Year 4 Dermatology

Front 1

What is the inaccuracy in using the term 'pruritis' to describe a skin disease in animals?

Back 1

It is a human term that is based on a subjective sensation

Front 2

Pruritis skin diseases are almost ALWAYS analogous to which one of the following?

a) Superficial Skin Infection
b) Superficial Skin Inflammation
c) Hypersensitivity
d) Dry Skin
e) Parasitic Infection

Back 2

B

Front 3

Which one of the following diseases is NEVER pruritic?

a) Superficial Pyoderma
b) Deep Pyoderma
c) Dermatophytosis
d) Trombiculosis
e) Pemphigus Folliaceous

Back 3

B - itch receptors are only in the EPIDERMIS

Front 4

Which one of the following statements regarding pruritis is FALSE?
a) It is a subjective sensation
b) It can usually be pinpointed to one cause
c) Boredom can cause an animal to be within the pruritic threshold
d) Cats are only said to suffer less pruritis because of their allusiveness
e) Pruritis usually lead to inflammation

Back 4

B - pruritic disease is usually multifactorial (pruritic diseases can commonly mask non-pruritic ones due to more severe signs)

Front 5

A dog presents with pruritic patterns on his elbows, knees and ears. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

a) Dermatophytosis
b) Cheyletiella
c) Sarcoptic Mange
d) Allergic Skin Disease
e) FAD

Back 5

C. The EARS especially lead to this diagnosis.

Front 6

A dog presents with pruritic patterns on his feet, pelvis, muzzle and tail. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a) Dermatophytosis
b) Cheyletiella
c) Sarcoptic Mange
d) Allergic Skin Disease
e) FAD

Back 6

D.

Front 7

Which one of the following is a licensed treatment for Trombiculosis?

a) Amitraz washes
b) Fipronil Spray
c) Selamectin
d) Moxidectin
e) Ivermectin
f) Imidacloprid
g) Glucocorticoids
h) Milbemycin
i) Spinosad
j) Ciclosporin
k) None of the above

Back 7

K. There are NO licensed treatments! (Amitraz/Fipronil/Permethrin (DOGS ONLY) are usually used)

Front 8

Which one of the following treatment options would be most suitable for a rabbit suffering with cheyletiellosis?

a) Amitraz washes
b) Fipronil Spray
c) Selamectin
d) Moxidectin
e) Ivermectin
f) Imidacloprid
g) Glucocorticoids
h) Milbemycin
i) Spinosad
j) Ciclosporin

Back 8

E. Ivermectin.

Front 9

Which one of the following would be most suitable for a cat with severe FAD, where a spot on can't be used?

a) Amitraz washes
b) Fipronil Spray
c) Selamectin
d) Moxidectin
e) Ivermectin
f) Imidacloprid
g) Glucocorticoids
h) Milbemycin
i) Spinosad
j) Ciclosporin

Back 9

I. Spironosad = Comfortis. Quick effect, 30 day persistence, but can cause vomiting in 14% cases.

Front 10

An owner comes to you with a cat infested with cheyletiellosis. At home, she says she also has two dogs and two rabbits, which you assume may also be infected. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate treatment?

a) Amitraz washes
b) Fipronil Spray
c) Selamectin
d) Moxidectin
e) Ivermectin
f) Imidacloprid
g) Glucocorticoids
h) Milbemycin
i) Spinosad
j) Ciclosporin

Back 10

F. Imidacloprid - Advantage Spot On. Good for multi-pet households as very safe (BUT less efficient?)

Front 11

A 3 year old Border Collie presents with widespread pustular eruption after being prescribed Promeris Duo for demodex a week ago. Which drug would be most suitable to use now?

a) Amitraz washes
b) Fipronil Spray
c) Selamectin
d) Moxidectin
e) Ivermectin
f) Imidacloprid
g) Glucocorticoids
h) Milbemycin
i) Spinosad
j) Ciclosporin

Back 11

H. Promeris Duo contains Amitraz, therefore avoid. Collies are also toxic to Avermectins, so Milbemycin every 24hours to effect would be appropriate.

Front 12

A 4 year old WHWT presents with Trombiculosis and Otidectic Mange. Which one of the following treatments could address both of these issues?

a) Amitraz washes
b) Fipronil Spray
c) Selamectin
d) Moxidectin
e) Ivermectin
f) Imidacloprid
g) Glucocorticoids
h) Milbemycin
i) Spinosad
j) Ciclosporin

Back 12

C. Selamectin (Stronghold)

Front 13

Where is the predilection site for Harvest Mites in equine species?

a) Ear Pinnae
b) Feet
c) Elbow / Knee areas
d) Face and leg
e) Behind Ears

Back 13

D. As these are the parts that are closest to the grass

Front 14

It is September and a 4 year old JRT presents to you with mild pruritis on his pinnae and feet. The areas are red with some inflammation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a) Cheyetiellosis
b) Demodecosis
c) Sarcoptic Mange
d) Trombiculosis
e) FAD

f) Any of the above, it is impossible to tell without further diagnostics.

Back 14

D. Harvest Mites are extremely common from July-October and manifest on the ears and feet.

Front 15

Which of the following skin conditions can be benefitted by use of steroids?

a) Demodecosis
b) Dermatophytosis
c) Furunculosis
d) Atopic Dermatitis

Back 15

D. In all of the other diseases steroids are contradicted. A and B decrease the immune system, whilst C has satellite lesions which suggest systemic involvement.

Front 16

Which of the following pathogens in responsible for Mud Fever in horses?

a) Staph. Pseudointermedius
b) Staph. Aureus
c) Mycobacterium
d) Dermatophilus
e) M. Gypserum

Back 16

D. Also responsible for Fleece Rot in sheep

Front 17

When an animal is on long term glucocorticoids, which of the following is the most ideal target?

a) Long term immunosuppressive dose
b) Long term anti-inflammatory dose
c) Highest possible dose every day

d) Lowest possible dose every day
e) Lowest possible dose on alternate days

Back 17

E.

Front 18

Which of the following cases of itchiness is LEAST suitable for treatment with ciclosporin?

a) A dog less than 1 year old
b) A dog with chronic pruritis
c) A dog with acute prutritis
d) A dog with an ectoparasite problem

e) A dog with a fungal problem

Back 18

C. Ciclosporin takes 4 weeks to kick in and is therefore not suitable for acute cases

Front 19

A 10 year old dog presents with pruritis and depigmentation of his nasal planum. Which of the following is most likely?

a) Dermatophytosis
b) Pemphigus Folliaceous
c) Dermatophilosis
d) Surface Pyoderma
e) Atopic Dermatitis
f) Epitheliotropic Lymphoma

Back 19

F. Pruritis in an old dog is NOT due to an allergy, and must be due to something else.

Front 20

Which of the following oral meds would be most suitable for a dog with superficial pyoderma (folliculitis)?

a) Penicillin
b) Doxycycline
c) Sulphonamides
d) Cefalexin
e) Fuciderm
f) Prednisolone

Back 20

D. Because it is most likely caused by Staph Pseudointermedius, use Cefalexin. Co-Amoxyclav could also be used but is less effective.

Front 21

What is the main risk for developing MRSP in an animal?

a) Treatment too short
b) Overuse of empirical ABs
c) Secondary diseases present
d) Dose too small
e) All of the above

Back 21

B. Therefore, make sure you use C&S!

Front 22

In which type of drug administration does the First Pass Metabolism effect occur?

a) Oral
b) IV
c) IM
d) Topical
e) SC
f) All of the above
g) All of the above except topical

Back 22

A. Via the liver

Front 23

How do you calculate the volume of distribution of a drug?

Back 23

Dose / Plasma Concentration

Front 24

What does a volume of distribution figure of 1.5 suggest?

a) The drug is confined to plasma
b) The drug is confined to plasma and interstitial
c) The drug enters total body water
d) The drug sequesters in tissue
e) The drug is not safe to use

Back 24

D.

Front 25

Which of the following species uses sulphation instead of glucorinidation to metabolise Paracetemol?

a) Horse
b) Sheep
c) Cow
d) Dog
e) Cat
f) Pig

Back 25

E. Therefore, incredibly toxic as sulphation pathway is easily saturated

Front 26

What are the two types of otitis manifestations in the dog?

a) Acute and Progressive
b) Chronic and Progessive
c) Pruritic and Purulent
d) Pustular and Progressive
e) Chronic and Pruritic

Back 26

C.

Front 27

What percent of dogs with otitis media have chronic, recurrent cases?

a) 5%
b) 20%
c) 45%
d) 75%
e) 90%

Back 27

D. 50-89%

Front 28

Which of the following systemic drugs is best for otitis cases, when topical treatment is not enough/cannot be used?

a) Neomycin
b) Marbofloxacin
c) Prednisolone
d) Gentamycin
e) Dexamethasone

Back 28

B.

Front 29

If all three parts of the ear were infected, where should you take samples from to find the causative agent?

a) The inner ear
b) The middle ear
c) The external ear
d) The middle and external
e) All three

Back 29

C.

Front 30

Which of the following structures runs along the base of the ear, and should be avoided during surgery?

a) Trigeminal Nerve
b) Facial Nerve
c) Jugular Vein
d) Internal Carotid Artery
e) External Carotid Artery

Back 30

B.

Front 31

Which of the following surgical techniques is best suited for a case of chronic otitis externa and media that does not respond to treatment?

a) Lateral Wall Resection (LWR)
b) Vertical Ear Canal Ablation
c) Myringotomy
d) Ventral Bulla Osteotomy
e) Total Ear Canal Ablation and Lateral Bulla Osteotomy

Back 31

E.

Front 32

Which of the following surgical techniques is best suited for a case of sqaumous cell carcinoma of the horizontal canal of the ear?

a) Lateral Wall Resection (LWR)
b) Vertical Ear Canal Ablation
c) Myringotomy
d) Ventral Bulla Osteotomy
e) Total Ear Canal Ablation and Lateral Bulla Osteotomy

Back 32

E.

Front 33

What percent of dogs with otitis externa also have infection of the middle ear too?

a) <10%
b) <30%
c) <50%
d) <70%
e) <90%

Back 33

D.

Front 34

What percent of CATS have otitis media as a results of otitis externa?

a) <5%
b) <15%
c) <35%
d) <65%
​e) <85%

Back 34

A. It is very rare.

Front 35

Which of the following surgical techniques is best suited for a case of an aural polyp in a cat?

a) Lateral Wall Resection (LWR)
b) Vertical Ear Canal Ablation
c) Myringotomy
d) Ventral Bulla Osteotomy
e) Total Ear Canal Ablation and Lateral Bulla Osteotomy

Back 35

D.

Front 36

Which emperical antibiotic would you use to treat Deep Pyo whilst waiting for C&S results, if cocci are detected?

a) Cefalexin
b) Tetracycline
c) Fluoroquinolones
d) Macrolides
​e) Lincosamide

Back 36

A

Front 37

Which emperical antibiotic would you use to treat Deep Pyo whilst waiting for C&S results, if cocci are detected?

a) Cefalexin
b) Tetracycline
c) Fluoroquinolones
d) Macrolides
​e) Lincosamide

Back 37

C.

Front 38

Which emperical antibiotic would you use to treat Superficial whilst waiting for C&S results, if cocci are detected?

a) Cefalexin
b) Tetracycline
c) Fluoroquinolones
d) Macrolides
​e) Lincosamide

Back 38

E.

Front 39

Which of the following skin disease is notifyable in horses?

a) Demodecosis
b) Pediculosis

c) Sarcoptes
d) Atopic Dermatitis
e) Superficial Pyoderma

Back 39

C.

Front 40

Pasteurella Multocida is commonly seen with what primary condition in rabbits?

a) Atopic Dermatitis
b) Perineal Infection

c) Dental Disease
d) Bumble Foot
​e) Mites

Back 40

C. Dental disease causes abscesses, which leads to pasteurella

Front 41

What is the most common cause of Pododermatitis in rabbits?

a) Pasteurella Multocida
b) Pseudomonas

c) Furmites
d) Trichophyton Metagrophytes
​e) Staph Aureus

Back 41

E.

Front 42

Myxomatosis is transmitted via rabbits in which parasite?

a) Furmite
b) Ear mite

c) Flea
d) Blowfly
​e) Cheyetiellosis

Back 42

C.

Front 43

Non-inflamed, bilateral alopecia and a swollen abdomen in a guinea pig is indicative of which disease?

Back 43

Ovarian-Cyst-Induced-Alopecia

. Treat via spay

Front 44

Which of the following findings in small mammals in the only one associated with pathology?

a) Tail slip in a gerbil
b) Tear staining in a rat

c) Greasy fur in a ferret
d) Moulting in a rabbit
​e) Pigmented flanks in a hamster

Back 44

A. This is associated with stress and not normal. All the other are due to natural behaviours and/or glands.

Front 45

Symmetrical alopecia is seen in the ferret due to all of the following, EXCEPT...

a) Breeding Season
b) Oestrous Associated Alopecia

c) Scabies
d) Adrenal Gland Disease

Back 45

C.