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331 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Number one cause of preventable morbidity and mortality in the U.S.?

Smoking

Bad effects of smoking?

- Atherosclerosis


- Cancer


- COPD

Number two cause of preventable morbidity and mortality in the U.S.?

Alcohol

Bad effects of alcohol?

- >1/2 of accidental and intentional deaths involve alcohol


- Number one cause of preventable mental retardation (fetal alcohol syndrome)


- Cancer / cirrhosis


- Potentially fatal in withdrawal


- Wernicke encephalopathy / Korsakoff dementia

Classic lab finding associated with alcoholic hepatitis?

AST:ALT > 2:1 (although both may be elevated)

Vitamin for reproductive age women? Why?

Folate - prevent neural tube defects

Vitamin needed in pernicious anemia? Why?

B12 - prevent permanent neurologic deficits

Vitamin deficiency associated with isoniazid?

B6 - Pyridoxine

Treatment for Wernicke encephalopathy in alcoholics? Why?

Thiamine - prevent Korsakoff dementia

Most common cause of anemia?

Iron deficiency - menstrual loss in reproductive age women and cancer in men / menopausal women (if no other cause is obvious)

Which vitamin is a known teratogen?

Vitamin A (eg, acne treatment isotretinoin)

What is involved in roughly one half of deaths in the U.S.?

Atherosclerosis

Potential complications of atherosclerosis?

- MI


- Heart failure


- Stroke


- Gangrene

Primary risk factors for atherosclerosis?

- Age/sex


- Family history


- Cigarette smoking


- HTN


- DM


- High LDL


- Low HDL

Potential complications of DM?

- Atherosclerosis


- Retinopathy


- Nephropathy


- Peripheral vascular disease


- Peripheral neuropathy (sensory and autonomic)


- Increased infection incidence

Leading cause of blindness in U.S.?

Diabetic retinopathy

Leading cause of ESRD in U.S.?

Diabetic nephropathy

Leading cause of limb amputation in U.S.?

Peripheral vascular disease secondary to DM

Neural pathways affected by diabetic peripheral neuropathy?

Sensory, Autonomic

Manifestations of severe HTN / hypertensive emergency?

- Headaches


- Dizziness


- Blurry vision


- Papilledema


- Cerebral edema


- AMS


- Seizures


- Intracerebral hemorrhage (classically in basal ganglia)


- Renal failure / azotemia


- Angina


- MI


- Heart failure

Classic location of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with severe HTN / hypertensive emergency?

Basal ganglia

Which diseases, when mild, can be treated with lifestyle modifications (diet, exercise, weight loss, cessation of alcohol/tobacco)?

- HTN

- HLD


- DM


- GERD


- Insomnia


- Obesity


- Sleep apnea




Exogenous causes of hyponatremia?

- Oxytocin


- Surgery


- Narcotics


- Inappropriate IV fluids


- Diuretics


- Anti-epileptics

EKG finding with hyperkalemia?

Tall, tented T waves

EKG finding with hypokalemia?

Loss of T waves / T-wave flattening, U waves

EKG finding with hypocalcemia?

QT prolongation

EKG finding with hypercalcemia?

QT shortening

Treatment of shock?

- O2


- IV line --> fluid bolus (1L NS or LR) if no signs of CHF (e.g., bibasilar rales)


- Monitors: pulse ox, ECG, frequent vital signs

Virchow's triad?

- Endothelial damage


- Venous stasis


- Hypercoagulable state

Causes of endothelial damage that may lead to DVT (component of Virchow's triad)?

- Surgery


- Trauma

Causes of venous stasis that may lead to DVT (component of Virchow's triad)?

- Immobilization


- Surgery


- Severe heart failure

Causes of hyper-coagulable state that may lead to DVT (component of Virchow's triad)?

- Malignancy


- Birth control pills


- Pregnancy


- Lupus anticoagulant


- Inherited deficiencies

Therapy components for CHF?

- Diuretics (eg, furosemide)


- ACE-Inhibitors


- Beta-blockers (for stable patients)


- Treat HLD if applicable


- Treat smoking addiction if applicable

What is Cor Pulmonale?

Right sided heart enlargement, hypertrophy, or failure caused by primary lung disease (usually COPD)


Most common cause of R-sided heart failure?

L-sided heart failure (not for pulmonate)

What should you check in patients presenting with Atrial Fibrillation?

Underlying cause - TSH, electrolytes, echo

Main management issues of Atrial Fibrillation?

- Ventricular rate - if needed, slow rate with meds


- Atrial clot formation / embolic disease - consider anticoagulation with warfarin

What conditions are treated with immediate defibrillation?

- Ventricular fibrillation


- Pulseless ventricular tachycardia

How do you treat ventricular fibrillation?

- Immediate defibrillation


- Followed by epinephrine, vasopressin, amiodarone, and lidocaine

How do you treat pulseless ventricular tachycardia?

- Immediate defibrillation


- Followed by epinephrine, vasopressin, amiodarone, and lidocaine

How do you treat ventricular tachycardia with a pulse?

Amiodarone and synchronized cardioversion

What value do you use to distinguish obstructive vs restrictive lung disease?

FEV1/FVC ratio


- Low in Obstructive pathology


- Normal in Restrictive pathology

Most common type of esophageal cancer?

Adenocarcinoma

Risk factors for esophageal adenocarcinoma?

- GERD


- Barrett esophagus

Second most common type of esophageal cancer?

Squamous cell carcinoma

Risk factors for esophageal squamous cell carcinoma?

- Smoking


- Alcohol abuse

Management of gastric ulcers?

Biopsy, or follow to resolution to exclude malignancy

How do you best distinguish upper from lower GI bleeding?

Nasogastric tube aspirate for blood


(although bright red blood via mouth or anus is a fairly reliable sign of a nearby bleeding source)

One of the most common causes of GI complaints?

Irritable Bowel Syndrome

How do you diagnose Irritable Bowel Syndrome?

Physical and diagnostic studies are negative - diagnosis of exclusion

Crohn's Disease vs Ulcerative Colitis: place of origin?

- CD: distal ileium, proximal colon


- UC: rectum

Crohn's Disease vs Ulcerative Colitis: thickness of pathology?

- CD: transmural


- UC: mucosa / submucosa only

Crohn's Disease vs Ulcerative Colitis: progression?

- CD: irregular (skip lesions)


- UC: proximal, continuous from rectum, no skipped areas

Crohn's Disease vs Ulcerative Colitis: bowel habit changes?

- CD: obstruction, abdominal pain


- UC: bloody diarrhea

Crohn's Disease vs Ulcerative Colitis: classic lesions?

- CD: fistulas / abscesses, cobblestoning, string sign on barium enema


- UC: pseudopolyps, lead pipe colon on barium x-ray, toxic megacolon

Crohn's Disease vs Ulcerative Colitis: colon cancer risk?

- CD: slightly increased


- UC: markedly increased

Crohn's Disease vs Ulcerative Colitis: surgery?

- CD: no (may make worse)


- UC: yes (proctocolectomy with illegal anastomosis)

Distinguishing causes of viral hepatitis during acute stage?

All forms present similarly - need serology testing and history to distinguish

Forms of viral hepatitis that are transmitted parenterally?

B, C, and D

Potential complications of hepatitis B, C, or D?

- Chronic infection


- Cirrhosis


- Hepatocellular carcinoma

Most common known genetic disease in white people?

Hereditary hemochromatosis

Initial symptoms of hereditary hemochromatosis?

- Fatigue


- Impotence


- Hepatomegaly

Screening for hereditary hemochromatosis?

- Transferrin saturation test (serum iron / TIBC)


- Ferritin level

Treatment for hereditary hemochromatosis?

Phlebotomy after confirming diagnosis with genetic testing and liver biopsy

Sequelae of liver failure?

- Coagulopathy (cannot be fixed with vitamin K)


- Jaundice


- Hyperbilirubinemia


- Hypoalbuminemia


- Ascites


- Portal HTN


- Hyperammonemia / encephalopathy


- Disseminated intravascular coagulation

Common causes of pancreatitis?

- Alcohol

- Gallstones

Signs/symptoms of pancreatitis?

- Abdominal pain


- Nausea/vomiting


- Elevated amylase / lipase

Treatment for pancreatitis?

- Supportive care


- Pain control

Potential complications of pancreatitis?

- Pseudocyst formation


- Infection / abscess


- Adult respiratory distress syndrome

Most common cause of jaundice / hyperbilirubinemia in neonates? Treatment?

Physiologic - monitor and follow-up lab tests are needed

Is jaundice at birth ever ok?

No - always pathologic

Examples of primary endocrine disturbances?

- Graves


- Hashimoto


- Addison disease

What is wrong in primary endocrine disturbances?

Gland malfunctions but the pituitary or another gland and the CNS respond appropriately

What is wrong in secondary endocrine disturbances?

Gland itself is doing what it is told to do by other controlling forces (e.g., pituitary gland, hypothalamus, tumor, disease) - they are the problem, not the gland

Examples of secondary endocrine disturbances?

- ACTH-secreting lung carcinoma


- Heart failure induced hyperreninemia


- Renal failure induced hyperparathyroidism

Corticosteroid side effects?

- Weight gain


- Easy bruising


- Acne


- Hirsutism


- Emotional lability


- Depression


- Psychosis


- Menstrual changes


- Sexual dysfunction


- Insomnia


- Memory loss


- Buffalo hump


- Truncal and central obesity with wasting of extremities


- Round plethoric facies


- Purplish skin striae


- Weakness (especially proximal muscles)


- HTN


- Peripheral edema


- Poor wound healing


- Glucose intolerance or diabetes


- Osteoporosis


- Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis (resulting from mineralocorticoid effect of certain corticosteroids)


- Growth may be stunted in children

What electrolyte/metabolic derangement can occur with corticosteroids? Why?

Hypokalemic Metabolic Alkalosis - due to mineralocorticoid effects of certain corticosteroids

Most common cause of arthritis?

Osteoarthritis (>75% of cases)

Findings suggestive of osteoarthritis?

- Joint is not hot or swollen typically


- Arthrocentesis does not have significant findings

Overall highest types of cancer in males?

1. Prostate


2. Lung


3. Colon

Overall highest types of cancer in females?

1. Breast


2. Lung


3. Colon

Overall cancer with highest mortality in males?

1. Lung


2. Prostate


3. Colon

Overall cancer with highest mortality in females?

1. Lung


2. Breast


3. Colon

Sequelae of lung cancer?

- Hemoptysis


- Horner syndrome


- Superior vena cava syndrome


- Phrenic nerve involvement / diaphragmatic paralysis


- Hoarseness from recurrent laryngeal nerve involvement


- Paraneoplastic syndromes

Types of paraneoplastic syndromes associated with lung cancer?

- Cushing syndrome


- Syndrome of Inappropriate secretion of ADH (SIADH)


- Hypercalcemia


- Eaton-Lambert Syndrome

Term for loss of peripheral vision in both eyes?

Bitemporal hemianopsia

Cause of bitemporal hemianopsia? Management?

Space occupying lesion pushing on the optic chasm (classically a pituitary tumor) until proven otherwise; order a CT or MRI of the brain

Potential risks and side effects of estrogen therapy (e.g., contraception or post-menopausal hormone replacement)?

- Endometrial cancer


- Hepatic adenomas


- Glucose intolerance / diabetes


- DVT


- Stroke


- Cholelithiasis


- HTN


- Endometrial bleeding


- Depression


- Weight gain


- Nausea/vomiting


- Headache


- Drug-drug interactions


- Teratogenesis


- Aggravation of pre-existing uterine leiomyomas (fibroids), breast fibroadenomas, migraines, and epilepsy

Specific potential risks and side effects of combined estrogen / progesterone therapy (e.g., contraception or post-menopausal hormone replacement)?

- Coronary artery disease


- Breast cancer

Characteristics of a mole that make you suspicious for malignant transformation?

- Asymmetry


- Borders (irregular)


- Color (change in color or multiple colors)


- Diameter (bigger the lesion, the more likely it is malignant)


- Evolving over time

What should you do for a mole with concerning ABCDE characteristics or for a mole that starts to itch or bleed?

Excisional biopsy

Bronchiolitis vs. Croup vs. Epiglottitis: child's age?

- Bronchiolitis: 0-18 months


- Croup: 1-2 years


- Epiglottitis: 2-5 years

Bronchiolitis vs. Croup vs. Epiglottitis: commonness?

- Bronchiolitis: yes


- Croup: yes


- Epiglottitis: no

Bronchiolitis vs. Croup vs. Epiglottitis: common causes?

- Bronchiolitis: RSV (>75%), parainfluenza, influenza


- Croup: parainfluenza (50-75%), influenza


- Epiglottitis: H. influenzae, Staph species, Strep species

Bronchiolitis vs. Croup vs. Epiglottitis: symptoms / signs?

- Bronchiolitis: initial viral URI symptoms followed by tachypnea and expiratory wheezing


- Croup: initial viral URI symptoms followed by "barking" cough, hoarseness, inspiratory stridor


- Epiglottitis: rapid progression to high fever, toxicity, drooling, and respiratory distress

Bronchiolitis vs. Croup vs. Epiglottitis: x-ray findings?

- Bronchiolitis: hyperinflation


- Croup: subglottic tracheal narrowing on frontal x-ray (steeple sign)


- Epiglottitis: swollen epiglottis on lateral neck x-ray (thumb sign)

Bronchiolitis vs. Croup vs. Epiglottitis: treatment?

- Bronchiolitis: humidified O2, bronchodilators (efficacy uncertain); ribavirin for severe RSV or high risk RSV infections


- Croup: dexamethasone, nebulized epi, humidified O2


- Epiglottitis: prepare to establish an airway, antibiotics (3rd gen. cephalosporin and anti-staphylococcal agent active against MRSA, such as vancomycin or clindamycin)

Sequelae of streptococcal infection?

- Rheumatic fever


- Scarlet fever


- Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (not prevented by use of antibiotics)

What should you think of when you have a young adult with recurrent, varied neurologic signs/symptoms with no other cause evident?

Multiple sclerosis

Best diagnostic test for Multiple Sclerosis?

- MRI (most sensitive)


- LP (elevated IgG oligoclonal bands and myeline basic protein levels, mild elevation in lymphocytes and protein)


- Evoked potentials (slowed conduction through areas with damaged myelin)

What are the findings of MS on LP?

- Elevated IgG oligoclonal bands


- Elevated myelin basic protein levels


- Mild elevation in lymphocytes and protein

Empiric treatment for unconscious or delirious patient in ED with no history or signs of trauma?

- Thiamine (before glucose) for deficiency in alcoholic


- Glucose for hypoglycemia


- Naloxone for opioid overdose



Aside from empiric treatment for unconscious or delirious patient in ED with no history or signs of trauma; what other commonly tested causes should you check for?

- Alcohol use


- Illicit or prescription drug use


- Diabetic ketoacidosis


- Stroke


- Epilepsy or post-octal state


- Subarachnoid hemorrhage (eg, aneurysm rupture)

Delirium vs Dementia: onset?

- Delirium: acute and dramatic


- Dementia: chronic and insidious

Delirium vs Dementia: common causes?

- Delirium: illness, toxin, withdrawal


- Dementia: Alzheimer disease, multi infarct dementia, HIV/AIDS

Delirium vs Dementia: reversibility?

- Delirium: usually


- Dementia: usually not

Delirium vs Dementia: attention?

- Delirium: poor


- Dementia: usually unaffected

Delirium vs Dementia: arousal level?

- Delirium: fluctuates


- Dementia: normal

Before what types of management should a reproductive age woman be screened for pregnancy?

Potentially teratogenic therapies or tests (e.g., anti-epileptic drugs, x-ray, CT scan)

Common causes of anaphylaxis?

- Bee stings


- Food allergy (peanuts, shellfish, etc)


- Meds (PCN, sulfa drugs, etc)


- Latex allergy

Signs/symptoms of anaphylaxis?

Symptoms develop rapidly and dramatically:


- Agitation


- Flushing


- Itching (urticaria)


- Facial swelling (angioedema)


- Difficulty breathing

Treatment for anaphylaxis?

- Secure airway (laryngeal edema may prevent intubation, in which case do a cricothyroidotomy if needed)


- Give subcutaneous or IV epinephrine




- Antihistamines and corticosteroids are not useful for immediate severe reactions that involve the airway

Colorectal cancer screening guidelines?

Starting >50 years for all studies:


- Colonoscopy q10y


- Flexible sigmoidoscopy q5y


- Double-contrast barium enema q5y


- CT colonography q5y


- Fecal occult blood test annually


- Fecal immunochemical test annually


- Stool DNA test, interval uncertain

Colon / Prostate cancer screening guidelines?

Digital rectal exam annually once >40 years

Prostate cancer screening guidelines?

PSA (controversial, but offer annually) once >50 years, except >45 years if African American or >40 years if first-degree relative diagnosed at early age

Cervical cancer screening guidelines?

Pap smear beginning at age 21 years regardless of sexual activity:


- Pap q3y until 30


- Pap + HPV q5y if both negative

Gynecologic cancer screening guidelines?

Pelvic exam starting at age 21y


- Annually, after 3 normal exams, every 2-3 years


- ≥65 years, annually, when to stop is not clearly established

Endometrial cancer screening guidelines?

Endometrial biopsy at menopause - no recommendation for routine screening in the absence of symptoms

Breast cancer screening guidelines?

- Breast self exam >20 years (benefits and limitations should be discussed, no longer recommended by American Cancer Society)


- Physical exam by doctor between 20-40 years q3y; >40 years annually


- Mammography >40 years annually

Lung cancer screening guidelines?

- Sputum / CXR not recommended for asymptomatic individuals even if at high risk


- CT scan annually is controversial but may be indicated for smokers and former smokers aged 55-74 years who have smoked >1ppd for >30 years

Calculation for Sensitivity?

Calculation for Sensitivity?

A / (A+C)

Calculation for Specificity?

Calculation for Specificity?

D / (B+D)

Calculation for PPV?

Calculation for PPV?

A / (A+B)

Calculation for NPV?

Calculation for NPV?

D / (C+D)

Calculation for Odds Ratio?

Calculation for Odds Ratio?

(A * D) / (B * C)

Calculation for Relative Risk?

Calculation for Relative Risk?

[A / (A+B)] / [C / (C+D)]

Calculation for Attributable Risk?

Calculation for Attributable Risk?

[A / (A+B)] - [C / (C + D)]

What does the "p-value" represent?

Likelihood of making a type I error or claiming an effect or difference where none existed (i.e., results were obtained by chance)




This expresses our confidence in the data

What does it mean to reject the null hypothesis in a trial testing a new treatment?

Null hypothesis hypothesizes that no difference exists



To reject the null hypothesis means the new treatment works


Side effects of anti-psychotics?

- Acute dystonia


- Akathisia


- Tardive dyskinesia


- Neuroleptic malignant syndrome


- Hyperprolactinemia


- Autonomic nervous system related effects

Drugs of abuse that are potentially fatal in withdrawal?

- Alcohol


- Barbiturates


- Benzodiazepines

Drugs of abuse that are potentially fatal in overdose?

- Alcohol


- Cocaine


- Opiates


- Barbiturates


- Benzodiazepines


- Phencyclideine (PCP)


- Inhalants

Most common preventable cause of infertility in U.S.?

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)

Most likely cause of infertility in younger, normally menstruating women?

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)

Likely diagnosis in woman who is "heavy, hirsute, and [h]amenorrheic"?

Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)

Most common cause of dysfunctional uterine bleeding?

Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)

Risk associated with Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)? Why?

Endometrial cancer due to unopposed estrogen

Cause of fetal / neonatal macrosomia?

Maternal diabetes until proven otherwise

Treatment for maternal diabetes?

Diet and insulin (no oral agents)


Causes of low maternal serum alpha fetoprotein (AFP)?

- Down syndrome


- Inaccurate dates (most common)


- Fetal demise

Causes of high maternal serum alpha fetoprotein (AFP)?

- Neural tube defects


- Ventral wall defects (e.g., omphalocele, gastroschisis)


- Inaccurate dates (most common)


- Multiple gestation

When do you typically measure maternal serum alpha fetoprotein (AFP)?

16-20 weeks gestation

Definition of pre-eclampsia?

HTN + Proteinuria in pregnancy (until proven otherwise)

Signs/symptoms of ectopic pregnancy?

- Positive pregnancy test (not a clinically apparent pregnancy)


- Vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain

Diagnostic workup for suspected ectopic pregnancy?

Pelvic ultrasound if patient is stable

Early decelerations (normal/abnormal)? Cause?

Normal - caused by head compression

Variable decelerations (normal/abnormal)? Cause? Management?

Common - usually caused by cord compression (turn the mother on her side, give O2 and fluids, stop oxytocin)


Late decelerations (normal/abnormal)? Cause?

Abnormal - caused by uteroplacental insufficiency, most worrisome pattern




Turn mother on her side, give O2 and fluids, stop oxytocin, measure fetal O2 saturation of scalp pH; prepare for prompt delivery

Management of third trimester bleeding?

Always perform an ultrasound before a pelvic exam (in case placenta previa is present)

Most common cause of postpartum bleeding?

Uterine atony - usually caused by uterine over distention (e.g., twins, polyhydramnios), prolonged labor, and/or oxytocin usage

Acute abdomen pathology in RUQ?

- Gallbladder / biliary (cholecystitis, cholangitis)


- Liver (abscess)

Acute abdomen pathology in LUQ?

Spleen - rupture with blunt trauma

Acute abdomen pathology in RLQ?

- Appendix (appendicitis)


- PID

Acute abdomen pathology in LLQ?

- Sigmoid colon (diverticulitis)


- PID

Acute abdomen pathology in epigastric region?

- Stomach (peptic ulcer)


- Pancreas (pancreatitis)

6 W's of Post-op Fever?

- Water - UTI


- Wind - Atelectasis / PNA


- Walk - DVT


- Wound - wound infection


- Wawa - breast (only in postpartum state)


- Weird drugs - drug fever

What should you think of in post-op patient with daily fever spikes that do not respond to antibiotics? Management?

Post-surgical abscess - order a CT scan to locate, then drain the abscess if present

ABCDEs of trauma?

- Airway


- Breathing


- Circulation


- Disability


- Exposure

Six rapidly fatal thoracic injuries?

1. Airway obstruction


2. Open pneumothorax


3. Tension pneumothorax


4. Cardiac tamponade


5. Massive hemothorax


6. Flail chest

Management of airway obstruction?

Establish airway

Management of open pneumothorax?

Intubate and close defect on three sides

Management of tension pneumothorax?

Perform needle thoracentesis followed by chest tube

Management of cardiac tamponade?

Perform pericardiocentesis

Management of massive hemothorax?

Place chest tube to drain, thoracotomy if bleeding does not stop

Management of flail chest?

Consider intubation and positive pressure ventilation if oxygenation is adequate

Causes of neonatal conjunctivitis? When is each most common?

- Chemical conjunctivitis - first 12-24 hours of giving drops for prophylaxis


- Gonorrhea - 2-5 days after birth, usually prevented with prophylactic drops


- Chlamydia - 5-14 days after birth, often not prevented by prophylactic drops

Most common form of glaucoma?

Open-angle form (90%)

Signs/symptoms of open angle glaucoma?

- Painless (no "attacks")


- Asymptomatic until irreversible vision loss (that starts in periphery) occurs

Most common cause of blindness in African Americans?

Open angle glaucoma

What should you think of in a patient with uveitis?

Systemic conditions:


- Juvenile idiopathic arthritis


- Sarcoidosis


- Inflammatory bowel disease


- Ankylosing spondylitis


- Reactive arthritis


- Multiple sclerosis


- Psoriasis


- Lupus

Common complaints of patient with uveitis?

- Photophobia


- Blurry vision


- Eye pain

Causes of bilateral (although often asymmetric) painless gradual loss of vision in older adults?

- Cataracts


- Macular degeneration


- Glaucoma

What is the name for the vision change that is a normal part of aging? Symptoms?

Presbyopia - affects only near vision (i.e., accommodation)

Common causes of compartment syndrome?

After trauma or surgery

Signs/symptoms of compartment syndrome?

6 P's:


- Pain - present on passive movement and often out of proportion to injury


- Paresthesias - numbness, tingling, decreased sensation


- Pallor - or cyanosis


- Pressure - firm feeling muscle compartment, elevated pressure reading


- Paralysis - late, ominous sign


- Pulselessness - very late, ominous sign

Treatment for compartment syndrome?

Fasciotomy to relieve compartment pressure and prevent permanent neurologic damage

Functions of radial nerve?

- Motor: wrist extension (watch for wrist drop)


- Sensory: back of forearm, back of hand (first 3 digits)

Functions of ulnar nerve?

- Motor: finger abduction (watch for "claw" hand)


- Sensory: front and back of last 2 digits

Functions of median nerve?

- Motor: pronation, thumb opposition


- Sensory: palmar surface of hand (first 3 digits)

Functions of axillary nerve?

- Motor: abduction, lateral rotation


- Sensory: lateral shoulder

Functions of peroneal nerve?

- Motor: dorsiflexion, eversion (watch for foot drop)


- Sensory: dorsal foot and lateral leg

Clinical scenario that commonly damages radial nerve?

Humeral fracture

Clinical scenario that commonly damages ulnar nerve?

Elbow dislocation

Clinical scenario that commonly damages median nerve?

Carpal tunnel syndrome, humeral fracture

Clinical scenario that commonly damages axillary nerve?

Upper humeral dislocation or fracture

Clinical scenario that commonly damages peroneal nerve?

Knee dislocation

Pediatric hip disorders?

- Congenital hip dysplasia (CHD)


- Legg-Calvé-Perthes Disease (LCPD)


- Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE)

Congenital Hip Dysplasia vs. Legg-Calvé-Perthes Disease vs. Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis: common age of onset?

- CHD: at birth


- LCPD: 4-10 years


- SCFE: 9-13 years

Congenital Hip Dysplasia vs. Legg-Calvé-Perthes Disease vs. Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis: common presentation?

- CHD: female, firstborn, breech delivery


- LCPD: short male with delayed bone age


- SCFE: overweight male adolescent

Congenital Hip Dysplasia vs. Legg-Calvé-Perthes Disease vs. Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis: signs/symptoms?

- CHD: Barlow and Ortolani signs


- LCPD: Knee, thigh, groin pain, limp


- SCFE: Knee, thigh, groin pain, limp

Congenital Hip Dysplasia vs. Legg-Calvé-Perthes Disease vs. Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis: Treatment?

- CHD: harness


- LCPD: orthoses (braces)


- SCFE: surgical pinning

Can Congenital Hip Dysplasia, Legg-Calvé-Perthes Disease, or Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis occur in adults?

Yes, may present in an adult as arthritis of the hip

Under what circumstances should you avoid doing an LP? What should you do instead?

Patient with head trauma or signs of intracranial pressure because of the risk of herniation; perform CT scan without contrast instead

Most common causes of neck masses in children?

75% are benign (e.g., lymphadenitis, thyroglossal duct cyst)

Most common causes of neck masses in adults?

75% are malignant (e.g., squamous cell carcinoma and or metastases, lymphoma)

Management of carotid artery stenosis between 70-99%?

Carotid Endarterectomy

Management of carotid artery stenosis less than 50%?

Medical management - anti-HTN agents, statins, anti-platelet therapy; treat atherosclerosis risk factors

Management of carotid artery stenosis between 50-69%?

Data on management is less clear, and patient specific factors affect the decision

What should you think of with a pulsatile abdominal mass plus hypotension?

Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) until proven otherwise

Management of ruptured AAA?

Immediate laparotomy - 90% mortality rate

Conditions best viewed as anginal equivalents?

- Transient ischemic attacks (TIAs)


- Claudication


- Chronic mesenteric ischemia

Management of TIAs, claudication, chronic mesenteric ischemia?

Arterial workup and imaging

Main identifiable risk factor for testicular cancer?

Cryptorchidism

Complications of cryptorchidism?

- Risk factor for testicular cancer


- Can cause infertility

Treatment of cryptorchidism?

- Surgical retrieval


- Orchiopexy or orchiectomy

Presentation of Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy / Hyperplasia (BPH)?

- Acute renal failure


- Distended bladder and bilateral hydronephrosis on ultrasound

Treatment of Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy / Hyperplasia (BPH)?

- Drain the bladder first (catheterize)


- Perform transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)

Causes of impotence?

- Physical - vascular, nervous system, drugs


- Psychogenic (less common)

Signs of psychogenic impotence?

Patients have normal nocturnal erections and a history of dysfunction only in certain settings

Most common cause of delayed puberty?

Constitutional delay - a normal variant

Findings suspicious for child abuse?

- Failure to thrive


- Multiple injuries in different stages of healing


- Retinal hemorrhages plus subdural hematomas (shaken baby syndrome)


- STDs


- Caretaker story that does not fit the child's injury or complaint


- Childhood behavioral or emotional problems


- Multiple personality disorder as an adult

Categories of APGAR score?

- Color


- Heart rate


- Reflex irritability


- Muscle tone


- Respiratory effort

APGAR scoring for color?

- 0: pale, blue


- 1: body pink, extremities blue


- 2: completely pink

APGAR scoring for heart rate?

- 0: absent


- 1: <100 bpm


- 2: >100 bpm

APGAR scoring for reflex irritability?

- 0: none


- 1: grimace


- 2: grimace and strong cry, cough, and sneeze

APGAR scoring for muscle tone?

- 0: limp


- 1: some flexion of extremities


- 2: active motion

APGAR scoring for respiratory effort?

- 0: none


- 1: slow, weak cry


- 2: good, strong cry

Metabolic derangements associated with thiazide diuretics?

- Hypercalcemia (calcium retention)


- Hyperglycemia


- Hyperuricemia


- Hyperlipidemia




- Hyponatremia


- Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis


- Hypovolemia

What kind of allergy is associated with thiazide diuretics?

Sulfa allergies because this is a sulfa drug

Metabolic derangements associated with loop diuretics?

- Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis


- Hypovolemia (more potent than thiazides)


- Ototoxicity


- Hypocalcemia (calcium excretion)

What allergy is associated with loop diuretics?

Sulfa allergies - except for ethacrynic acid

Metabolic derangements associated with carbonic anhydrase inhibitor diuretics?

Metabolic acidosis

Metabolic derangements associated with potassium-sparing diuretics (e.g., spironolactone)?

Hyperkalemia

Antidone for overdose of acetaminophen?

Acetylcysteine

Antidone for overdose of benzodiazepines?

Flumazenil

Antidone for overdose of beta blockers?

Glucagon

Antidone for overdose of carbon monoxide?

Oxygen (hyperbaric in cases of severe poisoning)

Antidone for overdose of cholinesterase inhibitors?

Atropine, Pralidoxime

Antidone for overdose of copper or gold?

Penicillamine

Antidone for overdose of digoxin?

Normalize K+ and other electrolytes, digoxin antibodies

Antidone for overdose of iron?

Deferoxamine

Antidone for overdose of lead?

Edetate (EDTA), use sucker in children

Antidone for overdose of methanol or ethylene glycol?

Fomepizole; ethanol

Antidone for overdose of muscarinic blockers?

Physostigmine

Antidone for overdose of opioids?

Naloxone

Antidone for overdose of quinidine?

Sodium bicarb (cardioprotective)

Antidone for overdose of tricyclic antidepressants?

Sodium bicarb (cardioprotective)

Side effects of Aspirin / NSAIDs?

- GI bleeding / gastric ulcers


- Renal damage (interstitial nephritis, papillary necrosis)


- Allergic reactions


- Platelet dysfunction (life of platelet for aspirin, reversible dysfunction with NSAIDs)


- Reye syndrome (encephalopathy and/or liver failure in a child taking aspirin in the setting of a viral infection)

Metabolic derangements of overdose of aspirin?

- Metabolic acidosis


- Respiratory alkalosis

Complication of overly rapid correction of hyponatremia?

Central Pontine Myelinolysis (brainstem damage and possibly death)

What cellular shifts and symptoms can be caused by alkalosis?

Alkalosis ---> symptoms of hypokalemia or hypocalcemia

If someone with alkalosis or acidosis has symptoms of potassium and/or calcium derangement how do you treat?

pH correction is needed (rather than direct treatment of calcium or potassium levels)

What metabolic derangement can make hypocalcemia and hypokalemia unresponsive to replacement therapy?

Magnesium depletion (must correct magnesium to get responsiveness to treatment of hypocalcemia and hypokalemia)

If a patient is incompetent (including younger minors who lack adequate decision making capacity) and you need an emergency treatment, what should be done?

Seek a family member or court-appointed guardian to make healthcare decisions; if no one is available, treat as you see fit in an emergency or contact the courts in a non-emergency setting

What should be done if a patient has a living will or has made their wishes known if a family member is dissenting?

Respect patient wishes and living wills (assuming that they are appropriate), but take time to listen to family members' concerns

Under what circumstances can you break doctor-patient confidentiality?

1. Patient asks you to do so


2. Child abuse is suspected


3. Courts mandate you to do so


4. You must fulfill the duty to warn or protect (if a patient says that he is going to kill someone or himself, you have to tell the person who is threatened, the authorities, or both)


5. Patient has a reportable disease


6. Patient is a danger to others (e.g., if a patient is blind or has seizures, let proper authorities know so they can revoke the patient's license to drive; if the patient is an airplane pilot and is paranoid, hallucinating schizophrenic, then authorities need to know)

Causes of "false" laboratory disturbances?

- Hemolysis --> hyperkalemia


- Pregnancy --> elevated ESR and Alk Phos


- Hypoalbuminemia --> hypocalcemia


- Hyperglycemia --> hyponatremia

ECG findings of myocardial infarction?

- Flipped or flattened T waves


- ST segment elevation (depression means ischemia; elevation means injury)


- Q waves in a segmental distribution (eg, leads II, III, aVF for inferior infarct)


- ST segment depression may also be seen in "reciprocal" / opposite leads

Drugs that may be useful in the setting of acute coronary syndrome?

- Aspirin


- Morphine


- Nitroglycerin


- Beta blocker


- ACE inhibitor


- Clopidogrel


- HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor


- Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor inhibitors


- Heparin (unfractionated or low-molecular-weight heparin)


- Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA, strict criteria for use)

What should you do for a patient with no CHD risk factors depending on LDL?

- LDL <160 - none (meets goal)


- LDL 160-189 - diet +/- meds


- LDL ≥190 - meds (+ diet)

What should you do for a patient with ≥2 CHD risk factors depending on LDL?

- LDL <100 - none (meets goal)


- LDL 100-129 - diet +/- meds


- LDL ≥130 - meds (+ diet)

What should you do for a patient with known CHD/equivalent depending on LDL?

- LDL <100 - none (meets goal)


- LDL ≥100 - meds (+ diet)

What should you do for a patient with very high risk factors depending on LDL?

- LDL <70 - none (meets goal)


- LDL 70-99 - diet +/- meds


- LDL ≥100 - meds (+ diet)

Type 1 vs 2 diabetes: occurrence?

- Type 1: 10% of cases


- Type 2: 90% of cases

Type 1 vs 2 diabetes: age at onset?

- Type 1: most commonly <30 years


- Type 2: most commonly >30 years

Type 1 vs 2 diabetes: associated body habits?

- Type 1: thin


- Type 2: obese

Type 1 vs 2 diabetes: development of ketoacidosis?

- Type 1: yes


- Type 2: no

Type 1 vs 2 diabetes: development of hyperosmolar state?

- Type 1: no


- Type 2: yes

Type 1 vs 2 diabetes: level of endogenous insulin?

- Type 1: low to none


- Type 2: normal to high (insulin resistance)

Type 1 vs 2 diabetes: twin occurrence?

- Type 1: <50%


- Type 2: >50%

Type 1 vs 2 diabetes: human leukocyte antigen association?

- Type 1: yes


- Type 2: no

Type 1 vs 2 diabetes: response to oral hypoglycemics?

- Type 1: no


- Type 2: yes

Type 1 vs 2 diabetes: antibodies to insulin?

- Type 1: yes (at diagnosis)


- Type 2: no

Type 1 vs 2 diabetes: risk for diabetic complications?

- Type 1: yes


- Type 2: no

Type 1 vs 2 diabetes: islet cell pathology?

- Type 1: insulitis (loss of most B cells)


- Type 2: normal number, but with amyloid deposits

Normal BP?

- Systolic <120


- Diastolic <80

Prehypertension?

- Systolic 120-139


- Diastolic 80-89

Stage 1 HTN?

- Systolic 140-159


- Diastolic 90-99

Stage 2 HTN?

- Systolic ≥160


- Diastolic ≥100

Condition associated with friction rub?

Pericarditis

Condition associated with Kussmaul breathing (deep, rapid breathing)?

Diabetic ketoacidosis

Condition associated with Kayser-Fleischer ring in eye?

Wilson disease

Condition associated with Bitot spots?

Condition associated with Bitot spots?

Vitamin A Deficiency

Condition associated with dendritic corneal ulcers on fluorescein stain of the eye?

Herpes keratitis

Condition associated with cherry red spot on the macula without hepatosplenomegaly?

Tay-Sachs disease

Condition associated with cherry red spot on the macula with hepatosplenomegaly?

Riemann-Pick disease

Condition associated with bronze skin plus diabetes?

Hemochromatosis

Condition associated with malaria rash on the face?

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

Condition associated with heliotrope rash (purplish rash on eyelids)?

Dermatomyositis

Condition associated with clue cells?

Gardnerella vaginalis infection

Condition associated with meconium ileum?

Cystic fibrosis

Condition associated with rectal prolapse?

Cystic fibrosis

Condition associated with salty tasting infant?

Cystic fibrosis

Condition associated with café-au-lait spots with normal IQ?

Neurofibromatosis

Condition associated with café-au-lait spots with mental retardation?

McCune-Albright syndrome or Tuberous Sclerosis

Condition associated with worst headache of the patient's life?

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Condition associated with abdominal striae?

Cushing syndrome or pregnancy

Condition associated with honey ingestion?

Infant botulism

Condition associated with LLQ tenderness / rebound?

Diverticulitis

Condition associated with children who torture animals?

Conduct disorder

Condition associated with currant jelly stools in children?

Intussusception

Condition associated with ambiguous genitalia and hypotension?

21-hydroxylase deficiency in girls

Condition associated with catlike cry in an infant?

Cri-du-chat syndrome

Condition associated with infant weight >10 pounds?

Maternal diabetes

Condition associated with anaphylaxis from immunoglobulin therapy?

IgA deficiency

Condition associated with postpartum fever unresponsive to broad-spectrum antibiotics?

Septic pelvic thrombophlebitis

Condition associated with increased hemoglobin A2 and anemia?

Thalassemia

Condition associated with heavy young woman with papilledema and negative CT/MR scan of head?

Pseudotumor cerebri

Condition associated with low-grade fever in the first 24 hours after surgery?

Atelectasis

Condition associated with Vietnam veteran?

PTSD

Condition associated with bilateral hillier adenopathy in an African American patient?

Sarcoidosis

Condition associated with sudden death in a young athlete?

Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

Condition associated with fractures or bruises in different stages of healing in a child?

Child abuse

Condition associated with absent breath sounds in a trauma patient?

Pneumothorax

Condition associated with shopping sprees?

Mania

Condition associated with constant clearing of throat in child or teenager?

Tourette syndrome

Condition associated with intermittent bursts of wearing?

Tourette syndrome

Condition associated with koilocytosis?

HPV or cytomegalovirus

Condition associated with rash developing after administration of ampicillin or amoxicillin for sore throat?

EBV infection (mono)

Condition associated with daytime sleepiness and occasional falling down (cataplexy)?

Narcolepsy

Condition associated with facial port wine stain and seizures?

Sturge-Weber syndrome

Babinski sign?

Stroking the bottom of the foot yields extension of the big toe and fanning of the other toes --> upper motor neuron lesion

Beck triad?

Jugular venous distention, muffled heart sounds, and hypotension --> Cardiac Tamponade

Brudzinski sign?

Pain on neck flexion with meningeal irritation --> meningitis

Charcot Triad?

Fever/chills, jaundice, RUQ pain --> Cholangitis

Chvostek sign?

Tapping on facial nerve elicits tetany --> hypocalcemia

Courvoisier sign?

Painless, palpable gallbladder plus jaundice --> pancreatic cancer

Cullen Sign?

Bluish discoloration of periumbilical area --> pancreatitis with retroperitoneal hemorrhage

Cushing reflex?

Hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations --> high intracranial pressure

Grey Turner sign?

Bluish discoloration of flank --> pancreatitis with retroperitoneal hemorrhage

Homans sign?

Calf pain on forced dorsiflexion of foot --> DVT

Kehr sign?

Pain in L shoulder --> ruptured spleen

Leriche syndrome?

Claudication and atrophy of the buttocks with impotence --> aortoiliac occlusive disease

McBurney sign?

Tenderness at McBurney point --> appendicitis

Murphy sign?

Arrest of inspiration during palpation under the rib cage on the right --> cholecystitis

Ortolani sign / test?

Abducting an infant's flexed hips causes a palpable / audible click --> congenital hip dysplasia

Prehn sign?

Elevation of a painful testicle relieves pain --> epidiymitis (vs testicular torsion)

Rovsing sign?

Pushig on LLQ than releasing you hand produces pain at McBurney point --> appendicitis

Tinel sign?

Tapping on the volar surface of the wrist elicits paresthesias --> carpal tunnel syndrome

Trousseau sign?

Pumping up a BP cuff causes carpopedal spasm --> tetany from hypocalcemia

Virchow triad?

Stasis, endothelial damage, hyper coagulability --> risk factors for DVT