
(c) babesia canis appears fairly large, paired and teardrop-shaped when viewed microscopically |
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bots are a. lice eggs b. fly larvae c. flea feces d. seed ticks |
bots are (b) fly larvae |
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nits are a. lice eggs b. fly larvae c. flea feces d. seed ticks |
nits are (a) lice eggs |
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what parasite could cause anemia in horses through blood sucking? a. Strongylus vulgaris b. Parascaris equorum c. Anoplocephala perfoliata d. Dictyocaulus arnfieldi |
(a) Strongyllus vulgaris could cause anemia in horses through blood sucking - this is one of the large strongyles of horses Parascaris equorum is an ascarid. Anaplocephala perfoliata is a tapeworm. Dictyocaulus arnfieldi is a lungworm |
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exfoliative cytology refers to the study of a. cells shed from muscles tissues b. cells shed from body surfaces c. neoplastic cells exclusively d. blood cells exclusively |
exfoliative cytology refers to the study of (b) cells shed from body surfaces |
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Pykonosis is a term used to describe a a. small, condensed, dark, fragmented nucleus b. swollen, lacy, light blue, round nucleus c. cell without a nucleus d. nucleus without a cell |
Pykonosis is a term used to describe a (a) small, condensed, dark, fragmented nucleus pykonosis is a thickening and degernation of a cell in which the nucleus shrinks and the chromatin condenses into a solid structureless mass |
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which of the following is not a classification used to describe malignant neoplastic cells?
a. bizarre and numerous nucleoli b. increased mitotic index c. uniform size and shape of cells d. rapid growth |
classifications used to described malignant neoplastic cells include bizarre and numerous nucleoli, increased mitotic index, and rapid growth but not (C) uniform size and shape of cells |
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metaplasia refers to a/an a. increase in cell numbers and mitotic activity in response to a stimulus b. increase in cell size and/or functional activity in response to a stimulus c. increase in cell growth and multiplication that is not dependent on a stimulus d. reversible process in which one mature cell type is replaced by another |
metaplasia refers to an (c) increase in cell growth and multiplication that is not dependent on a stimulus metaplasia is the change of a mature cell into a form that is abnormal for that tissue |
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what is the first step in microscopic evaluation of cytologic specimen after the smear has been properly stained and dried? a. scan the smear with the 100x objective b. scan the smear with the 40x objective c. scan the smear with the 10x objective d. scan the smear with any objective available |
the firs step in microscopic evaluation of cytologic specimen after the smear has been properly stained and dried is (c) scan the smear with teh 10x objective |
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tissue samples for histopathologic examination should be placed in fluid-tight jars that contain 10% formmalin in an amount ___ times the specimen's volume a. 10 b. 25 c. 30 d. 50 |
tissue samples for histopathologic examination should be placed in fluid-tight jars that contain 10% formmalin in an amount (a) 10 times the specimen's volume |
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which statement concerning cerbrospinal fluid is false? a. CSF analysis is useful in the diagnosis of some neurologic disorders b. CSF is noramlly colorless and tarnsparent cc. CSF normally has a very low protein concentraiton d. CSF normally contains large numbers of lymphocytes |
regarding cerebrospinal fluid CSF analsysi is useful in the diagnosis of some neurologic disorders; CSF is normally colorlessa nd transparent; CSF normally has very low protein concentration but it is not true that (D) CSF normally contains large numbers of lymphocytes
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peritoneal fluid of horses a. is normally very thick and viscous b. is frequently examined in cases of colic c. is normally malodorous d. normally contains bacteria |
peritoneal fluid of horses (b) is frequently examined in cases of colic |
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the viscosity of synovial fluid is attributable to the a. protein b. hyaluronic acid c. bacterial infection d. yaluronidase |
the viscosity of synovial fluid is attributable to the (b) hyaluronic acid hyaluronic acid is amucopolysaccharide and is the cement substance of tissues; it forms a gel in intercellular spaces |
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synovial fluid mucin forms a clot when added to a. sodium bicarbonate b. hyaluronic acid c. 3% potassium hydroxide d. acetic acid |
synovial fluid mucin forms a clot when added to (d) acetic acid |
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an equine transtracheal wash cannot be performed by the passage of catheter through the a. mouth into an endotracheal tube b. nasal passages c. skin and trachea d. guttural pouch |
an equine transtracheal wash cannot be performed by the passage of catheter through the (d) guttural pouch |
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gram positive cocci that are arranged in grape like cluster describes what genus of bacteria? a. Escherichia b. Staphylococcus c. STreptococcus d. Actinomyces |
gram positive cocci that are arranged in grape like cluster describes th e(B) Staphylcoccus genus |
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facultatively anaerboic gram negative rods that live in the intestinal tract of healthy and sick animals describes what genus of bacteria? a. Clostridium b. BAcillus c. EScherichia d. Corynebacterium |
facultatively anaerboic gram negative rods that live in the intestinal tract of healthy and sick animals describes the (C) Escherichia genus of bacteria clostridium ,bacillus, and corynebacterium are all gram-positive rods |
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generally, endotoxins are the product of a. viruses b. gram-negative bacteria c. gram-positive bacteria d. fungi |
generally, endotoxins are the product of (b) gram-negative bacteria |
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the microscopic morphology of streptococcus is described as a. coccus in chains b. coccus in grape like clusters c. bacillus in c hains d. bacillus in random arrangement |
the microscopic morphology of streptococcus is described as (a) coccus in chains |
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what organism ferments mannitol? a. streptococcus pyogens b. staphylococcus epidermidis c. staphylococcus aureus d. streptococcus mutans |
(c) staphylococcus aureus ferments mannitol Staphylococcus aureus ferments mannitol resulting ina c olor change of yellow in the medium |
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streptococus pyogenes is classified as lancefield a. group A b. Group B c. group c d. Group D |
streptococcus pyogens is classified as Lancefield (a) group a |
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the organism that grows in and is considered a pathogen mainly of the mammary gland is a. STreptococcus pyogens b.STaphylococcus aureus c. STreptococcus agalactiae d. Escherichia coli |
the organism that grows in and is considered a pathogen mainly of the mammary gland is (c) streptococcus agalactiae |
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the CAMP test is specific for a. STreptococcus pyogens b.STaphylococcus aureus c. STreptococcus agalactiae d. Escherichia coli |
the CAMP test is specific for (c) STreptococcus agalactiae |
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what organism exhibits fluorescence under ultraviolet light? a. microsporum gypseum b. trichophyton mentagrophytes c. microsporum canis d. epidermophyton floccosum |
(c) Microsporum canis exhibits fluorescence under ultraviolet light |
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pinkeye or contagious conjunctivitis in cattle is caused by a. hemophilus aegypti b. moraxella bovis c. streptococcus pyogens d. staphylococcus aureus |
pinkeye or contagious conjunctivitis in cattle is caused by (b) moraxella bovis |
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dermatitis characterized by a blue-green purulent discharge ismost likely caused by a. streptococcus pyogens b. staphylococcus aureus c. corynebacterium pyogenes d. pseudomonas aeruginosa |
dermatitis characterized by a blue-green purulent discharge ismost likely caused by (D) pseudomonas aeruginosa |
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what organism often caues encephalitis in feedlot animals encephalitis in people? a. Listeria monocytogenes b. Clostridium botulinum c. Proteus vulgaris d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
(a) Listeria monocytogenes often causes encephalitis in feedlot animals and encephalitis in people |
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what sign is most likely to be caused by botulism toxicity in water fowl? a. diarrhea b. vomiting c. tetanic spasms d. imberneck |
(d) limberneck is most likely to be caused by botulism toxicity in water fowl Clostridium botulinum causes flaccid paralysis |
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what organism causes tularemia? a. Yersinia pestis b. Francisella tularensis c. Escherichia coli d. Fusobacterium necrophorum |
(b) Francisella tularensis causes tularemia |
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the major source of tularemia exposure in people is a. beavers b. rats c. rabbits d. deer |
the major source of tularemia exposure in people is (c) rabbits |
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bang method is a serum test used to detect a. proteus vulgaris b. pseudomonas aeruginosa c. streptococcus pyogenes d. brucella bortus |
bang method is a serum test used to detect(d) brucella bortus |
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what bacterium is pleomorphic a. STreptococcus b. Mycobacterium c. Pasteurella d. Corynebacterium |
(D) Corynebacterium is pleomorphic |
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the tuberculin test uses what reagent? a. a freeze-dried tuberculin antigen b. a small dose of live bacterin c. a purified protein derivative of Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. An organism closely related to Mycobacterium tuberculosis |
the tuberculin test uses (c) a purified protein derivative of Mycobacterium tuberculosis |
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what organism often causes bacterial pneumonia in newborn foals? a. Streptococcus pneumoniae b. Klebsiella pneumoniae c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae d. Diplococcus pneumoniae |
(B) Klebsilla pneumoniae often causes bacterial pneumonia in newborn foals |
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Potomic horse fever is caused by Ehrlichia risticii, which is a/an a. gram-negative bacillus b. gram-positive bacillus c. obligate extracellular parasite d. obligate intracellular parasite |
Potomic horse fever is caused by Ehrlichia risticii, which is a/an (D) obligate intracellular parasite |
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what virus is most difficult to destroy on an inanimate surface? a. coronavirus b. rotavirus c. hepatitis virus d. parvovirus |
(D) parvovirus is the most difficult of the pathogens listed to destroy on an inanimate surface paroviruses are resistant to most common disinfecktants, except sodium hypochlorite |
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cystitis is most often caused by a. gram-negative cocci b. gram-negative bacilli c. gram-positive cocci d. gram-positive bacilli |
cystitis is most often caused by (b) gram-negative bacilli many cases of cystitis are caused by retrograde infections by gram-negative enteric organisms |
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what organism causes strangles in horses? a. staphylococcus aureus b. streptococcus equi c. corynebacterium equi d. strongylus vulgaris |
(b) streptococcus equi causes strangles in horses |
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what characteristic is unique to mycobacterium? a. it is a spore former b. it is anaerobic c. it is easily killed by antibiotics d. it survives phagocytosis |
a characteristic unique to mycobacterium is (D) it survives phagocytosis |
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what species normally has the smallest erthyrocytes? a. horses b. cats c. cattle d. goats |
(D) goats normally have the smallest erthyrocytes of the species listed |
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where is the buffy coat found on the refractometer? a. beneath the packed red cells b. above the packed red cells c. above the plasma d. buffy coats are not seen on refractometers |
(d) buffy coats are not seen are refractometers the buffy coat layer is found between the packed red cells and serum in a spun microhematocrit tube |
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what is the term used to describe the situation in which many of the erythrocytes stain varying shades of lavender? a. anemia b. anisocytosis c. polychromasia d. poikilocytosis |
(c) polychromasia is when many of the rythrocytes stain varying shades of lavender polychromasia occurs when the erythrocyte cytoplasm contains hemoglobin (stains red) and cytoplasmic RNA (stains blue). this is seen with immature RBCs |
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what is the major difference between serum and plasma? a. plasma has higher protein levels b. serum has higher electrolyte leves c. plasma has a darker color d. serum will clot |
the major difference between serum and plasma is (a) plasma has higher protein levels plasma has not been allowed to clot therefore it still contains the plasma protein fibrinogen |
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reticulocytes are reported as a. g/dl b. % x 10^3 c. #/1000 cells d. % |
reticulocytes are reported as (D) % |
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which of the following is a breakdown product of hemoglobin? a. bilirubin b. erytrhopoietin c. urea d. carotene |
(a) bilirubin is a breakdown product of hemoglobin hemoglobin breaks down to bilirubin, iron, and globin |
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which of the following is associated with clotting problems? a. anemia b. leukopenia c. thrombocytopenia d. reticulocytosis |
(C) thrombocytopenia is associated with clotting problemsw |
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how long must the typical microhmatocrit tube be centrifuged for packed cell volue determination? a. 1 minute b. 5 minutes c. 10 minutes d. 15 minutes |
the typical microhematocrit tube must be centrifuged for (b) 5 minutes for packed cell volume determination |
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what measure determines the average size of an erythrocyte? a. mean corpuscular volume b. packed cell volume c. mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration d. mean corpuscular hemoglobin |
(A) mean corpuscular volume determines the average size of an erythrocyte |
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what is normally the most numerous luekocyte seen in bovine blood? a. monocyte b. neutrophil c. lymphocyte d. eosinophil |
(c) lymphocytes are normally the most numerous leukocyte seen in bovine blood |
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what blood cell resembles the mast cell found in tissues? a. eosinophil b. reticulocyte c. neutrophil d. basophil |
(d) basophils resemble the mast cell found in tissues basophils contain blue granules that resemble mast cells |
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what parasite resembles Howell-Jolly bodies? a. Babesia cati b. Mycoplasma haemofelis (haemobartonella sp.) c. Trypansoma cruzi d. Ehrlichia canis |
(b) Mycoplasma haemofelis (haemobartonella sp. ) resembles Howell- Jolly bodies |
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basophilic stippling is seen in a. mature neutrophils b. toxic neutrophils c. erythrocyte cytoplasm d. activated lymphocytes |
basophilic stippling is seen in (c) erytrhocyte cytoplasm |
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what type of anemia is associated with icterus? a. responsive b. nonresponsive c. hemolytic d. megaloblastic |
(c) hemolytic anemia is associated with icterus hemolytic anemia, specially if acute and massive, produces icterus from released hemoglobin breakdown products w |
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hat is the most immature erythrocyte that can be identified in bone marrow? a. prorubricyte b. rubriblast c. erythrocytoblast d. multipotent stem cell |
the most immature erythrocyte that can be identified in bone marrow is (b) a rubriblast |
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the abbreviation "Seg" refers to what blood cell? a. lymphocyte b. monocyte c. band neutrophil d. neutrophil |
the abbreviation "seg" refers to (d) neutrophils a seg is another name for a segmented neutrophil |
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which blood cell can have vaculoes in its cytoplasm when seen in peripheral blood from a healthy animal? a. monocyte b. lymphocyte c. neutrophil d. thrombocyte |
(a) monocytes can have vacuoles in its cytoplasm when seen in peripheral blood from a healthy animal |
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the dark-staining material in the nuclei of lymphocytes and neutrophils is called a. leukopoietin b. chromatin c. mitochondria d. endoplasmic reticulum |
the dark-staining material in the nuclei of lymphocytes and neutrophils is called (b) chromatin |
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what species normally has eosinophils with small, round, red-staining cytoplasmic granules? a. feline b. canine c. bovine d. equine |
(c) bovine normally have eosinophils with small, round, red- staing cytoplasmic granules |
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at what stage in granulopoiesis do specific or definitive granules first appear? a. metamyelocyte b. progranulocyte c. myeloblast d. myelocyte |
during the (d) myelocyte stage in granulopoiesis specific or definitive granules first appear |
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how does a band cell differ in appearnce from a mature neutrophil? a. the mature neutrophil is larger b. the band nucleus has smooth, parallel sides c. the band cytoplasm does not contain granules d. the mature neutrophil has bluer cytoplasm |
a band cell differes in appearnce from a mature neutrophil in that (B) the band nucleus has smooth, parallel sides the band nucleus has smooth, parallel sides compared with the irregular twisted or segmented nucleus of the mature neutrophil |
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a canine erythrocyte that is smaller than normal with no pale area in the center is a a. rubricyte b. metarubricyte c. spherocyte d. rubriblast |
a canine erythrocyte that is smaller than normal with no pale area in the center is a (c) spherocyte a spherocyte is a densely stained erytrhocyte that is smaller than the others |
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rouleaux formation is most commonly seen on blood smears from a. horses b. goats c. dogs d. cats |
rouleaux formation is most commonly seen on blood smears from (a) horses |
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an MCV value below the normal reference range suggests a. hyperchromasia b. hypochromasia c. macrocytosis d. microcytosis |
an MCV value below the normal reference range suggests (d) microcytosis |
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if you count 40 reticulocytes per 1000 erythrocytes, what is the observed reticulocyte count? a. 2% b. 4% c. 20% d. 40% |
if you count 40 reticulocytes per 1000 erythrocytes, the observe dreiticulocyte count is (b) 4% 40 is 4% of 1000 |
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what bovine erthrocyte parasite resembles Haemobartonella felis in cats? a. Anaplasma b. BAbesia c. Dirofilaria d. Ehrlichia |
(a) Anaplasma is a bovine erythrocyte parasite that resembles HAemobartonella felis in cats |
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what is indicated bya neutrophil nucleus with six lobes? a. toxemia b. female animal c. old cell d. normal cell |
a neutrophil with a nucleus with six lobes indicates (c) an old cell hypersegmented neutrophils that contain more than five nuclear lobes occur as the cells age |
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what animal has oval erythrocytes? a. normal horse b. normal llama c. anemic cat d. toxemic dog |
(b) a normal llama has oval erythrocytes members of the camel family which includes llamas normally have oval erythrocytes |
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a normal adult horse would most likely have a urinary pH of a. 5.5 b. 6.5 c. 7.0 d. 7.5 |
a normal adult horse would most likely have a urinary pH of (d) 7.5 horses are herbivores. herbivores are more likely to have a basic urine pH wehreas carnivores have an acidic urine pH |
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Sasha, a 11 yr old spayed female domestic shorthair cat, was accidentally overhydrated with IV fluids. you would expect her urine specific gravity to be a. 1.002 b. 1.012 c. 1.030 d. 1.060 |
Sasha, a 11 yr old spayed female domestic shorthair cat, was accidentally overhydrated with IV fluids. you would expect her urine specific gravity to be (a) 1.002 an overhydrated patient's body would need to excrete the excessive fluid, thereby increasing the amount of urine produced, diluting it, and thus lowering its specific gravity |
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leukocytes in the urine sediment and a positive nitrate reaction on the urinary colormetric strip give presumptive evidence that the patient may have a a. neoplasm b. diabetic condition c. renal failure d. bacterial infection |
leukocytes in the urine sediment and a positive nitrate reaction on the urinary colormetric strip give presumptive evidence that the patient may have a (d) bacterial infection UTIs with nitrate-reducing bacteria cause nitrate formation. however, this test does not seem to be as sensitive in dogs and cats as it is in people, therefore it is important to look for bacteria in the sediment |
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aged urine samples left at room temp and exposed to UV light may cause a false negative result in which of the following biochemical tests? a. ketones b. protien c. glucose d. bilirubin |
aged urine samples left at room temp and exposed to UV light may cause a false negative result in (d) bilirubin bilirubin tends to break down on exposure to ultraviolet light |
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the best sampel to examine for specific gravity of canine urine is the a. first morning sample b. midday sample c. late afternoon sample d. last sample of the day |
the best sampel to examine for specific gravity of canine urine is the (a) first morning sample the first urine sample of the morning tends to be most concentrated, thereby indicating the ability of the patient's kidney to concentrate urine |
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mr downing has brought in a urine sample from Cleo, his 6 yr old spayed cocker spaniel. the color of the urine apepars red. on centrifugation of the sample, you find that the supernatant is now clear. most likely the red color was due to a. hemoglobinuria b. hematuria c. myoglobinuria d. uroglobinuria |
mr downing has brought in a urine sample from Cleo, his 6 yr old spayed cocker spaniel. the color of the urine apepars red. on centrifugation of the sample, you find that the supernatant is now clear. most likely the red color was due to (b) hematuria hematuria is the rpesence of intact red blood cells in the urine. during centrifugation only intact red blood cells settle out, changing the color of the supernatant from red to clear |
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struvite crystals are composed of a. calcium potassium carbonates b. magnesium ammonium phosphates c. oxalates d. urates |
struvite crystals are composed of (b) magnesium ammonium phosphates |
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urinary pH is not affected by the a. patient's diet b. presence of bacteria in the urine c. patient's acid-base status d. presence of crystals in the urine |
urinary pH is not affected by the (D) presence of crystals in the urine crystal presence does not change the pH of urine, rather certain types of crystals are more likely to form if the urine is acidic or basic |
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squamous epithelial cells are not normally seen in urine samples obtained by a. catheterization b. manual expression c. free catch d. cystocentesis |
squamous epithelial cells are not normally seen in urine samples obtained by (D) cystocentesis squamous epithelial cells are derived from the lower urinary passageways. cystocentesis bypasses these tissues, and so there is virtually no possiblity of retrieving these cells when performing a cystocentesis |
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what type of crystals are commonly seen in cases of ethylene glycol toxicity? a. calcium carbonate b. trile phospahte c. calcium oxalate d. ammonium biurate |
(d) calcium oxalate crystals are commonly seen in cases of ethylene glycol toxicity |
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the unoppete system for counting white blood cells uses what diluent? a. 0.85% saline b. distilled water c. 9% hydrochloric acid d. 1% ammonium oxalate |
the unopette system for counting white blood cells uses (d) 1% ammonium oxalate as a diluent because it lyses RBCs |
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which list has the cells listed from most immature to most mature? a. rubricyte, reticulocyte, rubriblast, erythrocyte b. rubriblast, reticulocyte, rubricyte, ertyrocyte c. rubriblast, rubricyte, reticulocyte, erythrocyte d. reticulocyte, rubriblast, rubricyte, erythrocyte |
from most immature to most mature is (C) rubriblast, rubricyte, reticulocyte, erythrocyte |
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which diagnostic test is used to diagnose autoimmune hemolytic anemia? a. red cell fragility test b. modified knott c. coombs d. coggins |
(c) the coombs test is used to diagnose autoimmuen hemolytic anemiaw |
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what vacutainer tube yields plasma via centrifugation? a. red top b. red/black mottled top c. green/grey mottled top d. yellow top |
(c) a green/grey ottled top yields plasma via centrifugation |
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in the gram-stain procedure, which of these is the appropriate staining sequence? a. crystal violet, decolorizer, iodine, safranin b. iodine, crystal violet, decolorizer, safranin c. safranin, iodine, decolorizer, crystal violet d. crystal violet, iodine, decolorizer, safranin |
in the gram-stain procedure, the appropriate staining sequence is (d) crystal violet, iodine, decolorizer, safranin |
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incubation time to grow aerobic bacteria is typically a. 6 hours b. 12 hours c. 24 hours d. 48 hours |
incubation time to grow aerobic bacteria is typically (c) 24 hours |
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which of the following is an example of a selective medium? a. MacConkey b. Mueller-Hinton c. Trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep blood d. Trypticase soy agar |
(a) MacConkey is an example of a selective medium selective agar "Selects for" a particular type of growth, like gram-negative organisms. most gram-positive organisms will not grown on MacConkey's. Mueller-hint, trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep blod, and Trypticase soy agar will all grown both gram-negative and gram-positive organisms |
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trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep blood is used a. as an enrichment medium b. to show hemolytic reactions c. to select for staphyloccocus spp. d. to inhibit growth of Salmonella spp. |
trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep blood is used (b) to show hemolytic reactions alpha hemolysis refers to partial hemolysis of RBCs and shows a greenish color; beta hemolysis refers to total hemolysis of the RBCs surroudning the colonies and results in a clear zone |
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the Fungassay test medium is selective for which organism? a. trichophyton b. trichuris c. toxoplasma d. tritrichomonas |
the fungassay test medium is selective for (a) trichophyton ringworm organisms use dextrose in fungassay agars |
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chocolate agar is used predominately to grow a. proteus vulgaris b. escherichia coli c. microsporum gypseum d. brucella abortus |
chocolate agar is used predominately to grow (d) brucella abortus chocolate agars are used to grow organism that cause STDs; brucella is considered an STD |
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the causative agent of lyme disease is a. bordetalla bronchispetica b. borrelia burgdorferi c. moraxella bovis d. mycoplasma pulmonis |
the causative agent of lyme disease is (b) borrelia burgdorferi bordetall bronchiseptic is part of the kennel cough complex. moraxella bovis causes keratoconjunctivitis sicca in cows. mycoplasma pulmonis causes murine respiratory mycoplasmosis |
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which of the following mites is commonly found in rabbits and large animals?
a. Cnemidocoptes b. Sarcoptes c. Psoroptes d. Otodectes |
(c) Psoroptes is a mite commonly found in rabbits and large animals |
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what endoparasite larva causes creeping eruptions in humans? a. whipworm b. tapeworm c. pinworm d. hookworm |
(d) hookworms are an endoparasite whose larva cause creeping eruptions in humans hookworms are a zoonotic parasite that causes a disease in humans known as cutaneous larval migrans |
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what parasite can cause blockage of the cranial mesenteric artery in horses? a. parascaris equi b. oxyuris equi c. strongyloides westeri d. strongylus vulgaris |
(d) strongylus vulgaris can cause blockage of the cranial mesentic artery in horses |
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a California mastitis test a. measures leukocytes in the milk of each quarter b. measures trypsin-like factor int he milk of each quarter c. measures bacterial cells in the whole milk of the udder d. measures cellular nuclear protein in the whole milk of the udder |
a California mastitis test (c) measures bacterial cells in the whole milk of the udder the total white cell count of milk is reflected by the degree of percipitation of gel formation |
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what is the best method to obtain a sample when attempting to determine whether dermatophytes are present? a. take hair from the periphery of the lesion b. make an impression smear of the entire lesion c. take hair from the center of the lesion d. perform a skin scrape from the center of the lesion |
the best method to obtain a sample when attempting to determine whether dermatophytes are present is to (A) take hair from the pierphery of the lesion |
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the anticoagulant of choice for avian and reptile hematology is a. potassium oxalate b. lithium heparin c. sodium citrate d. sodium fluoride |
the anticoagulant of choice for avian and reptile hematology is (b) lithium heparin lithium heparin causes the least amount of morphologic changes in avian and reptile cells |
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which of these tubes must never be placed on a blood rocker after being filled with blood? a. blue top b. green top c. purple top d. red top |
(d) red top tubes must never be placed on a blood rocker after being filled with blood red-top tubes should never be placed on a rocker because it can cause hemolysis of the cells |
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once blood has formed a clot, you can reverse this process by a. adding anticoagulant b. vigorous mixing c. there is no reversal d. adding isotonic saline |
once blood has formed a clot, you can reverse this process by (c) there is no reversal |
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if you are unable to perform a CBC within 1 hour of blood collection, which of the following is the best method of preservation? a. freeze the sample b. spin down the sample, refrigerate cells, and freeze serum c. add formalin to the sample d. refrigerate the sample |
if you are unable to perform a CBC within 1 hour of blood collection, the best method of preservation is (d) refrigerate the sample refrigeration (0 degrees C to 4 degrees C) is the best method of preservation for whole blood. allow the sample to warm up to room temperature before analysis |
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the mucin clot test is performed on a. joint fluid b. plasma c. serum d. urine |
the mucin clot test is performed on (a) joint fluid |
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if a 1:1 dilution of a serum sample is made before analyzing the serum chemistries, the results must be multiplied by a. 1 b. 2 c. 10 d. 100 |
if a 1:1 dilution of a serum sample is made before analyzing the serum chemistries, the results must be multiplied by (b) 2 one part sample, one part diluent |
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which of these is least likely to interfere with blood chemistry test results? a. postprandial serum b. icteric serum c. fasting serum d. hemolyzed serum |
(c) fasting cerum is least likely to interfere with blood chemistry test results lipemic, icteric, and hemolyzed sera may interfere with chemistry testing |
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which of the following statements is true in regard to using hemolyzed serum in a dry chemistry analyzer? a. hemolyzed serum can falsely elevate some results b. hemolyzed serum cna falsely decrease some result c. hemolyzed serum is corrected by adding saline d. hemolyzed serum is corrected by adding sterile water |
regarding using hemolyzed serum in a dry chemistry analyzer (a) hemolyzed serum can falsely elevate some results hemolysis and lipemia may elevate the enzyme concentration |
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the ictotest is used to determine a. ketonuria b. bile salts in urine c. bilirubinuria d. proteinuria |
the ictotest is used to determine (c) bilirubinuria |
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when preparing cytology samples for microscopic evaluation, what is the best technique to use? a. wet prep b. squash prep c. modified knott prep d. willis prep |
when preparing cytology samples for microscopic evaluation the best technique to use the (b) squash prep the squash preparation yield excellent cytologic smears |
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transmission of coccidia occurs by a. ingesting oocysts b. direct bodily contact c. transmammary transmission d. transplacental transmission |
transmission of coccidia occurs by (a) ingesting oocysts |
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the period of time when a bitch is receptive to the male is classified as
a. metestrus b. proestrus c. anestrus d estrus |
the period of time when a bitch is receptive to the male is classified as (d) estrus it is the only stage in which the bitch will not only attract the male but also be receptive to him |
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the average estrous cycle of the dog lasts ____ days a. 21 b.16 c. 9 d. 3 |
the average estrous cycle of the dog lasts (c) 9 days |
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the main function of the nuetrophil is a. phagocytosis b. hypersensitivity reaciton c. allergic reaction d. immune response |
the main function of the nuetrophil is (A) phagocytosis |
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the main function of hte eosinophil is a. phagocytosis b. autoimmune reaction c. allergic reaction d. immune reaction |
the main function of hte eosinophil is (c) allergic reactions |
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what information do the RBC indices yield? a. the size, weight, and hemoglobin concentration of an average RBC b. the combined size, weight and hemoglobin concentration of all RBCs c. the specific type of anemia present d. the packed cell volume |
RBC incides give information on (A) the size, weight, and hemoglobin concentration of an average RBC |
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dohle bodies are found in what type of blood cell? a. erythrocyte b. neutrophil c. platelet d. nucleated RBC |
dohle bodies are found in (b) neutrophils |
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anaplasma marginale is a blood parasite that causes severe anemia in what species? a. reptillian b. avian c. canine d. bovine |
anaplasma marginale is a blood parasite that causes severe anemia in (D) bovine anaplasma marginale affects cattle predominantly |
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given a PCV of 42%, which of the following is the estimated hemoglobin value? a. 7 g/dl b. 6 g/dl c. 14 g/dl d. 12 g/dl |
given a PCV of 42%, the estimated hemoglobin value is (C) 14 g/dl the PCV value is divided by 3 to determine the estimated hemoglobin value |
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when counting cells on the hemacytometer, what cells are not counted? a. those on the top and bottom borders b. those on the left and right borders c. those on the left and top borders d. those on the right and bottom borders |
when counting cells on the hemacytometer (c) the cells on the left and top borders are not countded this is done to avoid double counting cells on shared borders ofthe squares |
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in addition to birds, which one of the following animals also has white blood cells called heterophils? a. llamas b. potbellied pigs c. ferrets d. reptiles |
in addition to birds (d) reptiles have white blood cells called heterophils birds, rabbits, hamsters, reptiles, amphibians, some fish, and guinea pigs all have heterophils. heterophils may be confused with eosinophils |
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given a WBC count of 10,000 mcL and a relative value of 65% neutrophils, calculate the absolute value of neutrophils a. 65/mcL b. 6500/mcL c. 650/mcL d. 65000/mcL |
given a WBC of 10,000/mcL and a relative value of 65% neutrophils, the absolute value of neutrophils is (b) 6500/mcL the white blood cell count is multiplied by the relative value (%) to determine the absolute value of each type of cell present |
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in what species are the platelets normally larger than the red blood cells? a. bovine b. canine c. equine d. feline |
the platelets are normally larger than the red blood cells in (d) felines cat platelets are larger compared with their relatively small red blood cells. this can lead ot inaccurate electronic blood cell counts when the cells are not differentiated by size |
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which species has both punctate and aggregate forms of reticulocytes in peripheral blood smears? a. canine b. procine c. feline d. bovine |
(c) felines have both punctate and aggregate forms of reticulocytes in peripheral blood smears |
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what would be considered a normal WBC count for a healthy adult horse? a. 30 x 10^3/mcL b. 8 x 10^3/mcL c. 3 x 10^6/mcL d. 8 x 10^6/mcL |
a normal WBC for a healthy adult horse is (b) 8 x 10^3/mcL |
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what causes dark granules called Dohle bodies in the cytoplasm of the canine neutrophils? a. leukemia b. parasitic infection c. immaturity d. toxemia |
(d) toxemia causes dark granules called Dohle bodies in the cytoplasm of canine neutrophils |
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what is normally the largest mature blood cell in peripheral blood of domestic species? a. monocyte b. neutrophil c. eosinophil d. lymphocytes |
(a) monocytes normally have the largest mature blood cells in peripheral blood of domestic species |
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which leukocyte has a kidney-bean-shaped nucleus? a. promyelocyte b. myelocyte c. metamyelocyte d. band neutrophil |
(c) metamyelocytes have a kidney-bean-shaped nucleus the nucleus is not round as it is in the promyelocyte and the myelocyte and is less than 50% indented |
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which of these is an artifact? a. agglutination b. crenation c. rouleaux d. schistocyte |
(B) crenation is an artifact |
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when preparing a direct smear form feces, what liquid should be mixed with the feces a. tap water b. distilled water c. hydrogen peroxide d. saline |
when preparing a direct smear from feces, (d) saline should be mixed with the feces |
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with the exception of cats, most animals have a total blood volume equivalent to ____ of their body weight a. 7% b. 15% c. 25% d. 40% |
with the exception of cats, most animals have a total blood volume equivalent to (a) 7% of their body weight |
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what is tested in a minor cross match? a. t cell produciton b recipient serum against donar erthrocytes c. recipient erythrocytes against donor serum d. recipient urine against donor erythrocytes |
in a minor cross match (C) recipeint erythrocytes are tested against donor serum |
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what anticoagulant is used to determine activated parital thromboplastin time and one-stage prothrombin time? a. heparin b. citrate c. fluoride d. EDTA |
(b) citrate is the anticoagulant is used to determine activated parital thromboplastin time and one-stage prothrombin time |
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what structure is normally found in the nuclei of immature blood cells? a. nucleolus b. golgi apparatus c. heinz body d. dohle body |
(a) a nucleolus is normally found in the nuclei of immature blood cells |
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a cat has a total leukocyte count of 15000/dl. on the differential count, 65% of the cells are neutrophils. what is the absolute neutrophil count? a. 975/dl b. 6500/dl c. 9750/dl d. 5250/dl |
a cat has a total leukocyte count of 15000/dl. on the differential count, 65% of the cells are neutrophils. the absolute neutrophil count is (c) 9750/dl 65% of 15000 is 9750 |
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certain oxidant drugs can denature hemoglobin and cause production of round structures in erythrocytes called a. howell-jolly bodies b. russell bodies c. dohle bodies d. heinz bodies |
certain oxidant drugs can denature hemoglobin and cause production of round structures in erythrocytes called (d) heinz bodies |
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what is the most common cause of hypochromia in erythrocytes? a. hypertonic drugs b. decreased hemoglobin c. iron toxicity d. increased erythrocyte production |
the most common cause of hypochromia in erythrocytes is *b) decreased hemoglobin |
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what nucleated erythrocyte is the first one you'll see in peripehral blood if an animal has used all of its reverves of mature erythrocytes in the bone marrow? a. reticulocyte b. metarubricyte c. rubricyte d. prorubricyte |
(b) a metarubricyte is a nucleated erythrocyte is the first one you'll see in peripehral blood if an animal has used all of its reverves of mature erythrocytes in the bone marrow metarubricytes are the most common immature erythrocytes seen in the peripheral blood of dogs and cats |
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an increased number of bands in the peripheral blood indicate a. leukemia b. autoimmuen hemolytic anemia c. left shift d. neutropenia |
an increased number of bands in the peripheral blood indicate (c) left shift |
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which of these white blood cells migrate through tissue as macrophages and function to remove and destroy bacteria, damage cells, and neoplastic cells? a. lymphocytes b. neutrophils c. monocytes d. eosinophils |
(c) monocytes are white blood cells that migrate through tissue as macrophages and function to remove and destroy bacteria, damage cells, and neoplastic cells monocytes are derived from promonocytes which are bone marrow stem cells. once monocytes enter the bloodstream, they remain there for only a few days before entering tissues and developing into macrophages |
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which immunoglobulin is the first antibody produced in a primary immune response? a. IgG b. IgA c. IgM d. IgD |
(c) IgM is an immunoglobulin that is the first antibody produced in a primary immune response IgM is the first antibody produced in the primary immune response and represents about 20% of the serum antibodies |
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which immunoglobin is most abundant in the serum and plays the major role in humoral immunity? a. IgG b. IgM c. IgA d. IgD |
(a) IgG is the immunoglobin that is most abundant int he serum and plays the major role in humoral immunity IgG is the most abundant of the five classes of immunoglobulins, representing about 80% of the serum immunoglobulin protein |
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which immunoglobulin is the only one that can cross the placenta? a. IgG b. IgM c. IgA D. IgD |
(a) IgG is the only immunoglobulin that can cross the placenta IgG is the major component of passive maternal antibody transfer |
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which of the following is not a major function of macrophages or a result of macrophage activity? a. phagocytosis b. fever c. inflammation d. peroxidase production |
(d) peroxidase production is not a major function of macrophages or a result of macrophage activity peroxidase is an enzyme found in granulocytes not in monocytes |
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which of the following correctly lists the progressive stages of phagocytosis? a. adherence, chemotaxis, ingestion, digestion b. ingestion, adherence, chemotaxis, digestion c. chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion d. ingestion, digestion, chemotaxis, adherence |
the correct order for the progressive stages of phagocytosis is (C) chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion |
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the parasite whose larva form warbles in subcutaneous tissue along the back of cattle is a. gasterophlus sp b. hypoderma sp c. oestrus sp d. cuterebra sp. |
the parasite whose larva form warbles in subcutaneous tissue along the back of cattle is (b) hypoderma sp. |
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the parasite whose larvae enter the nasal cavity of sheep is a. gasterophilus sp. b. hypoderma sp. c. oestrus sp. d. cuterebra sp. |
the parasite whose larvae enter the nasal cavity of sheep is (c) oestrus sp. |
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which parasite completes its life cycle on or in its host? a. Ctenocephalides sp. b. Otodectes sp. c. Hypoderma sp. d. Dermacentor sp. |
(b) Otodectes sp. completes its life cycle on or in its host mites may live off of their host for a short time but they propagate only while on their host |
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the parasite also known as hookworm is a. Bunostomun sp. b. Ostertagia sp. c. Trichostrongylus sp. d. Haemonchus sp. |
the parasite also known as hookworm is (a) Bunostomum sp. Bunostomun sp. is the hookworm. Trichostrongylus is the stomach hair worm. Ostertagia is the brown stomach worm. Haemonchus is the barber's pole worm |
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the parasite also known as the stomach hair worm is a. Bunostomum sp. b. Ostertagia sp. c. Trichostrongylus sp. d. Haemonchus sp. |
the parasite also known as the stomach hair worm is (c) Trichostrongylus sp. Bunostomun sp. is the hookworm. Trichostrongylus is the stomach hair worm. Ostertagia is the brown stomach worm. Haemonchus is the barber's pole worm |
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the parasite also known as the brown stomach worm is a. Bunostomum sp. b. Ostertagia sp. c. Trichostrongylus sp. d. Haemonchus sp. |
the parasite also known as the brown stomach worm is (b) ostertagia sp. Bunostomun sp. is the hookworm. Trichostrongylus is the stomach hair worm. Ostertagia is the brown stomach worm. Haemonchus is the barber's pole worm |
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the parasite also known as the barber's pole worm is a. Bunostomum sp. b. Ostertagia sp. c. Trichostrongylus sp. d. Haemonchus sp. |
the parasite also known as the barber's pole worm is (D) Haemonchus sp. Bunostomun sp. is the hookworm. Trichostrongylus is the stomach hair worm. Ostertagia is the brown stomach worm. Haemonchus is the barber's pole worm |
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cchoose the correct size sequence from larrgest ova to smallest ova. a. trichostrongylus, nematodirus, strongyloides, eimeria b. nematodirus, tirchostrongylus, strongyloides, eimeria c. eimeria, nematodirus, trichostrongylus, strongyloides d. nematodirus, strongyloides, trichostronglyus, eimeria |
cchoose the correct size sequence from larrgest ova to smallest ova: (b) nematodirus, trichostrongylus, strongyloides, eimeria |
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the parasite found in the abomasal gastric glands of ruminants is a. Oesophagostomun sp. b. Ostertagia sp. c. Haemonchus sp. d. Dictyocaulus sp. |
the parasite found in the abomasal gastric glands of ruminants is (b) ostertagia sp. the parasite that forms nodules in the intestinal mucosa is (a) Oesophagostomum sp. the parasite that matures in the lungs is (d) Dictyocaulus sp. the parasite that sucks blood in the abomasum of ruminants is (c) Haemonchus sp. |
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the parasite that sucks blood in the abomasum of ruminants is a. Oesophagostomun sp. b. Ostertagia sp. c. Haemonchus sp. d. Dictyocaulus sp. |
the parasite that sucks blood in the abomasum of ruminants is (c) Haemonchus sp. the parasite that forms nodules in the intestinal mucosa is (a) Oesophagostomum sp. the parasite found in the abomasal gastric glands of ruminants is (b) ostertagia sp. the parasite that matures in the lungs is (d) Dictyocaulus sp. |
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the parasite that matures int he lungs is a. Oesophagostomun sp. b. Ostertagia sp. c. Haemonchus sp. d. Dictyocaulus sp. |
the parasite that matures in the lungs is (d) Dictyocaulus sp. the parasite that forms nodules in the intestinal mucosa is (a) Oesophagostomum sp. the parasite found in the abomasal gastric glands of ruminants is (b) ostertagia sp. the parasite that sucks blood in the abomasum of ruminants is (c) Haemonchus sp. |
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the parasite that forms nodules in the intestinal mucosa is a. Oesophagostomun sp. b. Ostertagia sp. c. Haemonchus sp. d. Dictyocaulus sp. |
the parasite that forms nodules in the intestinal mucosa is (a) Oesophagostomum sp. the parasite that matures in the lungs is (d) Dictyocaulus sp. the parasite found in the abomasal gastric glands of ruminants is (b) ostertagia sp. the parasite that sucks blood in the abomasum of ruminants is (c) Haemonchus sp. |
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the most common parasite found in pigs is a. Ascaris sp. b. Metastrongylus sp. c. Oesophagostomum sp. d. Trichuris sp. |
the most common parasite found in pigs is (a) AScaris sp. |
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skin penetration is a means of entry into a host by a. toxocara sp. b. taenia sp c. anaplasma sp. d. ancylostoma sp. |
skin penetration is a means of entry into a host by (d) ancylostoma sp. |
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a client has found a larger number of roundworms in her puppy's feces at home. a logical explanation may be that a. the dog has been treated recently for roundworms b. the puppy ate somethign that looks like worms that were passed in the feces c. it is a period in the life cycle of roundworms that results in the passage of large numbers of worms d. the roundworms pass out in large numbers when the dog has diarrhea |
a client has found a larger number of roundworms in her puppy's feces at home. a logical explanation may be that (a) the dog has been treated recently for roundworms |
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coughing and increased number of eosinophils in peripheral blood suggest a. trichuris infeciton b. toxocara infection c. diplydium infection d. giardia infection |
coughing and increased number of eosinophils in peripheral blood suggest (b) toxocara infection larvae migrate to the liver and then to the lungs |
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choose the correct sequence from smallest ova to largest ova. a. isospora, uncinaria, ancylostoma, toxocara b. isospora, ancylostoma, toxocara, uncinaria c. isospora, ancylostoma, uncinaria, toxocara d. ancylostoma, isospora, uncinaria, toxocara |
choose the correct sequence from smallest ova to largest ova. (C) isospora, ancylostoma, uncinaria, toxocara |
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anemia in puppies is most likely associated with infection with a. isospora sp. b. paragonimus sp c. strongyloides sp. d. ancylostoma sp. |
anemia in puppies is most likely associated with infection with (D) ancylostoma sp. hookworms feed on blood from the intestinal wall and can produce profound anemia |
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the parasite also known as a liver fluke is a. dioctophyma sp. b. fasciola sp. c. paragonimus sp. d. capillaria sp. |
the parasite also known as a liver fluke is (B) fasciola sp. the parasite known as a lungworm is (d) capillaria sp. the parasite also known as the kidney worm is (a) dioctophyma sp. the parasite also known as a lung fluke is (C) paragonimus sp |
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the parasite also known as a lung fluke is a. dioctophyma sp. b. fasciola sp. c. paragonimus sp d. capillaria sp |
the parasite also known as a lung fluke is (C) paragonimus sp the parasite known as a lungworm is (d) capillaria sp. the parasite also known as the kidney worm is (a) dioctophyma sp. the parasite also known as a liver fluke is (B) fasciola sp. |
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the parasite also known as the kidney worm is a. dioctophyma sp. b. fasciola sp. c. paragonimus sp. d. capillaria sp |
the parasite also known as the kidney worm is (a) dioctophyma sp. the parasite known as a lungworm is (d) capillaria sp. the parasite also known as a lung fluke is (C) paragonimus sp the parasite also known as a liver fluke is (B) fasciola sp. |
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the parasite known as a lungworm is a. dioctophyma sp. b. fasciola sp. c. dipylidium sp. d. capillaria sp. |
the parasite known as a lungworm is (d) capillaria sp. the parasite also known as the kidney worm is (a) dioctophyma sp. the parasite also known as a lung fluke is (C) paragonimus sp. the parasite also known as a liver fluke is (B) fasciola sp. |
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Trichuris ova most resembles the ova of a. isospora sp. b. taenia sp c. ancylostoma sp d. capillaria sp |
Trichuris ova most resembles the ova of (d) capillaria sp. |
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a chewing louse of dogs is a. Trichodectes sp. b. Haematopinus sp. c. Felicola sp. d. Damalinia sp. |
a chewing louse of dogs is (A) Trichodectes sp. a chewing louse of cattle is (D) damalinia sp. a sucking louse of cattle is (b) Haematopinus sp. a chewing louse of cats is (c) Felicola sp. a chewing louse of dogs is (A) Trichodectes sp. |
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a chewing louse of cats is a. Trichodectes sp. b. Haematopinus sp. c. Felicola sp. d. Damalinia sp. |
a chewing louse of cats is (c) Felicola sp. a chewing louse of cattle is (D) damalinia sp. a sucking louse of cattle is (b) Haematopinus sp. a chewing louse of cats is (c) Felicola sp. a chewing louse of dogs is (A) Trichodectes sp. |
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a sucking louse of cattle is a. Trichodectes sp. b. Haematopinus sp. c. Felicola sp. d. Damalinia sp. |
a sucking louse of cattle is (b) Haematopinus sp. a chewing louse of cattle is (D) damalinia sp. a sucking louse of cattle is (b) Haematopinus sp.a chewing louse of cats is (c) Felicola sp. a chewing louse of dogs is (A) Trichodectes sp. |
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a chewing louse of cattle is a. Trichodectes sp. b. Haematopinus sp. c. Felicola sp. d. Damalinia sp. |
a chewing louse of cattle is (D) damalinia sp.
a chewing louse of cattle is (D) damalinia sp. a sucking louse of cattle is (b) Haematopinus sp. a chewing louse of cats is (c) Felicola sp. a chewing louse of dogs is (A) Trichodectes sp. |
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the genus name for the spinose ear tick is a. Otodectes b. Otobius c. Oestrus d. Oxyuris |
the genus name for the spinose ear tick is (b) Otobius Otodectes is the ear mite. Oxyruis is the pinworm |
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what species is not parasitized by pinworms? a. horse b. dogs c. rodents d. humans |
humans, rodents, and horses are parasitized by pinworms but not (b) dogs |
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an intestinal fluke is a. Alaria sp. b. Fascioloides sp. c. Stephanurus sp. d. Metastrongylus sp. |
an intestinal fluke is (A) Alaria sp. the parasite also known as the large American liver fluke is (b) fascioloides sp. the parasite also known as a kidney worm is (c) Stephanurus sp.the parasite also known as a lungworm is (d) metastrongylus sp. |
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the parasite also known as a lungworm is a. Alaria sp. b. Fascioloides sp. c. Stephanurus sp. d. Metastrongylus sp. |
the parasite also known as a lungworm is (d) metastrongylus sp. the parasite also known as the large American liver fluke is (b) fascioloides sp. an intestinal fluke is (A) Alaria sp. the parasite also known as a kidney worm is (c) Stephanurus sp. |
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the parasite also known as a kidney worm is a. Alaria sp. b. Fascioloides sp. c. Stephanurus sp. d. Metastrongylus sp. |
the parasite also known as a kidney worm is (c) Stephanurus sp. the parasite also known as the large American liver fluke is (b) fascioloides sp. an intestinal fluke is (A) Alaria sp. the parasite also known as a lungworm is (d) metastrongylus sp. |
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the parasite also known as the large American liver fluke is a. Alaria sp. b. Fascioloides sp. c. Stephanurus sp. d. Metastrongylus sp. |
the parasite also known as the large American liver fluke is (b) fascioloides sp. an intestinal fluke is (A) Alaria sp. the parasite also known as a kidney worm is (c) Stephanurus sp.the parasite also known as a lungworm is (d) metastrongylus sp. |
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the parasite that causes generalized pruritus is a. ancylostoma sp. b. melophagus sp c. notoedres sp d. echinococcus sp. |
the parasite that causes generalized pruritus is (b) melophagus sp. melophagus ovinus bites cause pruritus over much of the hseep's body |
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the parasite that causes creeping eruptions in people is a. ancylostoma sp. b. melophagus sp. c. notoedres sp. d. echinococcus sp. |
the parasite that causes creeping eruptions in people is (A) ancylostoma sp. ancylostoma larvae penetrate the skin of people but can develop no further |
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the parasite that causes feline scabies is
a. ancylostoma sp. b. melophagus sp. c. notoedres sp. d. echinococcus sp |
the parasite that causes feline scabies is (c) notoedres sp. notoedres cati is the cause of feline scabies, also known as notoedric mange |
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the parasite that is a protozoan is a. psoroptes sp. b. mallophaga sp. c. cryptosporidium sp. d. anoplura sp. |
the parasite that is a protozoan is (c) cryptosporidium sp. cryptosporidium is a small protozoan that is associated with chronic diarrhea |
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Johnes disease in sheep is caused by a. CAmphylobacter jejuni b. Mycobacterium paratuberculosis c. Corynebacterium diphtheriae d. Mycoplasma gallisepticum |
Johnes disease in sheep is caused by (B) mycobacterium paratuberculosis |
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which of these parasites is a mite? a. psoroptes sp. b. mallophaga sp. c. cryptosporidium sp. d. anoplura sp. |
(a) psoroptes sp. is a mite psoroptes ovis causes common mange in cattle and sheep |
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the specific gravity of a patient's urine so so high youc annot measure it. you dilute the sample 1:2 with distilled water. now the specific gravity is 1.032. what is the sample's true specific gravity? a. 2.032 b. 1.016 c. 2.064 d. 1.064 |
the specific gravity of a patient's urine so so high youc annot measure it. you dilute the sample 1:2 with distilled water. now the specific gravity is 1.032. the sample's true specific gravity is (D) 1.064 multiply only the last 2 digits of the specific gravity by the dilution factor. specific gravity is always in the range of 1.0x |
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the specific gravity of urine is a measure of a. the weight of urine compared witht eh weight of water b. the weight of urine compared witht he weight of physiologic saline c. the weight of urine d. the weight of urine minus the weight of water |
the specific gravity of urine is a measure of (a) the weight of urine compared witht he weight of water |
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calcium carbonate crystals are often seen in ____ urine a. dog b. horse c. cat d. cattle |
calcium carbonate crystals are often seen in (b) horse |
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in a urine sample, a red blood cell may be easily confused wiht a/an a. fat droplet b. degenerate white blood cell c. renal epithelial cell d. amorphous crystal |
in a urine sample, a red blood cell may be easily confused wiht a/an (a) fat droplet red blood cells and fat droplets are often teh same size. however fat droplets come in various sizes |
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all of the following are assessed in a routine urinalysis except a. pH b. occult blood c. urobilinogen d. blood urea nitrogen |
all of the following are assessed in a routine urinalysis - pH, occult blood, urobilinogen but not (d) blood urea nitrogen |
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the ictotest is used to detect ___ in urine a. blood b. fat c. urobilinogen d. bilirubin |
the ictotest is used to detect (d) bilirubinin urine |
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what can you do if the specific gravity of a urine sample is greater than 1.065? a. multiply the results by 2 b. dilute it with 2:1 with distilled water c. dilute it 1:2 with distilled water d. read it using the total protein scale |
if the specific gravity of a urine sample is greater than 1.065 you can (c) dilute it 1:2 with distilled water dilute the urine 1:2 with distilled water and multiply the last 2 digits of the specific gravity by 2 |
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dipsticks for urine chemical analysis should always be a. shaken before used b. stored in the refrigerator c. stored with desiccant d. reconstituted with physiologic saline |
dipsticks for urine chemical analysis should always be (b) stored in the refrigertor |
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a control should be run ont he urine dipstick a. after the dipstick has been reconstituted b. before each urinalysis is begun c. after each urinalysis is completed d. when ther eis a shift chang ein personnel |
a control should be run ont he urine dipstick (d) when there is a shift change in personnel controls need to be run only once during a shift unless a problem occurs |
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what crystal is commonly described as having a coffin-lid appearance? a. bilirubin crystal b. calcium oxalate crystal c. cystine crystal d. triple phosphate crystals |
(d) triple phosphate crystals are commonly described as having a coffin-lid appearnace |
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an ammonium biurate crystal is sometimes described as a. shaped like an envelope b. shaped like a pyramid c. looking like a thorny apple d. ooking like a bicycle wheel |
an ammonium biurate crystal is sometimes described as (C) looking like a thorny apple |
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urine samples collected in the morning from housebroken dogs tend to be a. unacceptable for sediment analysis b. the most concentrated samples c. bright orange d. the least concentrated samples |
urine samples collected in the morning from housebroken dogs tend to be (b) the most concentrated samples |
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isothenuria is urine that would most likely have a specific gravity a. of 1.010 b. below 1.006 c. of 1.000 d. above 1.065 |
isothenuria is urine that would most likely have a specific gravity (a) of 1.010 |
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how would you expect the specific gravity of dilute, colorless urine to compare with that of dark yellow urine? a. slightly higher b. moderately higher c. much higher d. lower |
the specific gravity of dilute, colorless urine would be (D) lower than the specific gravity of dark yellow urine |
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an alkaline urine pH can be the result of a. urinary tract obstruction b. uncontrolled diabetes c. prolonged diarrhea d. starvation |
an alkaline urine pH can be the result of (a) urinary tract obstruction |
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what part of the urinalysis is measured by a refractometer? a. protein b. glucose c. ketones d. pH |
(a) protein is the part of the urinalysis measured by a refractometer |
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a urine specimen collected by free catch at 8 am and left at room temp until the afternoon can be expected to have a. decreased number of bacteria b. increased number of bacteria c. decreased number of epithelial cells d. increased number of epithelial cells |
a urine specimen collected by free catch at 8 am and left at room temp until the afternoon can be expected to have (b) increased numbers of bacteria |
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corticosteroid treatment results in a hemogram characterized by a. increased lympocytes and increased neutrophils b. increased lymphocytes and decreased neutrophils c. decreased lymphocytes and decreased neutrophils d. decreased lymphocytes and increased neutrophils |
corticosteroid treatment results in a hemogram characterized by (d) decreased lympocytes and increased neutrophils |
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in dogs the normal neutrophil-to-lympocyte ratio is a. 1:1 b. 3.5:1 c. 1:5 d. 7.5:1 |
in dogs the normal neutrophil-to-lympocyte ratio is (b) 3.5:1 |
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in horses the normal neutrophil-to lymphocyte ratio is a. 4:1 b. 1:5 c. 3:1 d. 1:1 |
in horses the normal neutrophil-to lymphocyte ratio is (d) 1:1 |
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dark yellow, cloud urine, generally would be expect to have a a. pH of 5.0 or below b. low specific grabity c. high specific gravity d. pH of 8.0 or above |
dark yellow, cloud urine, generally would be expect to have a (c) high specific gravity dark yellow urine is generally mroe cencentrated; therefore the specific gravity is higher |
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in pigs, how long can stress neutrophilia last? a. 30 minutes b. 60 minutes c. 2 hours d. 8 hours |
in pigs, stress neutrophilia can last for (d) 8 hours |
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toxic change is evaluated in a. eosinophils b. erythrocytes c. neutrophils d. monocytes |
toxic change is evaluated in (c) neutrophils |
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a urine sample that shows 3+ occult blood on a dipstick and is grossly red and clear would most likely contain a. mucus b. red blood cells c. hemoglobin d. crystals |
a urine sample that shows 3+ occult blood on a dipstick and is grossly red and clear would most likely contain (c) hemoglobin urine that contains blood typically has a higher protein content c |
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chronic infections are often associated with a. monocytosis b. erythrocytosis c. basopenia d. eosinopenia |
chronic infections are often associated with (a) monocytosis |
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it is easier to observe the elements in urine sediment by a. lowering the condenser to increase the light b. raising the condenser to increase th elight c. lowering the condesner to reduce light d. raising the condenser to lower the light |
it is easier to observe the elements in urine sediment by (c) lowering the condenser to reduce the light if the light is too bright, it is hard to see some of the elements in the urine |
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carnivores generally have a. very high protein levels in urine b. acidic urine c. alkaline urine d. high glucose levels in urine |
carnivores generally have (b) acidic urine |
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vegetable diets generally yield a. acidic urine b. high levels of ketones in the urine c. low levels of ketones in urine d. alkaline urine |
vegetable diets generally yield (d) alkaline urine |
