Twu-Houston Intmed

Front 1

What is a closed-ended question?

Back 1

A question that limits the information from the client. Only a set number of responses is allowed.

Front 2

"What brings you to therapy?" is an example of a ________-ended question.

Back 2

open

Front 3

The most important question to ask a client during the subjective interview is ___________________.

Back 3

What are your goals?

Front 4

The best way to prevent the spread of disease is to _______.

Back 4

Wash hands

Front 5

To be classified as a restraint in an acute care setting, it must be a physical restraint.

Back 5

No. There are also pharmacological restraints.

Front 6

A common problem following prolonged bed rest is a drop in BP with a change in position also known as:

Back 6

Orthostatic hypotension

Front 7

Name the two conditions discussed in lecture one that are commonly seen in Patients admitted to ICU.

Back 7

Critical illness polyneuropathy (CIP) and

Critical illness myopathy (CIM)

Front 8

You are treating a patient in the ICU with respiratory failure. He is developing distal extremity weakness, wasting, sensory loss, paresthesias, and decreased DTRs. What is the likely diagnosis?

Back 8

CIP

Front 9

Name the two conditions discussed in lecture one that are commonly seen in Patients admitted to ICU.

Back 9

Critical illness polyneuropathy (CIP) and

Critical illness myopathy (CIM)

Front 10

You are treating a patient in the ICU with respiratory failure. He is developing distal extremity weakness, wasting, sensory loss, paresthesias, and decreased DTRs. What is the likely diagnosis?

Back 10

CIP

Front 11

This ICU related condition is also known as acute steroid myopathy.

Back 11

CIM

Front 12

You are treating a patient in the ICU when generalized weakness (especially in the large proximal muscles), decreased DTRs, but no loss of sensation. What is the likely diagnosis?

Back 12

CIM

Front 13

What is an observable finding called? Ex/ skin integrity

Back 13

Sign

Front 14

Always start your subjective interview with a(n) _______-ended question.

Back 14

Open

Front 15

In your own words, how would you describe pain affect?

Back 15

How much a person is bothered by their pain....not the intensity.

Front 16

Name the 4 pain scales covered in lecture 1.

Back 16

NRS, VAS, faces and non-verbal

Front 17

Cutaneous pain is usually well _______.

Back 17

localized

Front 18

Somatic pain can be divided into the following four categories:

Back 18

Deep somatic

Somatovisceral

Viscerosomatic

Somatoemotional

Front 19

Pain that is felt at a site distant from its cause is known as:

Back 19

Referred pain

Front 20

Pain that corresponds to specific spinal root(s) is known as:

Back 20

Radiating pain

Front 21

Pain that corresponds to specific spinal root(s) is known as:

Back 21

Radiating pain

Front 22

The area of skin that is innervated by a single spinal nerve is called a

Back 22

Dermatome

Front 23

Pain from this structure is typically described as throbbing.

Back 23

Arterial

Front 24

Information from a client's chart should be put in the ____ section of a SOAP note.

Back 24

Hx

Front 25

A description of your next session or sessions with a client should be described in which section of a SOAP note?

Back 25

Plan

Front 26

Systemic or Musculoskeletal?

Does not occur for years without progressing.

Back 26

Systemic

Front 27

Systemic or Musculoskeletal?

Described as knife life, cutting, boring.

Back 27

Systemic

Front 28

Systemic or Musculoskeletal?

Awakens person at night without obvious recent injury.

Back 28

Systemic

Front 29

Systemic or Musculoskeletal?

Described as knife life, cutting, boring.

Back 29

Systemic

Front 30

Systemic or Musculoskeletal?

Awakens person at night without obvious recent injury.

Back 30

Systemic

Front 31

Systemic or Musculoskeletal?

Symptoms are typically changed by rest or position.

Back 31

Musculoskeletal

Front 32

Systemic or Musculoskeletal?

Pain may be accompanied by other symptoms such as fever, changes in vision, bilateral symptoms, GI symptoms, etc.

Back 32

Systemic

Front 33

Systemic or Musculoskeletal?

Described as knife life, cutting, boring.

Back 33

Systemic

Front 34

Systemic or Musculoskeletal?

Awakens person at night without obvious recent injury.

Back 34

Systemic

Front 35

Systemic or Musculoskeletal?

Symptoms are typically changed by rest or position.

Back 35

Musculoskeletal

Front 36

Systemic or Musculoskeletal?

Pain may be accompanied by other symptoms such as fever, changes in vision, bilateral symptoms, GI symptoms, etc.

Back 36

Systemic

Front 37

The ______ pleura is insensitive to pain, therefore conditions can be quite advanced before recognized.

Back 37

Visceral

Front 38

The four components of pharmacokinetics are...

Back 38

Absorption

Distribution

Metabolism

Elimination

Front 39

What is the term for the excessive and unnecessary use of medications?

Back 39

Polypharmacy

Front 40

What is the term for the time it takes for the amount or concentration of a drug to fall by 50% in the body (typically in the plasma).

Back 40

Half-life or t1/2

Front 41

What is the term for the level at which initiation of alteration of cellular activity begins?

Back 41

Threshold level

Front 42

In pharmacology, what does TD50 and ED50 stand for?

Back 42

Toxic dose

Effective dose

Front 43

How do you calculate the therapeutic index?

Back 43

TD50 / ED50

Front 44

Benzodiazepines are used for anxiety and have the suffix ______ or ______.

Back 44

-zepam or -zolam

Front 45

Lunesta and Ambien are anti-anxiety medications that are often prescribed to help individuals fall asleep. These drugs are agonists to the neurotransmitter _______.

Back 45

GABA

Front 46

Name a few of the drugs in the antieplileptic/anticonvulsant category.

Back 46

Klonopin, oxcarbazepine, keppra, Dilantin, trileptal, tegretol

Front 47

In class we discussed three mechanisms of action for antidepressants. Name them.

Back 47

MAOIs

SSRIs

SNRIs

Front 48

Most antipsychotics are _______ antagonists.

Back 48

Dopamine

Front 49

What is a common and expected, but usually undesirable action of a medication?

Back 49

Side effect

Front 50

Most of the antiParkinsonian drugs are ______ agonists.

Back 50

Dopamine

Front 51

Drugs for the treatment of Alzheimer's usually involves increasing the concentration of the neurotransmitter __________.

Back 51

Acetylcholine

Front 52

What is an unexpected, severe, and dangerous reactions which may occasionally occur with a medication?

Back 52

Adverse drug reaction

Front 53

Name the three drug administration routes.

Back 53

Topical

Parenteral

Enteral

Front 54

Which administration route has the largest first-pass effect?

Back 54

Enteral

Front 55

What is the term that describes the percentage of unchanged medication that reaches systemic circulation?

Back 55

Bioavailability

Front 56

If you want a drug to pass more easily through tissues throughout the body....you should make it _________-soluble.

Back 56

Lipid

Front 57

Metabolism or biotransformation of drugs primarily occurs in the ______.

Back 57

Liver

Front 58

Drugs bind to specific receptors, preventing naturally occurring (endogenous) chemicals from binding to the receptor. In so doing, if a drug enhances cell activity, it is called an __________.

Back 58

Agonist

Front 59

Antagonist drugs are divided into two categories....name them.

Back 59

Competitive

Non-competitive

Front 60

What is the difference in dose vs dosage?

Back 60

Dose is how much is given at one time. Dosage includes the frequency and duration.

Front 61

What is the difference in dose vs dosage?

Back 61

Dose is how much is given at one time. Dosage includes the frequency and duration.

Front 62

Blood cells in adults originate in the _______.

Back 62

Bone marrow

Front 63

Antiepileptics are also known as:

Back 63

Anticonvulsants

Front 64

An immature RBC is called a

Back 64

Reticulocyte

Front 65

A life-threatening disorder that involves widespread clotting and hemorrhaging.

Back 65

Disseminated intravascular coagulation

Front 66

Which lab test primarily assesses the extrinsic coagulation pathway?

Back 66

PT

Front 67

Which lab test primarily assesses the intrinsic coagulation pathway?

Back 67

PTT or aPTT

Front 68

Normally, the body responds to endothelial tissue injury via the __________ clotting path first.

Back 68

Extrinsic

Front 69

In the chloride shift, chloride levels tend to be higher when CO2 levels are _______.

Back 69

Low

Front 70

In respiratory acidosis, the kidneys can attempt to compensate by increasing the level of ________ into the blood.

Back 70

Bicarbonate

Front 71

Excessive vomiting and/or diarrhea will ______ the pH.

Back 71

Raise

Front 72

What does CBC stand for?

Back 72

complete blood count

Front 73

What is the normal range for RBCs

Back 73

4.2-5.4 million/microliter

Front 74

Will dehydration falsely raise or lower your RBC count?

Back 74

raise

Front 75

What is the normal range for Hgb?

Back 75

12-18g/100ml

Front 76

If your Hgb is less than ____, exercise is contraindicated but basic ADLs may be OK.

Back 76

8

Front 77

What is the normal range for HCT?

Back 77

37-52 (% of RBCs in whole blood)

Front 78

If your HCT is less than _____, exercise is contraindicated, but basic ADLs may be OK.

Back 78

25%

Front 79

HCT should be about 3x greater than _______.

Back 79

Hgb

Front 80

What is the normal range for MCVs?

Back 80

80-100micrometer3

Front 81

If a person is sick or injured, you might expect their ESR to ____________ (increase or decrease).

Back 81

increase

Front 82

The normal range for WBCs is ____________cell/microliters

Back 82

4,500-11,000

Front 83

The normal range for platelets is ____________cells/microliters

Back 83

150,000-450,000

Front 84

If the platelet count is less than _________, exercise is contraindicated but basic ADLs may be OK.

Back 84

20,000

Front 85

What components are in the medical CBC shorthand diagram

Back 85

WBC

Hbg

HCT

Plts

Front 86

Name the three lab tests that are related to clotting ability or potential.

Back 86

PT, PTT and INR

Front 87

What is the normal PTT time?

Back 87

60-70 seconds

Front 88

What is the normal PT time?

Back 88

11-12.5 seconds

Front 89

What is the normal range for INR?

Back 89

.8-1.0

Front 90

A PT should use caution when treating a patient with an INR greater than __________.

Back 90

4.0

Front 91

What is the normal range for sodium?

Back 91

135-145 mEq/L

Front 92

Sodium level is a major determinant of ___________.

Back 92

fluid volume

Front 93

The normal range for potassium is _______.

Back 93

3.5-5.0 mEq/L

Front 94

Potassium is a critical determinant of _____________________.

Back 94

cell excitability

Front 95

The normal range for chloride is ______________.

Back 95

95-105 mEq/L

Front 96

What is the normal range for calcium?

Back 96

9-11 mg/dL

Front 97

What is the normal range for magnesium?

Back 97

1.5-2.5 mEq/L

Front 98

What is the normal range for bicarbonate?

Back 98

22-28 mEq/L

Front 99

The key function of bicarbonate is to _______.

Back 99

assist in the maintenance of normal pH

Front 100

Normal blood pH is from _______ to __________.

Back 100

7.35 to 7.45

Front 101

What is the range of normal blood glucose?

Back 101

80-120 mg/dL

Front 102

Name the two renal function lab tests that may be elevated with kidney dysfunction.

Back 102

creatinine and BUN

Front 103

What is the normal range for creatinine?

Back 103

.5-1.5 mg/dL

Front 104

What is the normal range for BUN?

Back 104

5-30 mg/dL

Front 105

Which values are in the medical shorthand for metabolic labs?

Back 105

NA

K

Cl

HCO3

BUN

Creatinine

Glucose

Front 106

What is the normal for total cholesterol?

Back 106

less than 200 mg/dL

Front 107

Normal O2 sats should be between __________ and ____%.

Back 107

95 and 100

Front 108

What is a common tool used in the ICU to assess a patient's status, track progress, and estimate parameters such as length of stay and mortality risk?

Back 108

APACHE II

Front 109

If you receive a blood transfusion using your own blood, it is called an _________ transfusion.

Back 109

autologous

Front 110

What blood type is the universal donor?

Back 110

type O

Front 111

Name the five reasons for a person to go into shock (low BP which leads to decreased arterial blood circulation and insufficient profusion).

Back 111

hypovolemic, cardiogenic, obstructive, septic, and neurogenic

Front 112

Name some of the causes of anemia.

Back 112

blood loss

destruction of erythrocytes

decreased production of erythrocytes

Front 113

Leukocytosis is diagnosed if a person's WBC count is greater than _____.

Back 113

10,000

Front 114

Leukopenia is diagnosed if a person's WBC count is less than _____.

Back 114

5,000

Front 115

Thrombocytosis is diagnosed when the platelet count is greater than _________.

Back 115

450,000

Front 116

Thrombocytopenia is diagnosed when the platelet count is less than ______.

Back 116

150,000

Front 117

Name the inherited autosomal recessive disorder that changes the shape of RBC and leads to anemia, stroke, vasoocclusion, fatigue, hypoxia, and jaundice.

Back 117

Sickle Cell Disease

Front 118

Name the inherited disease that causes chronic hemolytic anemia due to extremely thin, fragile erythrocytes.

Back 118

thalassemia

Front 119

Name the disease that is an inherited X-linked recessive bleeding disorder.

Back 119

hemophilia

Front 120

What is disseminated intravascular coagulation?

Back 120

Condition that leads to simultaneous hemorrhaging and clotting. Life-threatening.

Front 121

Name the disease that is the most common inherited bleeding disorder.

Back 121

von Willebrand's disease

Front 122

The drugs Warfarin (Coumadin) and Heparin are all in the drug class called ____________.

Back 122

anticoagulants

Front 123

Aspirin and Plavix are in the drug class called _______.

Back 123

antiplatelets

Front 124

Aspirin inhibits the action of platelets by blocking both the ____I and ____II enzymes.

Back 124

COX

Front 125

Statin drugs are used to lower __________.

Back 125

cholesterol

Front 126

The drug Neupogen is used to increase the number of ___________ in the blood.

Back 126

WBCs

Front 127

The drug Epogen or Procrit is used to increase the number of __________ in the blood.

Back 127

RBCs

Front 128

If your pH is high, CO2 is low and bicarbonate is nornal, what is the diagnosis?

Back 128

Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis

Front 129

If your pH is low, CO2 is high and bicarbonate is normal, what is the diagnosis?

Back 129

Uncompensated respiratory acidosis

Front 130

If your pH is low, CO2 is high and bicarbonate is high, what is the diagnosis?

Back 130

Partially compensated respiratory acidosis

Front 131

If your pH is low normal, CO2 is high and bicarbonate is high, what is the diagnosis?

Back 131

Fully compensated respiratory acidosis

Front 132

If your pH is high, CO2 is normal and bicarbonate is high, what is the diagnosis?

Back 132

Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis

Front 133

If your pH is high, CO2 is high and bicarbonate is high, what is the diagnosis?

Back 133

Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis

Front 134

If your pH is normal high, CO2 is high and bicarbonate is high, what is the diagnosis?

Back 134

Fully compensated metabolic alkalosis

Front 135

If your pH is low, CO2 is normal and bicarbonate is high, what is the diagnosis?

Back 135

Uncompensated metabolic acidosis

Front 136

If your pH is low, CO2 is low and bicarbonate is low, what is the diagnosis?

Back 136

Partially compensated metabolic acidosis

Front 137

If your pH is low normal, CO2 is low and bicarbonate is low, what is the diagnosis?

Back 137

Fully compensated metabolic acidosis

Front 138

If your pH is high, CO2 is low and bicarbonate is low, what is the diagnosis?

Back 138

Partially compensated respiratory alkalosis

Front 139

If your pH is high normal, CO2 is low and bicarbonate is low, what is the diagnosis?

Back 139

Fully compensated respiratory alkalosis

Front 140

The five cardinal signs of inflammation are...

Back 140

Rubor

Calor

Dolor

Tumor

Loss of function

Front 141

Immediately after an injury to a vessel, the vessel _______.

Back 141

Vasoconstricts

Front 142

After a vessel injury, platelets start to adhere to the damaged vessel wall and release....

1. ______ and ______ to increase platelet aggregation.

2. ______ and ______ to increase vessel permeability and dilation.

3. ______ to increase WBCs to the area.

Back 142

Thromboxane and PAF

Serotonin and histamine

Growth factor

Front 143

Activated mast cells release:

1.

2.

3.

Back 143

Serotonin

Histamine

Prostaglandins

Front 144

The medical term for hardened, dry non-viable tissue in a wound bed is called _________.

Back 144

Eschar

Front 145

Coagulation factors are formed in this organ.

Back 145

Liver

Front 146

Fibrinogen only converts to fibrin at the ______ site.

Back 146

Wound

Front 147

Which specific type of WBC is the first to arrive and aggregate at the site of injury?

Back 147

Neutrophils

Front 148

Typically, non-human cells (bacterial) are marked for destruction by __________ or by WBCs recognizing a non-human molecular pattern on the surface of their cells.

Back 148

Antibodies

Front 149

The growth of new blood vessels is called _____.

Back 149

Angiogenesis

Front 150

To fill in a wound, new granulation tissue must be made. The primary cell responsible for this tissue formation are _______.

Back 150

Fibroblasts

Front 151

Name the two processes for wound healing.

Back 151

Repair

Regeneration

Front 152

Name the two processes for wound healing.

Back 152

Repair

Regeneration

Front 153

If a wound is closed with sutures, staples, skin glue, etc....it will heal via ______ intent.

Back 153

Primary

Front 154

What are the three phases of wound healing?

Back 154

Hemostasis/Inflammatory

Proliferation (fibroplastic)

Maturation

Front 155

Name some key vitamins or other blood components that are key to wound healing.

Back 155

Vitamins A, C, E, K, zinc and protein

Front 156

Muscle relaxants and antispasmodic both work by serving as agonists to the neurotransmitter _____.

Back 156

GABA

Front 157

The following prefixes and suffixes are all representative of this class of drug.

cort

-olone

-onide

pred

-some

Back 157

Corticosteroids

Front 158

The main problem with COX-2 specific inhibitor NSAIDS is _________.

Back 158

Clotting....leading to stroke or MI

Front 159

Bacteria produce either _________ or _________ to damage human cells.

Back 159

endotoxins exotoxins

Front 160

Which type of virus embeds itself into DNA to produce new RNA. This new RNA creates proteins that embed into the host cell membrane creating a channel which dooms the host cell?

Back 160

RNA

Front 161

Which type of virus produces new RNA which becomes antigen on the cell surface, so the human immune system will kill the host cell...thus the method is called "indirect."

Back 161

DNA

Front 162

The end product of the clotting cascade is the formation of ____________.

Back 162

fibrin

Front 163

This type of exudate is thin, clear yellow and watery. It is typically found in the early stages of inflammation.

Back 163

serous

Front 164

The extrinsic arm of the clotting cascade can best be tested using the _______ lab test.

Back 164

PT

Front 165

Endothelial injuries such as infections, burns, hypoxia, acidosis, shock and cardiopulmonary arrest typically involves the __________ pathway in the coagulation cascade.

Back 165

intrinsic

Front 166

As the wound fills in with granulation tissue, the overall size of a wound starts to shrink, this is due to which cell?

Back 166

myofibroblasts

Front 167

Following an injury, which COX pathway leading to the formation of prostaglandins is most active? (causes more platelet aggregation)

Back 167

Cox 1

Front 168

The suffix -fenac and -profen represent this type of drug class.

Back 168

NSAID

Front 169

The suffixes:

-olone

-onide

-sone

represent this type of drug class.

Back 169

corticosteroid

Front 170

What is a pathogen?

Back 170

A disease-causing agent

Front 171

The term antigen can represent two things....can you describe them?

Back 171

1. a substand that when introduced into the body stimulates the production of antibodies.

2. the self-identifying molecules on the surface of cells

Front 172

What is the specific portion of an antigen that elicits an antibody response called?

Back 172

epitope

Front 173

The skin/mucosal barriers and the non-specific inflammatory response together make up the 1st line of immune defense called ______________ immunity.

Back 173

innate

Front 174

Which type of vaccination would be expected to last for a lifetime (or many years)?

Back 174

active immunity...you are given a weakened pathogen and the body makes antibodies in response (including some memory cells).

Front 175

Class I HLA markers are found on ________ cells.

Back 175

all

Front 176

Class II HLA markers are found on _________ cells.

Back 176

select white blood

Front 177

Neutrophils are also known by this abbreviation...

Back 177

PMNs

Front 178

Pus is mostly composed of ____________, debris and dead pathogens.

Back 178

neutrophils

Front 179

Which two types of myeloid phagocytic cells are involved in allergic responses?

Back 179

basophils and eosinophils

Front 180

Which type of lymphocyte is key for humoral immunity?

Back 180

B

Front 181

Which type of lymphocyte is key for cell-mediated immunity?

Back 181

T

Front 182

Antibodies are produced by __________ cells.

Back 182

plasma

Front 183

B cells will only convert to plasma cells after confirmation from ___________ cells.

Back 183

helper t

Front 184

Cytotoxic T cells only recognize antigens in the grasp of Class ____ HLA markers.

Back 184

I

Front 185

Helper T cells only recognize antigens in the grasp of Class ____ HLA markers.

Back 185

II

Front 186

To activate a helper T cell, the match with a class II marker and antigen on a WBC must be confirmed with a _________ protein.

Back 186

CD4

Front 187

To activate a cytotoxic T cell, the match with a class I marker and antigen on an infected cell much be confirmed with a _____ protein

Back 187

CD8

Front 188

Name the cells that are large granular lymphocytes that are able to kills infected and transformed cells without match confirmation. (but still need cytokine activation)

Back 188

NK cells

Front 189

This autoimmune disorder is unique in that is often produces antibodies against many different tissue components including RBCs, neutrophils, platelets, organs, tissues, etc.

Back 189

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)

Front 190

What is the name for a hospital acquired injection?

Back 190

nosocomial

Front 191

Name the six modes of disease transmission.

Back 191

contact

enteric

vector

airborne

droplet

vehicle

Front 192

Which type of immune cell is most impacted by HIV infection?

Back 192

T helper

Front 193

Name the viral disease that primarily affects the liver.

Back 193

hepatitis

Front 194

Which type of hepatitis is transmitted via a fecal/oral route from he ingestion of contaminated food or water.

Back 194

HAV

Front 195

Which disease is caused by the same virus that causes chicken-pox?

Back 195

shingles

Front 196

Name some of the common super bugs.

Back 196

MRSA

VRE

pseudomonas

acinebacter baumannii

C-Diff

Front 197

This disorder primarily affects children and may be a cause of the development of asthma.

Back 197

RSV (respiratory syncytial virus)

Front 198

Most often infects bones and especially common infection after joint replacements.

Back 198

Staph

Front 199

Gas gangrene is caused by ____________.

Back 199

Clostridial myonecrosis

Front 200

This disease is highly contagious and affects all tissues but mostly associated with the lungs.

Back 200

Tuberculosis

Front 201

Multi-systemic disease that is spread by a tick-borne spirochete. It's the most prevalent vector-borne infectious disease in the US.

Back 201

Lyme disease

Front 202

This class of medications often as these suffixes:

-cillin

-cycline

-micin

-mycin

Back 202

antibiotics

Front 203

This class of medications often has this suffix:

-nazole

Back 203

antifungal

Front 204

This class of medications often has this suffix:

-vir

Back 204

antiviral

Front 205

What are some general symptoms/signs of infection?

Back 205

fever, chills, sweating, malaise, N/V

Front 206

Which PT practice area are most likely to work with patients with bloodborne pathogens? (trick question)

Back 206

all

Front 207

Universal precautions is now called __________ precautions.

Back 207

standard

Front 208

There are three types of transmission-based precautions, can you name them?

Back 208

airborne

droplet

contact

Front 209

The best way to prevent the spread of infection is to ____________.

Back 209

wash your hands

Front 210

Your employer will have an _________ ________ plan where you can find all of the policies and procedures related to bloodborne pathogen management.

Back 210

exposure control

Front 211

If you encounter a potential bloodborne pathogen (blood splash, etc)...what should you do first?

Back 211

decontaminate

Front 212

When should you tell your supervisor after encountering a potential bloodborne pathogen?

Back 212

immediately after decontamination

Front 213

How long should you wash your hands?

Back 213

30 seconds

Front 214

Which body fluids are potentially contaminated with bloodborne pathogens?

Back 214

all

Front 215

Patients isolated due to an airborne pathogen are placed in a _________ pressure room.

Back 215

negative

Front 216

If you are treating a patient with a _________ or _________ pathogen, it is vital that you wear a moisture resistant mask.

Back 216

airborne or droplet

Front 217

The posterior pituitary releases:

Back 217

ADH and oxytocin

Front 218

Anterior pituitary releases:

Back 218

ACTH

FSH

GH

LH

TSH

Front 219

Thyroid releases:

Back 219

T3

T4

calcitonin

Front 220

The ____________ controls the release of hormones from the pituitary gland.

Back 220

hypothalamus

Front 221

Adrenal medulla secretes:

Back 221

catecholamines (norepinephrine and epinephrine)

Front 222

Adrenal cortex secretes:

Back 222

cortisol

aldosterone

Front 223

Cortisol is released in response to stress, injury or infection. Increased cortisol leads to increased __________.

Back 223

glucose

Front 224

Increased cortisol leads to a(n) __________ in BP.

Back 224

increase

Front 225

Catecholamines cause a(n) ___________ in HR as well as an increase in contractile force.

Back 225

increase

Front 226

ADH is known as ____________ _______ hormone.

Back 226

anti-diuretic

Front 227

Aldosterone is key in maintaining ______________ balance. If aldosterone is elevated, BP will ________.

Back 227

fluid/electrolyte

increase

Front 228

Increased T3 and T4 from the thyroid gland will __________ cellular metabolism.

Back 228

increase

Front 229

Increased calcitonin will ___________ the level of Ca++ in the blood.

Back 229

decrease

Front 230

As part of the HPA axis, elevated cortisol inhibits the __________ and ___________. It also decreases the activity of most WBCs.

Back 230

pituitary and hypothalamus

Front 231

In the RAAS system, if your blood pressure is low...will the release of renin increase or decrease?

Back 231

increase

Front 232

The parathyroids release PTH, this hormone increases blood levels of ___________.

Back 232

Ca++

Front 233

Name the three types of cells in the pancreas involved in glucose regulation.

Back 233

alpha, beta, delta

Front 234

If your blood glucose is too high, will insulin release increase or decrease?

Back 234

increase

Front 235

Glucagon is needed to convert glycogen to _________ in the liver.

Back 235

glucose

Front 236

The most common form of hyperthyroidism is called ___________ disease.

Back 236

Graves

Front 237

Hyperthyroidism is similar to which animal (in Katy's world)?

Back 237

rabbit

Front 238

Hypothyroidism is similar to which animal (in Katy's world)?

Back 238

turtle

Front 239

The most common medication to give to a person with low thyroid function is _________.

Back 239

levothyroxine or Synthroid

Front 240

Normal TSH levels (updated levels) are between ____ and _____.

Back 240

.5 to 3

Front 241

What is the difference between Cushing's syndrome and Cushing's disease?

Back 241

Cushing's syndrome: due to the adrenal cortex

Cushing's disease: due to decreased ACTH from the pituitary gland

Front 242

Conn's syndrome is due to an excess release of ______________ from the adrenal glands.

Back 242

aldosterone

Front 243

Addison's disease is an insufficient amount of hormones released from the ____________.

Back 243

adrenal glands

Front 244

An individual with untreated Addison's disease would likely have a _______ blood pressure.

Back 244

low

Front 245

Which type of diabetes can lead to ketoacidosis?

Back 245

type 1

Front 246

Which type of diabetes is most common?

Back 246

type 2

Front 247

Which type of diabetes causes islet cell antibodies?

Back 247

type 1

Front 248

Which type of diabetes usually needs insulin as a treatment?

Back 248

type 1

Front 249

Why are individuals with diabetes prone to slow healing (infected) wounds?

Back 249

-poor circulation (less oxygen and nutrients)

-impaired immune system

-poor vision (can't see wound until advanced)

-poor sensation (don't notice wound until advanced)

-changes in foot mechanics increases pressures on the foot in areas that are not designed for pressure.

Front 250

What is HHNC?

Back 250

hyperglycemic, hyperosmolar nonketotic coma (common in type 2 diabetics)

Front 251

Which life-threatening condition is best described as extremely low glucose levels and can affect both type 1 and type 2 diabetics.

Back 251

insulin shock

Front 252

Individuals with diabetes should be advised to exercise in the _______ (time of day).

Back 252

AM

Front 253

Individuals with type 1 diabetes should avoid exercise during peak ______ times.

Back 253

insulin

Front 254

PKU is a disorder that occurs when a person can't process ____________________.

Back 254

phenylalanine

Front 255

Wilson's disease occurs when a person can't metabolize ___________________.

Back 255

copper

Front 256

Osteoporosis is diagnosed when a person's bone mineral density is greater than _____ standard deviations lower than normal.

Back 256

2.5

Front 257

Osteomalacia is a _______________ of the bones without a change in bone matrix.

Back 257

softening

Front 258

Most exercise research suggests that the best intervention for someone with osteoporosis is to focus on _______________________.

Back 258

strengthening, resistance training (without impact)

Front 259

This disorder is characterized by cyclical bone resorption and bone formation that leads to skeletal fragility.

Back 259

Paget's disease

Front 260

What are the hallmark findings in someone with metabolic syndrome?

Back 260

abdominal obesity

dyslipidemia

HTN

insulin resistance

prothrombotic state

proinflammatory state

Front 261

A high level of TSH is often a sign of a hypo-functioning ______________.

Back 261

thyroid

Front 262

Hypoglycemic agents work by either increasing insulin secretion or inhibiting ________ production.

Back 262

glucose

Front 263

The outermost layer of the epidermis is the ________ _________.

Back 263

Stratum corneum

Front 264

True or false. The epidermis has its own (contained) blood supply.

Back 264

False

Front 265

The dermis has ______ layers.

Back 265

2

Front 266

Name the two layers of the dermis?

Back 266

Reticular

Papillary

Front 267

Name the specialized WBC in the skin which is key to immune functioning.

Back 267

Langerhans cell

Front 268

What is the common way to estimate the total surface area that is involved after a burn injury?

Back 268

Rule of Nines

Front 269

Eczema is often known by another term. What is that term?

Back 269

dermatitis

Front 270

Impetigo and cellulitis are caused by this type of pathogen.

Back 270

bacteria

Front 271

Name the condition that is characterized by inflammation of the dermis and subcutaneous tissues...and the infection spreads through tissue spaces.

Back 271

cellulitis

Front 272

Name the disease that is a chronic, auto-immune disorder that leads to itchy, white plaques on the skin.

Back 272

psoriasis

Front 273

Acanthosis nigricans can be sign that a person is _______________.

Back 273

diabetic

Front 274

Who is most at risk for a pressure injury?

Back 274

those who are bedridden, W/C bound, or unable to change position. Also, those with impaired sensation.

Front 275

Describe a stage 1 pressure injury.

Back 275

intact skin with non-blanchable erythema.

Front 276

Describe a stage 2 pressure injury.

Back 276

partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis down to the superficial dermis

Front 277

Describe a stage 3 pressure injury.

Back 277

full-thickness skin loss involving damage or necrosis of the subcutaneous tissue. undermining is present, but not tunneling.

Front 278

Describe a stage 4 pressure injury.

Back 278

full-thickness skin loss which penetrates the fascia. damage to muscle, tendon, ligament, bone. often see undermining and tunneling.

Front 279

If you can't visualize the full extent of a pressure injury, you should document the stage as ________________.

Back 279

unstageable

Front 280

Describe a typical venous insufficiency ulcer.

Back 280

lower leg or ankle

irregular in shape and shallow

lots of exudate

good granulation

Front 281

Describe a typical arterial insufficiency ulcer.

Back 281

on the feet (metatarsal heads, tips of toes, malleoli, areas of trauma or rubbing of footwear

look punched out

necrotic base

minimal granulation

gangrene

Front 282

Describe a typical neuropathic ulcer.

Back 282

client has diabetes.

painless

located on the bottom of the foot

well defined margins with a callus surrounding the wound.

Front 283

There are four degrees of burn depth injury, name them.

Back 283

superficial (1st degree)

superficial partial thickness (2nd degree)

deep partial thickness (2nd degree)

full thickness (3rd degree)

subdermal (4th degree)

Front 284

Which type of burn injury is shiny and red with blisters?

Back 284

superficial partial thickness

Front 285

Which type of burn injury is mottled red/white?

Back 285

deep partial thickness

Front 286

Which type of burn injury is grey?

Back 286

full-thickness

Front 287

Which type of burn injury is black and charred?

Back 287

subdermal

Front 288

Autografts are divided into sheet grafts and ____ grafts.

Back 288

mesh

Front 289

Why would you select a mesh graft?

Back 289

The donor site is smaller.

Front 290

Autografts can be divided into full-thickness grafts and ______________ grafts.

Back 290

split-thickness

Front 291

Why would you use a full-thickness graft?

Back 291

excellent cosmetic result and often used on areas that are weight-bearing or prone to friction.

Front 292

Allografts are made using __________ skin.

Back 292

cadaver

Front 293

Following a burn injury, if arterial occlusion is suspected, what procedure will be done?

Back 293

escharotomy

Front 294

Using the rule of nines, how much TBSA is both arms in an adult?

Back 294

18%

Front 295

sing the rule of nines, how much TBSA is one leg in an adult?

Back 295

18%

Front 296

Using the rule of nines, how much TBSA is both legs in a child?

Back 296

26%

Front 297

Using the rule of nines, how much TBSA is one arm in a child?

Back 297

9%

Front 298

When is the emergent/resuscitation phase of burn care done?

Back 298

About 48-72 hours after injury...when the client is hemodynamically stable.

Front 299

How long does the acute phase of burn care last?

Back 299

Until all of the wounds are closed.

Front 300

The most common type of scarring are _______________ scars.

Back 300

hypertrophic

Front 301

The shoulder should be positioned in which position to avoid a contracture following a burn injury?

Back 301

arm abduction to 90-110 decrees and externally rotated

Front 302

The MCP joints should be positioned in ____ degrees of flexion following a burn injury.

Back 302

90

Front 303

What is the general term for several diseases in which the wall of an artery becomes thicker and less elastic?

Back 303

arteriosclerosis

Front 304

The most common type of arteriosclerosis is ____________________.

Back 304

atherosclerosis

Front 305

The formation of intraarterial plaques are partially due to the conversion of macrophages/monocytes into ________________ cells.

Back 305

foam

Front 306

The normal level of C-reactive protein is greater than or equal to ______________.

Back 306

3.0 mg/dL (elevated levels are associated with CV disease)

Front 307

What is the term for when a localized area of an artery becomes dilated...and all three arterial wall layers are weakened?

Back 307

aneurysm

Front 308

Hypertension is diagnosed when the systolic blood pressure is above ______ and the diastolic blood pressure is above _______.

Back 308

90

140

Front 309

Hypertension is a two-fold problem...it could be due to increased peripheral resistance or increased ____________ or both.

Back 309

blood volume

Front 310

If a person has intermittent episodes of small artery constriction causing temporary pallor and cyanosis of the digits they may be diagnosed with _____________ disease.

Back 310

Raynaud's

Front 311

The quick clinical test that can suggest a DVT is the _______________ sign.

Back 311

Homan's

Front 312

Patients with a DVT and on heparin can resume PT in 12-24 hours. True/False

Back 312

False. It is up to the PT, PTT and INR blood results and perhaps a follow-up Doppler. Always check with the team before initiating mobilization.

Front 313

Gangrene is most associated with __________ ______________ ulcers.

Back 313

arterial insufficiency

Front 314

An accumulation of lymph fluid in the plural cavity following thoracic surgery or in an individual with lymphoma is called a ______________________.

Back 314

chylothorax

Front 315

For single lead ECG interpretation in this course, we will look at Lead ____.

Back 315

II

Front 316

The leads in the positive direction (for P wave) are the _______________________ leads.

Back 316

I, II, aVF, V4, V5, V6

Front 317

ST depression is indicative of a ______MI or ____________.

Back 317

Non-ST elevation MI (NSTEMI) - permanent damage

ischemia (reversible)

Front 318

What does PTCA stand for?

Back 318

percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty

Front 319

What does a CABG stand for?

Back 319

coronary artery bypass graft

Front 320

Name the sternal precautions.

Back 320

no pulling/pushing with arms

no lifting greater than 10 lbs

avoid shoulder horizontal abduction and ER

no shoulder flexion past 90 degrees

no assistive devices

no driving or sitting int he front seat with airbags

All for 4-6 weeks.

Front 321

Immediately following an open heart procedure, avoid increasing the HR more than ____ bpm over the resting heart rate.

Back 321

20

Front 322

The most common type of angina is called ____________ angina.

Back 322

stable

Front 323

Myocardial infarctions are typically described as either transmural or _____________.

Back 323

subendocardial

Front 324

Most MI occurs in the AM, because _____ tends to be higher.

Back 324

blood pressure

Front 325

Name some of the common signs/symptoms of a MI.

Back 325

sudden, prolonged pressure or pain in the center of the chest

pain that spreads from chest to neck/jaw/shoulders or arms

pallor

perspiration

shortness of breath

Front 326

ST segment elevation is a sign of a __________.

Back 326

transmural MI (STEMI)....along with T-wave inversion and signficiant (large) Q waves

Front 327

STEMIs are caused by a _______________.

Back 327

complete block of a coronary artery

Front 328

When differentiated ST depression....and deciding between unstable angina and a NSTEMI, the key is to look for elevated levels of ______________.

Back 328

troponin (indicitive of a NSTEMI)

Front 329

A great early marker to show cardiac muscle damage is to follow ________ levels.

Back 329

GPBB

Front 330

If a patient has a MI and is now discharged to home, what level of cardiac rehabilitation is ongoing.

Back 330

Level 1.5

Front 331

Which type of congestive heart failure leads to pulmonary edema and coughing?

Back 331

LV failure

Front 332

Which type of congestive heart failure leads to peripheral edema?

Back 332

RV failure

Front 333

Only the ______ value can be diagnosed with prolapse.

Back 333

mitral

Front 334

Inotropes are used to increase a patient's ___________ and __________.

Back 334

HR and BP

Front 335

Drugs ending with -thiazide and -semide are in which drug class?

Back 335

antihypertensives

Front 336

Adrenergic agnonists and adrenergic antagonists are both used to __________ peripheral resistance.

Back 336

decrease

Front 337

The mechanisms of action for both ACE inhibitors and ARBs are to inhibit the normal pathways of the _________ system.

Back 337

RAAS

Front 338

ACE inhibitors usually have the suffix -________.

Back 338

pril

Front 339

Beta-blockers usually have the suffix -_________.

Back 339

olol

Front 340

Antihypertensives that end in -ipine block the _______ ions influx in arterial wall muscle cells which leads to vasodilation.

Back 340

Ca++

Front 341

Diuretics inhibit the Na/Cl tranporters in the _____________ to increase the elimination of sodium (and water).

Back 341

kidney

Front 342

NTG is thought to raise levels of intracellular _________ which inhibits the contractile properties in vascular smooth muscle.

Back 342

cGMP

Front 343

Streptokinase, urokinase, and tPA are all in the drug class known as _________________.

Back 343

thrombolytics

Front 344

The congenital heart defect that causes a VSD, narrowed pulmonary valve, displaced aorta and a thickened right ventricle is called ___________________.

Back 344

Tetrology of Fallot

Front 345

The congenital heart defect that causes a switch in the placement of the aorta and the pulmonary trunk is called a _______________________.

Back 345

transposition of great vessels

Front 346

On an EKG, the p wave represents ___________ depolarization.

Back 346

atrial

Front 347

On an EKG, the QRS represents _________________ depolarization

Back 347

ventricular

Front 348

The primary pacemaker in the heart is the ____ node.

Back 348

SA

Front 349

On an EKG, one small horizontal box represents ____ seconds.

Back 349

.04

Front 350

On an EKG, one small vertical box represents ____ mV.

Back 350

.1

Front 351

On an EKG, the T wave represents ____________ repolarization.

Back 351

ventricular

Front 352

How many leads are traced in a typical EKG?

Back 352

12

Front 353

How many leads are bipolar?

Back 353

3: AVR, AVL and AVF

Front 354

Which leads would give you the best view from the top of the heart looking downward?

Back 354

AVR, AVL and I

Front 355

Which leads would give you the best view of the bottom of the heart looking upward?

Back 355

II, III and AVF

Front 356

Which section of the EKG tracing represents the right coronary artery?

Back 356

bottom left (II, III and AVF)

Front 357

If you see a QRS complex once every one large box on an EKG, the heart rate is ______bpm.

Back 357

300

Front 358

The two leads to see an axis shift is lead I and _____.

Back 358

AVF

Front 359

Typically the QRS complex is in the ____ direction in lead I and AVF.

Back 359

positive

Front 360

If a person has a normal rhythm but it is slow...about 45 bpm, he/she may be diagnosed with ____________.

Back 360

sinus bradycardia

Front 361

The most severe type of heart block is _____.

Back 361

complete heart block or 3rd degree

Front 362

The _____ interval can vary is a person has a wandering ____ pacemaker.

Back 362

atrial

Front 363

When a person has an "extra" beat...or...there is an occasional extra atrial following by ventricular contraction, he/she can be diagnosed with __________________.

Back 363

premature atrial contraction

Front 364

Which is worse....atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter?

Back 364

atrial fibrillation

Front 365

First degree AV heart block usually leads to an increased ____________ interval.

Back 365

PR

Front 366

What is the dysrhythmic condition that can be caused by a number of drugs?

Back 366

Torsades de Pointes

Front 367

This value represents the pressure of oxygen dissolved in the blood.

Back 367

PaO2

Front 368

For the purposes of this class, we consider HCO3 to be a weak ________.

Back 368

base

Front 369

Normal oxygen content is between _____ and ____%.

Back 369

15-22

Front 370

Normal oxygen saturation is between ____ and ____%.

Back 370

96-100

Front 371

What is the general term that means there is a general lack of oxygen in the whole body

Back 371

hypoxia

Front 372

Walking pneumonia is typically caused by a _____.

Back 372

bacterium called mycoplasma pneumonia

Front 373

In a hospitalized patient, aspiration pneumonia often affects the _________ _________ lobe of the lung.

Back 373

right upper

Front 374

Bacterial pneumonia typically affects the _________ lobes of the lung.

Back 374

lower

Front 375

What is the term for an accumulation of liquid or solids in the lung tissue?

Back 375

consolidation

Front 376

What is the term for an escape of fluid into a neighboring body cavity?

Back 376

effusion

Front 377

One of the contraindications for chest PT is an intracranial pressure of greater than ____.

Back 377

20

Front 378

A patient with a long history of TB would likely have ______________ in their lungs. These are an accumulation of old/inactive WBCs.

Back 378

granulomas

Front 379

For all obstructive airway diseases, the patient has difficulty getting the air __________ the lungs.

Back 379

out

Front 380

For all restrictive airway diseases, the patient has difficulty getting the air ________ the lungs.

Back 380

in

Front 381

TLC is increased in a patient with a ____________ lung disease.

Back 381

obstructive

Front 382

COPD represents which two diseases?

Back 382

chronic bronchitis and emphysema

Front 383

Which disorder is characterized as a reversible obstructive lung disease caused by a reaction to a stimuli?

Back 383

asthma

Front 384

Which disease is described as an inherited disease of the exocrine glands that affects the liver, GI and respiratory systems?

Back 384

cystic fibrosis

Front 385

Which restrictive lung disease is described as an accumulation of fibrous or connective tissue in the lungs due to chronic inflammation?

Back 385

pulmonary fibrosis

Front 386

Typically you would expect the V/Q ratio to be ___.

Back 386

1

Front 387

In areas with restricted blood flow in the lungs but normal ventilation, the V/Q ratio is _____.

Back 387

high

Front 388

Throughout most of the lung during a pulmonary embolism event, the body has low O2 due to the overall _______ V/Q ratio in the lungs.

Back 388

low

Front 389

A common suffix for glucocorticoids is _________.

Back 389

-sone

Front 390

Anti-histamines block the ____ receptors and thereby block the release of histamine.

Back 390

H

Front 391

Rescue inhalers, such as albuterol, work as bet-2 agonists which lead to an increase of __________ which relaxes bronchial smooth muscle.

Back 391

cAMP

Front 392

Which ventilator setting does ALL of the work for the patient?

Back 392

control ventilation

Front 393

Which ventilator modes can lead to hyperventilation in patients?

Back 393

ACV and AV

Front 394

Which vent setting allows for unsupported breaths, but when the patient does receive a supported breath it matches with the patient's effort?

Back 394

SIMV

Front 395

If you needed to adjust the amount of pressure in the alveoli at maximum exhalation, you would adjust the ___________.

Back 395

PEEP

Front 396

If you needed to adjust the amount of pressure in the alveoli at maximum inhalation, you would adjust the ________.

Back 396

PIP

Front 397

Name the breathing pattern that is characterized by repeated cycles of deep breathing followed by shallow breaths or cessation of breathing.

Back 397

Cheyne-Stokes respiration

Front 398

Name the volume of air from normal inspiration to maximal inspiration.

Back 398

inspiratory reserve volume

Front 399

Name the volume of air from normal expiration to maximal expiration.

Back 399

expiratory reserve volume

Front 400

Name the term to describe all of the air that can fill the lungs from maximal inspiration to a state where all air is removed from the lungs....even more than can be removed through maximal expiration.

Back 400

total lung capacity

Front 401

What is the volume of air that can be forcefully exhaled in one second called?

Back 401

forced expiratory volume 1

Front 402

What is the volume of air that can be maximally forcefully exhaled?

Back 402

forced vital capacity

Front 403

The coordinated contraction of smooth muscles that propels contents through the digestive tract is known as:

Back 403

peristalsis

Front 404

The musculo-membranous tube that extends from the base of the skull to C6 is known as the ___________.

Back 404

pharynx

Front 405

Name the two structures that border the stomach.

Back 405

Lower esophageal sphincter and the pyloric value

Front 406

What is the major hormone that regulates acid secretion in the stomach?

Back 406

gastrin

Front 407

Gastrin stimulates parietal and chief cells to release:

Back 407

Parietal: HCL

Chief: Pepsinogen

Front 408

What is the function of the gall bladder?

Back 408

store and concentrate bile

Front 409

Name some of the functions of the liver.

Back 409

make blood-clotting factors

fat metabolism

bile production

bilirubin metabolism

carbohydrate metabolism

vitamin and mineral storage

protein metabolism

filter the blood

immunological functions

production of albumin

synthesis of angiotensinogen

Front 410

What is GERD?

Back 410

gastrointestinal esophageal reflux disease

Front 411

The most effective pharmacological drug class for treating GERD is:

Back 411

proton pump inhibitors

Front 412

Peptic ulcer disease is usually caused by:

Back 412

bacterial infection (H. pylori)

Front 413

Idiopathic inflammatory bowel disease incorporates two conditions, name them:

Back 413

Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis

Front 414

True of False. It is possible for individuals with Crohn's disease to have integumentary symptoms.

Back 414

true

Front 415

Diverticulosis can lead to _______________ when there is inflammation.

Back 415

diverticulitis

Front 416

Celiac Sprue is a disorder that is caused by an intolerance to _________________ and leads to mucosal injury in the small intestine.

Back 416

gluten

Front 417

The two key lab tests for liver function are:

Back 417

ALT and AST

Front 418

Normal AST is between ____ and ____.

Back 418

8 to 48

Front 419

Normal ALT is between _____ and ____.

Back 419

7 and 55

Front 420

If a person has an liver disorder which is causing excessive amounts of bile to spill into the blood they will likely be diagnosed with:

Back 420

jaundice

Front 421

Why does phototherapy work to address neonatal jaundice in infants?

Back 421

The light is absorbed and convert the bilirubin into an easier to eliminate product.

Front 422

A generalized or localized inflammatory process of the peritoneum.

Back 422

peritonitis

Front 423

Appendicitis pain typically starts in the ______ region.

Back 423

periumbilical

Front 424

The suffix -ectomy means

Back 424

surgical removal

Front 425

The suffix -desis means:

Back 425

fusion

Front 426

The suffix -plasty means:

Back 426

to modify or reshape

Front 427

Most cancer deaths are due to __________ cancer.

Back 427

lung

Front 428

True or false. The more primitive the malignant cell, the better the prognosis.

Back 428

false

Front 429

Single biggest risk factor for developing cancer is _____________________

Back 429

older age

Front 430

The TNM classification for cancer stands for:

Back 430

tumor

lymph nodes

metastases

Front 431

If a person has T2N0M0, he/she is at a stage ___.

Back 431

2

Front 432

If a person has T1N2M1, he/she is at a stage ___.

Back 432

4

Front 433

If a person's tumor is completely gone, he/she will be in ___________ remission.

Back 433

complete

Front 434

If a person's tumor is neither growing or shrinking, he/she will be a ______________ phase.

Back 434

stabilization

Front 435

True or false. A person after radiation and surgery due to cancer can develop lymphedema at any time, even years later.

Back 435

True

Front 436

Put in order from most likely to metastasize to least likely.

basal cell

squamous cell

melanoma

Back 436

melanoma

squamous cell

basal cell

Front 437

Explain the process of urine formation starting at the glomerulus.

Back 437

glomerulus, bowman's capsule, PCT, descending loop of henle, ascending loop of henle, DCT, collecting duct, papillary ducts, minor calyx, major calyx, renal pelvis, ureter, bladder, urethra

Front 438

The key test of renal function is:

Back 438

Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)

Front 439

Normal GFR is approximately greater than:

Back 439

70-90 (just an approximation)

Front 440

Most of the volume of filtrate is reabsorbed in the ___________. (part of the kidney)

Back 440

PCT

Front 441

Urine is mostly comprised of _________.

Back 441

water

Front 442

Tubular secretion mostly occurs in the __________ and _________ in the kidney.

Back 442

renal tubules and collecting ducts

Front 443

Which urethral sphincter is under voluntary control?

Back 443

external

Front 444

Leukocytes in the urine could be a sign of a _______________.

Back 444

UTI

Front 445

Most UTIs are caused by this type of bacteria.

Back 445

E. Coli

Front 446

Urine typically has a _________ pH.

Back 446

low (acidic)

Front 447

Most kidney stones are comprised of _______ __________.

Back 447

calcium oxylate

Front 448

True or false. Most kidney stones are diagnosed in the winter months.

Back 448

false

Front 449

Chronic kidney disease can lead to ___________, which can in turn negatively impact the kidneys.

Back 449

hypertension

Front 450

The two types of dialysis discussed in this course is:

Back 450

hemodialysis

peritoneal dialysis

Front 451

A common condition affecting older men that can lead to prostate cancer is:

Back 451

BPH

Front 452

True or False. All HLA markers should be matched exactly for a successful transplant.

Back 452

false.

Front 453

The main problem affecting individuals following a transplant is _____________.

Back 453

hypertension

Front 454

Activation of the RAAS system leads to vaso____________.

Back 454

constriction

Front 455

Assuming there are sufficient enzymes available to degrade a medication. The concentration of a drug should decrease using a _______ order process.

Back 455

first

Front 456

What is the formula to calculate clearance of a drug?

Back 456

(conc. of drug in urine x urine rate)/ conc. of drug in plasma

Front 457

The suffix -ase is used for which drug class?

Back 457

thrombolytics (clot-busters) such as strektokinase

Front 458

The suffix -azole is used for which drug class?

Back 458

antifungals

Front 459

The suffix -caine is used for which drug class?

Back 459

local anesthetic such as lidocaine

Front 460

The suffix -cillin is used for which drug class?

Back 460

penicillin-based antibiotic

Front 461

The root "cort" is used for which drug class?

Back 461

corticosteroid such as hydrocortisone

Front 462

The suffix -floxacin is for which drug class?

Back 462

quinolone-based antibiotic such as ciprofloxacin

Front 463

The suffix -mycin or -micin is used for which drug class?

Back 463

antibiotic

Front 464

The suffix -olol is used for which drug class?

Back 464

beta blocker

Front 465

The suffix -pam is used for which drug class?

Back 465

antianxiety such as diazepam

Front 466

The suffix -parin is used for which drug class?

Back 466

antithrombotic / anticoagulant such as heparin

Front 467

The prefix pred- is used for which drug class?

Back 467

corticosteroid such as prednisone

Front 468

The suffix -pril is used for which drug class?

Back 468

ACE inhibitor such as captopril or lisinopril

Front 469

The suffix -profen is used for which drug class?

Back 469

NSAID such as ibuprofen

Front 470

The suffix -sartan is used for which drug class?

Back 470

Angiotensin II receptor antagonist or ARB

Front 471

The suffix -semide is used for which drug class?

Back 471

diuretic such as furosemide

Front 472

The suffix -sone is used for which drug class?

Back 472

corticosteriod

Front 473

The suffix -statin is used for which drug class?

Back 473

cholesterol-lowering

Front 474

The prefix sulfa- is used for which drug class?

Back 474

antibiotic; anti-inflammatory

Front 475

The suffix -terol is used for which drug class?

Back 475

beta agonist / bronchodilator such as albuterol

Front 476

The suffix -vir is used for which drug class?

Back 476

antiviral

Front 477

The suffix -zolam and -zepam is used for which drug class?

Back 477

benzodiazepine

Front 478

Drugs such as Wllbutrin, Celexa, Lexapro, Prozac, Paxil, Xoloft, Cymbalta, and Effexor are all antidepressants and are known as _______ or ________ for their mode of action.

Back 478

SSRI

SNRI

Front 479

Antipsychotics are typically ______________ antagonists.

Back 479

dopamine

Front 480

Anti-Parkinsonian medications are often __________________ agonists.

Back 480

dopamine

Front 481

Warfarin and Coumadin work by limiting the effectiveness of the ____________ cascade.

Back 481

clotting

Front 482

Normal WBC count?

Back 482

4,500 to 11,000 cells/microliter

Front 483

Normal neutrophils as percentage and count?

Back 483

56%

1800-7800 cells/microliter

Front 484

Normal lymphocytes as percentage and count?

Back 484

34%

1000-4800 cells/microliter

Front 485

Normal monocytes as percentage and count?

Back 485

4%

0-800 cells/microliter

Front 486

Normal eosinophils as percentage and count?

Back 486

2.7%

0-450 cells/microliter

Front 487

Normal basophils as percentage and count?

Back 487

.3%

0-200 cells/microliter

Front 488

Normal RBC count?

Back 488

4.2 - 5.4 x 106 cells/microliter

Front 489

Normal Hgb level?

Back 489

12-18 g/dL

Front 490

Normal Hct percentage?

Back 490

37-52% of RBCs in whole blood

Front 491

Normal MCV in size?

Back 491

80-100 micrometer3

Front 492

Normal MCH?

Back 492

28-33pgs

Front 493

Normal MCHC?

Back 493

33-36g/dL

Front 494

Normal reticulocyte percentage (out of total RBCs) and count?

Back 494

.5-1.5%

25-75 x 103 cells/microliter

Front 495

Normal platelet count?

Back 495

150,000-450,000 cells/microliter

Front 496

Normal MPV?

Back 496

7.5-11.5 femtoliters

Front 497

Erythropoietin is primarily produced in the ____________ of adults.

Back 497

kidneys

Front 498

The four values that are shown in the medical shorthand for a CBC are:

Back 498

WBC, Hgb, HCT, Platelets

Front 499

The clotting cascade starts with the __________________ pathway and is tested with which lab test?

Back 499

extrinsic

PT

Front 500

Normal INR?

Back 500

.8-1.0

Front 501

If a patient's INR is greater than ______, you should treat them with caution.

Back 501

4.0

Front 502

Normal sodium?

Back 502

135-145 mEq/L

Front 503

Normal potassium?

Back 503

3.5-5.0 mEq/L

Front 504

Normal chloride?

Back 504

95-105 mEq/L

Front 505

Normal calcium?

Back 505

9-11 mg/dL

Front 506

Normal magnesium?

Back 506

1.5-2.5 mEq/L

Front 507

Normal bicarbonate?

Back 507

22-28 mEq/L

Front 508

Normal PaCO2?

Back 508

35-45 mmHg

Front 509

Normal creatinine?

Back 509

.5-1.5 mg/dL

Front 510

Normal BUN?

Back 510

5-30 mg/dL

Front 511

The seven values that are included in the medical shorthand for metabolic lab values are:

Back 511

sodium, potassium, chloride, bicarb, BUN, creatinine, and glucose

Front 512

What is the etiology of this wound?

Back 512

chronic venous insufficiency

Front 513

What is the etiology of this wound?

Back 513

Pressure injury

Front 514

What is the etiology of this wound?

Back 514

arterial insufficiency

Front 515

What is the etiology of this wound?

Back 515

chronic venous insufficiency

Front 516

What is the etiology of this wound?

Back 516

neuropathic or diabetic wound

Front 517

What is the depth of involvement?

superficial

partial thickness

full thickness

Back 517

full-thickness (there is no dermis or epidermis in this wound)

Front 518

What is the etiology of this wound?

Back 518

Pressure injury

Front 519

If there was bone visible in this wound, what would be the correct stage?

Back 519

Stage IV

Front 520

What is the etiology of this wound?

Back 520

arterial insufficiency

Front 521

What is the etiology of this wound?

Back 521

pressure injury

Front 522

What is the stage (this wound is not open)

Back 522

stage I

Front 523

What is the etiology of this wound?

Back 523

Neuropathic or diabetic

Front 524

What is the etiology of this wound?

Back 524

Pressure injury

Front 525

How would you stage this wound?

Back 525

Unstageable

Front 526

What is the most likely etiology for this edema?

Back 526

lymphedema

Front 527

Back 527

PAC (premature atrial contraction)

Front 528

Back 528

V-tach

Front 529

Back 529

V-fibrillation

Front 530

Back 530

atrial flutter

Front 531

Back 531

atrial fibrillation

Front 532

Back 532

premature ventricular contraction (PVC)

Front 533

Back 533

Complete heart block (3rd degree)

Front 534

Back 534

first degree heart block

Front 535

Back 535

sinus bradycardia

Front 536

Back 536

sinus tachycardia