Phase 3

Front 1

Part 1: Who is responsible for stand allocations on the:

International Apron/TWY D (NOTAM)

Tennis Court: S70-73

AND S20-24

Back 1

Apron (S70-73 & S20-24 says: Apron (Jetstar parking)

Front 2

Part 2: Who is responsible for stand allocations on S28-50?

Back 2

Air NZ

Front 3

Part 3: Who is responsible for stand allocations on C5- S51-55

Back 3

GBA

Front 4

Part 4: Who is responsible for stand allocations on S56-59/Skycare?

Back 4

Skycare

Front 5

Part 5: Who is responsible for stand allocations S101-103 C1?

Back 5

Air Centre One

Front 6

Are grass areas available for use by aircraft?

Back 6

No. All operations are to be confined to the runway, taxiways and apron areas.

Front 7

Describe the vehicle road system.

Back 7

A vehicular roadway (red road) is marked on the apron by broken red & white lines and highlighted by red reflectors.

Hint 7

Highlighted

Front 8

Explain the flow rate policy & start guidelines applicable to IFR flights.

Back 8

1. 1:1 arrival/departure ratio during busy traffic.

2. Where possible, taxi in order of start approvals during delays.

3. Impose start delays when undue congestion likely at hold points.

4. Better to have a/c waiting at hold points than under-utilised gaps.

5. International starts not restricted until domestic start delays of 10mins.

6. Consider the impact of blocked gates for arrivals by start delays on departures.

Hint 8

1 Taxi Delays Gaps 10mins (around the) block

Front 9

Detail the process allowing for vehicles to operate on the runway and in Zones 1 & 2. Any exceptions?

Back 9

-Max 2 work parties/vehicles on runway and/or in zone 1 & 2 at a time.

-Use frequency 118.7 on runway and in zone 1 & 2.

-RFS vehicles remain 121.9 (only a few RFS vehicles have 118.7).

-GND advises ADC of request, makes a strip.

-GND instructs vehicle to proceed to the appropriate holding point and contact 118.7 when traffic permits.

-Use RUNWAY OBSTRUCTED or ZONE 2 OBSTRUCTED strips.

-Vehicles must be clear for departures.

-Vehicles to vacate prior to arrivals reaching 2nm final.

-Vehicle remains 118.7 if intending to re-enter.

-When vehicle complete and clear, contact GND 121.9.

FOR ROUTINE RWY INSPECTIONS

- 6min inspection time blocked out in AMAN by TMP

-Around 0830 local

-Around 1530 local

-A/C can start & taxi however the inspection has priority for the arrival gap.

-Widen arrivals and hold departures, if necessary.

ZONE 2

-Not available for jet operations at all times.

-Not available for non-jet ops: when crosswind >10kts OR work area not visible from the Tower.

-ADC warns arriving and departing aircraft of the work party.

Hint 9

10: Party frequency, RFS advises (everyone to) proceed & change frequency. Obstructed (road) clear for departures and arrivals 2nm away, re-entry same freqor once clear go to ground.

5 points on RWY Inspections: 6 times A MAN at either 0830 or 1530 started his taxi to widen.

3 points on Zone 2: jets, crosswind/visibility for others and advising.

Front 10

State any limitations that apply to heavy aircraft with regard to taxiing on TWY B.

Back 10

Not permitted to taxi heavy aircraft between B2 & B6

Exceptions

-temporary RWY ops

-TWY A is not available due WIP or temporary blockage

-heavy aircraft under tow are permitted

Hint 10

1 rule. 3 exceptions

Front 11

What restrictions apply to wide-body aircraft in the following situations?

1- Entering and leaving the RWY

2- 180 degree turns on the RWY

3- Code E aircraft using ‘B’ taxiways

Back 11

1- No hard right/left turns available.

2- Not available unless no other option.

3- TWY B4, B5 and B7 are not AVBL to Boeing 777-300 & Airbus A340-500/600 aircraft. All other Code E aircraft are advised to exercise caution and use judgemental oversteering due less than ICAO recommended clearance between outer main wheels and pavement edge being available.

Hint 11

3. Judgemental oversteering.

Front 12

When Low Visibility Operations are imminent and the Safeguarding process has commenced, who is advised?

Back 12

Duty Fog Manager, Tech Coordinator, TMA and Apron.

Hint 12

4

Front 13

List the agreed priorities for aircraft during LVPs?

Back 13

1. International arrivals

2. International departures

3. Domestic departures

4. Domestic arrivals

5. Others

Hint 13

5

Front 14

List the vehicles authorised to operate on the manoeuvring area during Low Vis Ops.

Back 14

-AIAL vehicles (airport vehicles certified by AIAL).

-Airways Tech vehicles engaged in essential maintenance.

-Rescue Fire vehicles in response to an emergency.

-Birdman (escorting RFS vehicles/personnel to training ground or escorting AVSEC, when required).

Hint 14

4 ART B

Front 15

During LVPs, at what distance (visibility) would ‘Follow Me’ operations cease?

Back 15

Visibility less than 75m.

Front 16

During LVPs, by what distance should an arriving aircraft be cleared to land and what, if any, instruction is included in the landing clearance?

Back 16

4nm final. “REPORT ON THE GROUND” required if GND surveillance not in operation.

Front 17

During LVPs, what, if any, instruction must be included in the takeoff clearance?

Back 17

“REPORT ROLLING” required if GND surveillance not available.

Front 18

Depict on the chart provided the following areas.

Red Delta (23L GP), Red Victor (23L LOC), Red Uniform (05R GP), Red Echo (05R LOC) and Area A (Extension of Red U to West).

Back 18

Refer to Cat ll/lll ILS protection areas chart.

Front 19

State the radar(s) providing coverage within the vicinity of Auckland and the effect of the failure of any radar.

Back 19

RUA- predominant SSR, AA PSR and TEW SSR.

Failure (RUA)- loss of AMA and MSAW, use 5nm radar seps.

Failure (PSR)- loss of PSR only targets.

Failure (TEW)- virtually nil.

Hint 19

Predominant.

Front 20

What is the procedure to be followed for a RUA outage with respect to any Skyline display, EFS and RTF requirements?

Back 20

-Select TEW as autobypass sensor on Skyline before RUA is turned off.

-Display 5nm Radar Separation strip on the ADC and GND EFS boards.

-Advise departing aircraft to contact AA control passing 1500ft.

Departing IFR FPL’s will auto-activate 60secs after ATD entered on strip. Note: if automatic activation isn’t available, manual activation will be required via Skyline.

Hint 20

4

Front 21

State the distance from the Tower to the following short range visibility checks.

1. 23L Threshold

2. 05R Threshold

3. Rescue Fire Station

Back 21

1. 1480m

2. 2000m

3. 500m

Front 22

State the distance of the following visibility and cloud base check (Swedish rounding acceptable).

1. McLaughlin’s Mountain

2. LPG pier

3. One Tree Hill

4. Rangitoto

5. Pukekohe Hill

6. Skytower

7. Sth Manakau Heads

8. Glenbrook Steel Mill

Back 22

1. 5km

2. 5km

3. 12km

4. 25km

5. 27km

6. 18km

7. 21km

8. 24km

Front 23

When conditions deteriorate below certain criteria, runway work must be suspended. State those conditions.

Back 23

-Cloudbase <1500ft

-Visibility <5km

-Crosswind >13kts

- Runway WET

Hint 23

4

Front 24

Part 1: With respect to immediate runway closure: who decides to close the runway?

Back 24

The runway is closed in the following situations:

-immediately when tower knows or suspects that the runway is contaminated

-on receipt of advice from apron tower

-on receipt of advice from an AIAL vehicle

-on receipt of advice from an aircraft of a situation which may have caused the runway to be contaminated

Hint 24

4

Front 25

Part 2: what is the procedure to be followed?

Back 25

1. Stop all take offs and landings immediately.

2. Advise TMA.

3. Request Apron Tower to conduct a runway inspection.

4. Advise Duty Manager.

5. Advise AA TWR Team Leader or Business Manager, International Towers.

Hint 25

Actually 5 now! Found the 5th one in the ATPs!

Front 26

Part 1: AA Tower is authorised to permit Tower Initiated Departures (TIDs) for IFR aircraft to minimise coordination with TMR. Advise the conditions that must be met for ‘leading aircraft same speed or faster’

Back 26

1. It is anticipated that radar separation will exist and be maintained when the following is airborne OR

Front 27

Part 2: for RWY 23L?

Back 27

2. - A medium wake turbulence domestic southbound jet with ‘LTA’ annotated on the strip has passed 1000ft in the climb and the following is on the STEAL SID.

- An international southbound jet with ‘LTA’ annotated on the strip has passed 3000ft in the climb, or is clear of the STEAL Instrument Sector Boundary, and the following is on the STEAL SID. Note: LTA is not required for departures to PEBLU, VELMO or GULUT.

Hint 27

2 LTAs

Instrument Sector Boundary actually said Protection Fan in the answers.

Front 28

Part 3: for RWY 05R?

Part 4: for either RWY? (2 points)

Back 28

3 - A jet with ‘RTA’ annotated on the strip has passed 3000ft in the climb, or is clear of the REKIS departure fan, and the following is on the REKIS SID.

- A departing aircraft on H140 has passed 3000ft and the following aircraft is on the REKIS SID. (Not in the ATPs now??)

4 - Visual separation is applied until another form of separation is established OR

5 - It is anticipated that the lead aircraft will be clear of the SID Instrument Sector Boundary as displayed on radar and remain clear before the following is airborne.

Hint 28

3: RTA & heading, 4 & 5.

Front 29

Part 4: when leading aircraft is slower? (Rules 6-10)

Back 29

6. STEAL, ELSAB, AVDAT (both aircraft) - leading aircraft climbs through 3500ft and the following aircraft is instructed to maintain 3000ft to SID end point. Note: advise AA TMA.

7. REKIS (both aircraft) - leading turbo prop aircraft has crossed VINOD or climbs through 3000ft. OR - leading low performance/training aircraft passes 5000ft.

8. EMRAG, POLIS, PAGLA, AKELA, RADAR SID, RWYHDG (either aircraft): - leading aircraft clear of EMRAG protection area if subsequent aircraft on either EMRAG, POLIS, PAGLA, AKELA, RADAR SID or RWYHDG. OR - leading aircraft is 6NM upwind if subsequent aircraft on PAGLA.

9. EMRAG, POLIS, PAGLA, AKELA, RADAR SID or RWYHDG followed by REKIS: - leading aircraft 3NM upwind, or apply rule 5.

10. A departing aircraft on H140 has passed 4000ft and the following aircraft is on a REKIS SID.

Notes: 1. Take in to account current wind conditions and aircraft performance. 2. If a release restriction (e.g R/015) applies to a departure due to VFR traffic, this must be annotated on the strip and the release and RTA or LTA advised by phone to TMR. 3. AA TMA will protect the AVDAT, H010, ELSAB and H270 departure tracks from a preceding jet departure.

Front 30

Advise the general conditions applicable with regard to changing a SID.

Back 30

1. Prior to departure AND 2. Consecutive departures on same STEAL, ELSAB, AVDAT or REKIS SID AND 3. Following aircraft faster or similar performance OR 4. Pilot request OR 5. Noise abatement compliance OR 6. Controller considers it necessary.

Hint 30

6

Front 31

Advise the conditions applicable to changing a SID to a RWY heading climb.

Back 31

1. Prior to departure AND 2. Consecutive departures on same STEAL, ELSAB, AVDAT or REKIS SID AND 3. Following aircraft faster or similar performance.

Hint 31

3

Front 32

Advise the conditions applicable when changing the SID to a Radar heading climb.

Back 32

1. Prior to departure AND 2. Obtain radar heading from TMA AND 3. Consecutive departures on same or similar SID OR 4. More efficient departure sequence can be affected OR 5. Weather avoidance immediately airborne. OR 6. To achieve missed approach protection.

Hint 32

Now actually 6! Added in the last one from ATPs.

Front 33

Tower releases departing IFR aircraft subject to arriving IFR aircraft, provided that visual separation can be applied or when the Missed Approach is to be protected, it is done in accordance with the Departure Table.

In the following examples, what is the minimum distance on final by which the departing aircraft MUST have commenced take off roll ahead of an arriving aircraft?

1. Departing Jet vs Arriving Jet 2. Departing Jet vs Arriving Turbo Prop 3. Departing Jet vs Arriving Piston 4. Departing Turbo Prop vs Arriving Jet 5. Departing Turbo Prop vs Arriving Turbo Prop 6. Departing Turbo Prop vs Arriving Piston 7. Departing Piston vs Arriving Jet 8. Departing Piston vs Arriving Turbo Prop 9. Departing Piston vs Arriving Piston.

What do you do when 5nm Radar seps are required?

Back 33

1. 4nm

2. 4nm

3. 4nm

4. 6.nm

5. 4nm

6. 4nm

7. 7nm

8. 5nm

9. 4nm

Add 2nm when using 5nm Radar seps.

Front 34

Track divergence separation- MATs RAC 5-37 Separation of Successive IFR Departures. Track divergence may be applied between a departing IFR aircraft and a following IFR aircraft flying the published MAPP. What are the requirements for this separation?

Back 34

The aircraft on the MAPP may be considered a departure once it overflies the runway threshold, provided that:

-it is the following aircraft and

-the missed approach track overflies the runway threshold and

-the track divergence separation requirements will be in place by the time the aircraft on the the MAPP overflies the runway threshold and

-wake turbulence requirements are applied as required by MATs RAC 5.

Note: the MAPP track is considered the initial departure track. Overflying the threshold equates to the takeoff clearance.

Hint 34

4 + note

Front 35

Advise the general policy for flow of ground traffic and also describe the coordination required between ADC & GND.

Back 35

Policy is to maintain circular traffic flow whenever possible.

GND shall ensure that aircraft taxiing give way to aircraft vacating the runway unless otherwise coordinated.

Front 36

Runway holding points.

What are the MET conditions for their use?

Back 36

A1A: available cloud base < 300ft and/or vis < 800m.

A10 & A9: available cloud base < 300ft and/or vis < 800m.

A1- A8 not available in the above conditions.

Hint 36

And/or

Front 37

Tower requires RTF contact to be established for an arriving IFR aircraft by what distance?

Back 37

5nm.

Front 38

List the criteria for the visual approach.

Back 38

1. Day only 2. Cloud base 3000ft or above in the approach area and 3. Visibility is 16km or greater and 4. CSVA is broadcast on the ATIS or 5. AA TWR verbally confirms that conditions are suitable. 6. Aircraft to track TOMAS or KAURI 7. Aircraft are not vertically separated from VFR traffic in any of the visual sectors. Apply vertical separation until visual separation can be applied.

Hint 38

7

Front 39

Describe the runway exit points different aircraft should use in accordance with ROT procedures.

Back 39

05R: Heavy jets TWY A3 and all others TWY A5, except lightys use A7.

23L: All jets TWY A8 and all others TWY A6, except lightys use A4.

Front 40

Most aircraft departing to South American destinations are not given the Oceanic Transition as part of their route clearance, they will normally receive a domestic transition instead. What level should they be cleared at and what coordination needs to take place with AA TMA?

Back 40

Odd and even levels may be allocated without any coordination with AA TMA.

Front 41

Which flights in ‘coordinate’ status are NOT automatically released?

Back 41

1. First departure after runway change.

2. Non-duty runway departures.

3. Specific radar releases required by TMA i.e. GBA/ILD IFR with a turn at 500ft.

Hint 41

3

Front 42

Protection of the ILS critical areas. What are the general requirements?

Back 42

1. Established to protect and prevent course fluctuations.

2. Approval required to enter and operate within.

3. Terminate work when aircraft are flying an ILS.

4. Consider releasing equipment to complete priority work.

5. Mowing in an active red area can be approved, provided the ILS is not required for an arrival and the ILS is switched off to prevent alarms &/or failure.

6. Aircraft vacating RWY05R beyond A2 enter the LOC critical area.

7. Departures do not infringe ILS critical areas.

8. Inside 8nm, advise aircraft of inadvertent infringement of critical areas.

Hint 42

8 fluctuating approval terminates priority

Mowing vacating departures 8nm

Front 43

What do you do when the ILS is transmitting when it is unserviceable?

Back 43

Will be advised by NOTAM but pilots may not be aware. If NOTAM indicates “false indications possible” include the following on the ATIS: “GPTEST” which broadcasts as- “glide path on test, do not use, false indications possible” OR “ILSTEST” which broadcasts as “ILS on test, do not use, false indications possible”.

Hint 43

If the NOTAM says “false indications possible” then...

Front 44

Protection of the ILS Critical Areas. What do you need to do with regard to Autolands for R05R/23L?

Back 44

1. Deny autolands when non-duty runway ILS is radiating simultaneously; 2. Notify pilot immediately of any ILS alarms; 3. do not switch off or change the ILS until landing roll is complete; 4. advise pilot LOC sensitive area not protected if not annotated via X-note or on strip.

Hint 44

4 deny, notify, do not switch off & advise.

Front 45

Describe the separation and coordination requirements for an aircraft carrying out the RNAV (GNSS) RWY03 approach at AR.

Back 45

1. May result in restrictions on the REKIS SID; 2. TMA advises ADC prior to commencement; 3. TMA advises ADC when aircraft cancels IFR and proceeds VFR; 4. provide traffic information to known VFR traffic outside CTR to South and in potential conflict.

Hint 45

4

Front 46

Limitations are placed on the number of work activities where constant ATC management or monitoring is required. Advise the number and any exemptions.

Back 46

3 seperate work groups which require constant monitoring; includes pavement surveys and airfield inspections; excludes works within confined areas with barriers.

Hint 46

Which require...including..

1 exclusion

Front 47

What are the requirements for the movement of aircraft around the southern end of the international terminal (the pier) ?

Back 47

1. Insufficient clearance between Code D & E on TWY B and Code D & E aircraft moving around the south end;

2. Insufficient clearance between Code F on TWY B and any other aircraft;

3. Apron coordinates Code D & E aircraft taxiing or being towed;

4. Apron coordinates pushbacks that cross the opposite end of the terminal;

5. Apron advises of all other aircraft movements around the South end.

Front 48

Ground is responsible for the management of aircraft movements to and from stands 70-73. Advise the requirements and restrictions, including coordination with Apron and use of TWY D2.

Back 48

1. D2 extension available for towing A320/B737 or smaller to/from the international apron;

2. Coordination required with Apron for tows;

3. On L73, prior to pushback, coordinate with Apron.

Hint 48

3

Front 49

Describe the procedure for the use of Code F Side Clearance strips.

Back 49

-Code F Arrival. ADC is responsible. Place yellow strips in runway holding point bays at least 5mins prior to ETA.

-Code F Departure. GND is responsible. Place yellow strips in runway holding point bays when aircraft enters the manoeuvring area.

Front 50

Advise the rules applicable for Code F aircraft ground and runway movements.

Back 50

Taxiing restrictions:

Code F: 1. can taxi on TWY A behind A320 or smaller holding at A1-A9. 2. Can pass Code C on K whilst using D8 and vice versa. 3. Can operate on B between B1 & B2 and between K and L with Code F on TWY A. 4. Taxiing to A10 is clear of any aircraft in the engine run bay. 5. Can operate RWY05R/23L with another Code F on TWY A 6. Can use Western Extension.

Other aircraft/vehicles. 1. A1-A8 holding positions not available during Code F take-offs or landings. 2. Vehicles hold- South Side- “South of the Code F Line”. 3. Vehicles hold- North Side- “North of the Code F line” or at A1A/A9/A10 holding points. 4. TWY B restricted to Code D maximum when Code F parked on L84.

Front 51

Advise any restrictions for aircraft carrying out high-power engine runs at the approved run-up area. Also state the phraseology used authorising a run-up to take place.

Back 51

-When Code D or larger are at the A10 holding point, no aircraft can pass behind to the engine run bay.

-If Code C aircraft is at A10, only Code C or smaller can taxi behind to the run bay.

-Aircraft positioned into wind.

-High power run-ups must reduce to idle power if efflux will affect aircraft taxiing, taking off or landing.

“RUN UP AT YOUR DISCRETION SUBJECT TO AIRPORT COMPANY RULES, REPORT COMPLETE”

Hint 51

4 + phraseology

Front 52

What are the provisos for CCT training that must be met it order for it to take place?

Back 52

-NZ registered aircraft or

-AA based operator or

-RNZAF aircraft or

-IFR training or practise for currency or

-Multi-engine aircraft

ATC Authorisation is limited to ensuring that:

-The proposed operation meets AIP and AIAL requirements

-Normal traffic priorities apply

-Weather conditions are suitable for circuit training.

Hint 52

5 then “ATC authorisation is limited to ensuring that..” then 3.

Front 53

Other than for visual checks or suspected faults, Go-Arounds to preserve runway separation or when carrying out a standard missed approach- under what circumstances can a heavy jet be permitted to do a fly-past over the runway?

Back 53

Approval is required from the International Towers Manager.

Front 54

In the Phase 2 questions, use of the Heliport was listed as an approved landing area. What other areas, if any, are available for helicopter operations and state any restrictions that may apply?

Back 54

-Skycare & Air Centre 1 with AIAL prior approval (copy to Tower)

Restrictions

1. Sequence in normal traffic circuit when approaching runway.

2. Do not permit helicopter to overfly aircraft on ground or buildings unless at a safe altitude.

3. Standard clearance when operating from runway.

4. Standard wake turbulence criteria apply.

5. Helicopters must air taxi via the taxiway network.

Hint 54

2 places (prior approval) then 5 restrictions.

Front 55

Daily checks are performed as part of the Tower operation. What time do these checks take place and what checks are performed?

Back 55

-0600 local: ICR will ring requesting Crash Alarm Checks; Crash alarms x2 and ICR phone line- ring and ICR will return call.

-0430 or when time permits, check: 1. NAVAID status on AFL panel, 2. signal lamp, 3. emergency mobile phone, 4. serviceability of radios- including standby and portable radios, 5. audio test of CWP safety net: Alt-RA, Alt-CA & Alt-LA, 6. note in logbook pressure showing on Electronic Barometer, AWS station and Viasala (must be within .5 HPa), 7. log and advise tech coordinator of any faults/discrepancies.

Hint 55

7 NSMRCPT Nine Small Men Rode Cats (to) Pass Time

Front 56

When Displaced Threshold Operations are in progress, an inset PAPI is available. What lighting and navigation equipment is effected in this situation?

Back 56

Standard PAPI disabled

ILS glide path disabled

Approach lights disabled

Runway centreline lighting disabled

Hint 56

4

Front 57

Reduced runway length operations at night: What rules govern aircraft movement on the runway and runway access/exit?

Back 57

-aircraft only permitted to use taxiways which join directly with lit part of the runway.

-aircraft are not permitted to land while lighting being covered or uncovered.

-aircraft are not permitted to takeoff while lighting is being covered or uncovered, unless taking off away from the work area.

Hint 57

3 (2 land, 3 takeoff)

Front 58

List the actions taken on receipt of a ‘sub-standard’ braking report.

Back 58

-Substandard braking conditions are defined as:

Medium/poor, poor or very poor.

-On receipt of a report to Tower:

Confirm the degree of impaired braking in terms of ICAO descriptors.

Confirm where the report applies to;

Warn following aircraft;

Request further braking reports from aircraft;

Log details;

Advise AIAL operations;

Include on ATIS if a number of similar reports are received.

Hint 58

Definition then “on receipt of a report”: 7

Front 59

Describe the actions on identifying any form of system outage or fault, including lighting Navaids, telephone lines etc.

Back 59

-Log details of fault in logbook

-Advise tech coord

-Advise aircraft, if necessary.

Hint 59

3

Front 60

What agency answers the Emergency or ICR line? Where is this office located?

Back 60

ICR/EMG phone line is answered in the Incident Control Room (located within AIAL International terminal building).

Front 61

If you were to experience any of the following abnormal operating situations, to which manual or user guide would you refer? (When asked to ‘set auto-bypass radar’, CWP restart, RDP bypass, reconnecting after RDP bypass, FDP bypass, reconnecting after FDP bypass: hot start or warm start, reconnecting after FDP bypass: cold start, dual bypass or AFTN failure)

Back 61

The little red SKYLINE FMQRG book.

Front 62

Advise the handling techniques for NOTAM, sigmets, amended TAFs etc.

Back 62

Retain for 60mins on DLV EFS board.

Pass to effected aircraft.

Front 63

Explain the use of the emergency crash maps, including how to use grid references.

Back 63

Crash map 1, 2 or 3A- depending on position of crash.

Along bottom first then up the side.

Front 64

State the Tower actions upon notification of a pilot requesting RFS assistance but not declaring an emergency.

Back 64

-verify pilot is NOT declaring an emergency

-advise pilot the AIAL requirement is for ‘local standby’ to be declared

-declare local standby

Hint 64

3

Front 65

Who should Tower advise when any of the following occur?

Aircraft crash outside local area, flare sighting, requests for rescue from the Manukau Harbour, reported boat fires, reports of lasers being directed at aircraft (file security incident) or any other aircraft threat outside the AEP response area.

Back 65

Advise Police by phoning 111 and advise the Duty Manager.

Front 66

From which location would initial contingency services for Auckland Tower be provided?

Back 66

AIAL Apron Tower cab