Ocular Pharm

Front 1

Drugs to avoid while taking steroids b/c increase inflammation.

Back 1

prostaglandin
pilocarpine

Front 2

Steroid responder will respond with increase IOP between _____weeks. After ____weeks of normal IOP then not a steroid responder

Back 2

1-2
4-6

Front 3

It is ok to use generic Pred Forte?
T or F

Back 3

False

Front 4

The more drops of Pred Forte used the better efficacy?
T or F

Back 4

True

Front 5

Put in order the drus from most to least increase of IOP with weeks of use. Lotemax, Pred forte, FML

Back 5

Most- Pred Forte
middle- FML
Least- Lotemax

Front 6

What is the soft drug concept and give 2 examples.

Back 6

Inactive metabolite and once in body at target tissue becomes active and then becomes quickly inactive. Less side effects.
1. Pred Forte- prednisolone
2. Lotemax- Lotopredenol

Front 7

According to Dr. Bartlett: use a _______ for dry and _________ for wet.

Back 7

ointment
cream

Front 8

Used for seasonal conj. and has ) IOP, CAT formation, or problem with infections. Category C for pregnant.

Back 8

ALREX- Lotopredenol

Front 9

Management of Contact dermatitis, scelritis, Grave's, Intermed to post uveitis is with topical steriods?
T or F

Back 9

F
systemic

Front 10

More likely to see EIOP with _________ and Cataract with _________.

Back 10

topical steroid
oral steroid

Front 11

Steroid induced cataract characteristics.

Back 11

1. off-axis VA good
2. PSC

Front 12

Iatrogenic glaucoma is greater for patients with ________ and a _______% chance with 1st degree offspring.

Back 12

Iatrogenic=steroid induced EIOP
POAG
70%

Front 13

Iatrogenic glaucoma is a _____problem in the ________ due to increase concentration of _________.

Back 13

outflow
TM
GAGS

Front 14

Steroid induced uveitis occurs in ____%blacks and ____% whites.

Back 14

5.0% blacks
0.5% whites

Front 15

Cushings can result from_________.

Back 15

Topical steroids

Front 16

List contraindicators for steroid usage.

Back 16

1. diabetes
2. infectious disease
3. renal failure
4. heart failure
5. HTN
6. peptic ulcer
7. osteoporosis
8. psychosis
9. glaucoma

Front 17

GPC is a result of increase amounts of ________ and can be treated wiht _______ or _______.

Back 17

prostaglandins
steroid
NSAIDS

Front 18

List ocular effect of prostaglandins.

Back 18

1. uveitis- cells/flare
2. red eye
3. miosis

Front 19

#1 choice to prevent CME; also can be used to treat seasonal conjunctivitis.

Back 19

Ketorolac Tromethamine
(Acular or Acular LS)

Front 20

Difference between Acular and Acular LS?

Back 20

Acular 0.5%
Acular LS 0.4% Less stinging

Front 21

Cause of CME post-op?

Back 21

During surgery, prostagladin breaches blood retinal barrier. Prostaglandin rushes into AC. miosis. NSAIDS decrease miosis.

Front 22

NSAID target Retina.

Back 22

Nepafenac (NEVANAC) 0.005% BAK

Front 23

Describe process NEVANAC enters eye.

Back 23

NEVANAC is pro-drug inactive form. Penetrate intraocular tissue active form- AMFENAC through cornea, ICB, and retina/choroid.

Front 24

Which have a rebound inflammation effect and must be tapered? NSAIDS or steroids?

Back 24

steroids

Front 25

Topical NSAIDS are contraindicated in SCL?
T or F

Back 25

T, due BAK
ok if disposable

Front 26

Dry eye treatment that decreases Lacrimal gland inflammation and increase aqueous production.

Back 26

Restasis=
cyclosporin + refresh endura vehicle

Front 27

Give and example of a condition that Restasis cannot help.

Back 27

SJS

Front 28

Restasis come in a kit of _____ and is approved for ___ dosing.

Back 28

32
BID 1 day.

Front 29

Dry eye treatment. List steps.

Back 29

1. Artifical tears
2. topical cyclosporin
3. punctal plugs
4. oral pilocarpine

Front 30

Reason why don't like to use punctal plug in dry eyes?

Back 30

Delays the drainage of the cytokines due to inflammation.

Front 31

____% of population has atopic/allergies and ____% have some form of ocular allergy.

Back 31

50%
25%

Front 32

Topical H-1 anti-histamine can be used for.

Back 32

Allergic Conjunctivitis

Front 33

A 1st gen. topical H-1 anti-histamine contains.

Back 33

anti-histamine and vasoconstrictor

Front 34

A 2nd gen. topical H-1 anti-histamine contains.

Back 34

anti-histamine only

Front 35

An example of a 1st gen. topical H-1 anti-histamine

Back 35

naphazoline

Front 36

An example 2nd gen. topical H-1 anti-histamine

Back 36

Levocabastine (Livostin)
Emedastine (Emadine)

Front 37

Mast cell stabilizers are used for.

Back 37

chronic ocular allergies

Front 38

Mast cell stabilizer ok in pregnancy.

Back 38

Nedocromil (alocril)
Category B

Front 39

Mast cell stabilizer for VKC

Back 39

1. Cromolyn Na
(cromolon, opticrom)
2. Lodoxamide
(Alomide)

Front 40

Mast cell stabilizer for itching that can be used for 4 months. Side effect: headache.

Back 40

Pemirolast (alamast)

Front 41

Define dual activity anti-histamine.

Back 41

Anti-histamine and a mast cell stabilizer. H-1 receptor target.

Front 42

Dual activity anti-histamine can significantly reduce itching and redness.
T or F

Back 42

False. Just itching and some redness.

Front 43

Give 4 examples of dual activity anti-histamines.

Back 43

1. Olopatadine (Patanol)
2. Ketotifen (Zaditor)
3. Azelastine (Optivar)
4. Epinastine (Elestat)

Front 44

Dual-Activity anti-histamines are safe during pregnancy?
T or F

Back 44

False
Category C

Front 45

Dual-Activity anti-histamine that has a side effect of bitter taste.

Back 45

Azelastine (Optivar)

Front 46

Dual activity anit-histamine that has 0.01% BAK and ) systemic absorption.

Back 46

Epinastine (Elestat)

Front 47

3rd generation systemic anti-histamine.

Back 47

Allegra (fexofenadine)
Clarinex (Desloratadine)

Front 48

Systemic anti-histamine that does NOT cause drowsiness.

Back 48

1. Allegra
2. Clarinex
3. Clariten (Loratadine)
4. Zyrtec (Cetirizine)

Front 49

Moderate drowsiness with this systemic anti-histamine.

Back 49

chlor-trimeton (chlorpheniramine)

Front 50

Drowisness with this systemic anti-histamine.

Back 50

Benadryl (diphenhydramine)

Front 51

Antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis.

Back 51

1. penicillin
2. bacitracin
3. vancomycin
4. cephalosporin

Front 52

Antibiotics that increase cell membrane permeability.

Back 52

1. polymyxin

Front 53

Antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis.

Back 53

1. aminoglycoside
2. tetracycline
3. macrolide
4. chloramphenicol

Front 54

Bacitracin effective against:

Back 54

1. gram + (staph bleph)
2. Neisseria

Front 55

Bacitracin used in combo with:

Back 55

1. neomycin
2. polymyxin

Front 56

Vancomycin used against:

Back 56

1. gram + serious infections
2. pseudomonas colitis
3. MRSA

Front 57

Vancomycin oral used in serious cases only b/c:

Back 57

side effects
1. hearing loss
2. fatal uremia

Front 58

neomycin cannot stop:

Back 58

pseudomonas

Front 59

aminoglycosides target:

Back 59

1. staph
2. gram - bacilli

Front 60

List of aminoglycoside.

Back 60

1. neomycine
2. gentamycin
3. tobramycin

Front 61

Good against pseudomonas

Back 61

tobramycin

Front 62

Good against gentamycin and tobramycin resistant gram - bacilli.

Back 62

Amikan

Front 63

Bactericidal antibiotic against infectious bleph and gram -.

Back 63

polymyxin B

Front 64

Rare side effect resulting in superinfection and hypersensitivity due to this antibiotic.

Back 64

bacitracin

Front 65

Side effect resulting in punctate epi. erosions, corneal ulcerations, and chemosis due to this antibiotic.

Back 65

aminoglycosides

Front 66

Macrolide targets.

Back 66

1. gram +
2. gram +bacilli
3. chlamydia
4. H. influenza

Front 67

Example of a macrolide that is used against Staph bleph and ophthalmia neonatorum.

Back 67

erythromycin

Front 68

Why would you not use sulfonamides with a purulent dischg infection?

Back 68

dischg contains PABA which antagonize the drug.

Front 69

Sulfonamides are no longer used topically b/c? 2 reasons.

Back 69

1. hypersensitivity
2. SJS

Front 70

Want can you use instead if a pt is allergic to sulfonamides or infection has purulent dischg?

Back 70

trimethoprim

Front 71

PolyTrim is a combo drug of ____ and _____. Used to treat ______.

Back 71

trimethoprim
polymyxin B
bacterial conjunctivits

Front 72

Trimethoprim not useful against______.

Back 72

Pseudo. a.

Front 73

Antibiotic that targets DNA synthesis.

Back 73

Fluoroquinolone

Front 74

List some Fluoroquinolones.

Back 74

1. Levofloxacin (quixin)
2. Ciprofloxacin (ciloxan)
3. Ofloxacin (ocuflox)

Front 75

Systemic fluoroquinolones contribute to resistant bacteria while topical fluoroquinolones do not.
T or F

Back 75

True

Front 76

Fluoroquinolone that targets gram + S. aureus and S. pneumoniae.

Back 76

Levofloxacin

Front 77

Levofloxacin ____% targets bacterial conjunc. and_____% targets bacterial keratitis.

Back 77

0.5%
1.5%

Front 78

3rd generation fluoroquinolones target _______ of gram - or _______ of gram +.

Back 78

DNA gyrase -
Topo IV +

Front 79

Fluoroquinolones category that is better with gram +, retain gram - coverage, and atypical mycobacteria.

Back 79

4th generation

Front 80

FDA approved 4th generation fluoroquinolones for ____________.

Back 80

bacterial conjunctivitis

Front 81

4th generation fluoroquinolones targets.

Back 81

DNA gyrase AND Topo IV of +

Front 82

Fluoroquinolones with low MIC.

Back 82

Gatifloxacin (Zymar)
Moxifloxacin (Vigamox)

Front 83

4th generation fluoroquinolones with BAK.

Back 83

Gatifloxacin (Zymar)

Front 84

Fluoroquinolones with bulky side chain to which bacteria can't pump out of cell.

Back 84

Moxifloxacin (Vigamox)

Front 85

Bacteria resist fluoroquinolones by.

Back 85

1. mutating enzymes
2. decrease permeability to fluoroquinolones
3. increase efflux of fluoroquinolones

Front 86

Which of the 4th gen. fluoroquinolones has more rapid killing.

Back 86

Gatifloxacin (Zymar)

Front 87

4g-FQ # 1 for:

Back 87

1. bacterial conjunctivitis
2. infectious corneal ulcers

Front 88

Which fluoroquinolones can result in white corneal ppt that are benign.

Back 88

ciprofloxacin

Front 89

The 1st choice against dendritic or HSV keratitis is _____________. But due to its toxicity, ___________ is used instead.

Back 89

trifluridine (viroptic)
acyclovir

Front 90

Anti-viral meds can cause punctal occlusion which results in chronic tearing. T or F

Back 90

True

Front 91

Patient younger than 45 presenting with HZO should be tested for _______.

Back 91

HIV

Front 92

Neuralgic pain from HZO shows up 1-2 days after the chills, fever, malaise, and headache.
T or F

Back 92

True

Front 93

Ointments should be used on HZO?

Back 93

False no drying agents!!! Increase scars.

Front 94

RX used with 72 hours of skine lesion. dosage

Back 94

Acyclovir
800mg 5x day for 7-10 days

Front 95

Valtrex can be used for HZO?
T or F

Back 95

T
Valtrex is Valacyclovir is acyclovir (prodrug)

Front 96

Immune compromised persons infected wiht HZO have an increase risk of ________.

Back 96

ARNS
Acute Retinal Neurosis Syndrome

Front 97

Capsaicin cream called ________ works how?

Back 97

Zostrix
depleted substance P

Front 98

Active HSV (epithelial keratits) should be treated with _________.

Back 98

Acyclovir 400mg 5x day.

Front 99

Acyclovir for HSV helps prevent stromal disease.
T or F

Back 99

False

Front 100

Viroptic and steroid would be beneficial for _______HSV but not ________HSV.

Back 100

anterior uveitis
epithelial keratitis

Front 101

Acyclovir low dosage is effective to prevent recurrent HSV keratitis (dendritic or disciform).
T of F

Back 101

True

Front 102

Preseptal or orbital cellulitis patients can have a ________ discoloration indicating____________.

Back 102

dark purple
Haemophilus

Front 103

If eye lids of a patient cannot be separated what should you do?

Back 103

order CT scan.

Front 104

Facial tenderness and nasal discharge indicate.

Back 104

sinusitis

Front 105

Medial canthal tenderness and tearign indicate.

Back 105

dacryocystitis

Front 106

Pencillin V is not effective against ___________.

Back 106

staph

Front 107

Penicillins resistant to Penicillinase.

Back 107

1. cloxacillin
2. dicloxacillin

Front 108

B-lactamase inhibitor.

Back 108

potassium clavulanate

Front 109

Penicillin with extended spectra of activity but destroyed by pencillinase.

Back 109

Amoxicillin

Front 110

Augmentin is _________ +__________.

Back 110

amoxicillin
clavulanate

Front 111

side effects of penicillin that can result in death.

Back 111

pseudomembranous colitis- diarrhea excessive

Front 112

cephalosporins target:

Back 112

1stand 2nd
internal hordeolum
preseptal cellulitis
1st bacterial corneal ulcers

Front 113

1st gen. cephalosporins target gram ____ and 3rd gen target gram ____. As you move from 1st to 3rd what happens?

Back 113

gram +
gram -
loss + and gain - coverage

Front 114

Example 1st gen cephalosporins and 2nd gen.

Back 114

1st Keflex, cefazolin
2nd Ceftin (Cefuroxime)

Front 115

The macrolide erythromycin that causes less GI upset

Back 115

Erythromycin ethylsuccinate

Front 116

The macrolide erythromycin that should be avoided in adults.

Back 116

estolate

Front 117

The macrolide that can be taken during pregnancy for preseptal cellulits.

Back 117

Azithromycin (Zithromax-Z-pak)

Front 118

Macrolide target H. influenza and chlamydia.

Back 118

Clarithromycin (Biaxin)

Front 119

Macrolide more effective in gram (-) coverage for chlamydial conjunc.

Back 119

Azithromycin (Zithromax-Z-pak)

Front 120

Short term treatment for acne rosacea

Back 120

tetracycline

Front 121

Long term treatment for acne rosacea.

Back 121

doxycyline

Front 122

Targets for treatment of acne rosacea.

Back 122

1. anti-collagenase; anti-lipase
2. H. pylori

Front 123

Problem with diarrhea with doxycycline then ______can be used.

Back 123

doxycycline hyclate (Periostate)

Front 124

The quad therapy for acne rosacea to erradicate H. Pylori. Problem is ________.

Back 124

Helidac Therapy
compliance since qid for 7-10 days

Front 125

The triple therapy for acne rosacea to erradicate H. pylori is _______________>

Back 125

Amoxcillim
clarithromycin
lansoprazole
bid 10 days compliance better

Front 126

Systemic drug causing whorl opacity lines coming from below and going to the center. Green-yellow.

Back 126

chloroquine (anit-malaria)
hydroxychloroquine (plaquenil)

Front 127

Systemic drug caused by interaction of drug and UV so not seen under lid. Interpalpebral fissure Endothelium and Descements. Irreversible discoloration cornea.

Back 127

Chloropromazine (Thorazine_- anti-psychotic

Front 128

Systemic drug causing chrysiosis- minute gold particles deposition in posterior 1/3 of stroma. No symptoms.

Back 128

gold salts (rheumatoid arth.)

Front 129

Resemble Hudson Stahli line then progresses to whorl then to clumps. Mustache keratopathy.

Back 129

Amiodarone (Cordarone)

Front 130

Drug induced lipid storage disease.

Back 130

Mustache keratopathy from Amiodarone (Cordarone)

Front 131

Amiodarone (cordarone) must ask patient if problem in this area. MUST stop if yes and refer to cardiologist.

Back 131

breathing problems.

Front 132

Bilateral posterior subcapsular opacities that start off axis caused by _________.

Back 132

Steroids.

Front 133

Chlorpromazine cause ______.

Back 133

anterior subcapsular
stellate

Front 134

Minocycline can cause _________.

Back 134

Thinning of the sclera. see choroid-blue.

Front 135

Tetracycline can cause ____________.

Back 135

Photosensitive. Burn lids sun lt.

Front 136

Sulfonamides can cause__________.

Back 136

rash

Front 137

Barbituates can cause____________.

Back 137

bilateral ptosis.

Front 138

OD of barbituates can be verified by.

Back 138

tap between eyes and flutter response.

Front 139

Atropine reduces aqueous by _______ and scopolamine reduces aqueous by ____________.

Back 139

3ul/min
0.8ul/min

Front 140

Dry eyes can be made worse by ____________.

Back 140

anti-cholinergics

Front 141

The more sedation in a drug the more anti-cholinergic effects.
T or F

Back 141

True

Front 142

Lomotil (diphenoxylate + atropine) is treatment for ________.

Back 142

diarrhea
shut down GI tract

Front 143

Detrol LA (tolterodine) treatment for ___________ and is a anti-cholinergic.

Back 143

bladder dys.

Front 144

Isotretinoin-Accutane attack the ____________.

Back 144

meibomian gland

Front 145

Myopia can be induced by an allergic reaction to drugs. Describe.

Back 145

Ciliary Body edema
Relax zonules
Lens moves forward

Front 146

Allergies to:sulfonamides, diuretics, CAI, isotretinoin, topiramate (topamax)- anticonvulsant, can cause change in VA to _________.

Back 146

myopia
ex. topiramate (topamax) from 20/20 to 20/200!!

Front 147

phenytoin (dilantin)-anti-convulsant, lithium and alchol can affect ____________ and in high doses can cause _____________.

Back 147

diplopia (H or V) convergence problem
high doses-nystagmus

Front 148

Tamoxifen is used for treatment of ______________. Bilateral ________ can result from O.D.

Back 148

breast cancer
crystalline maculopathy

Front 149

Caused from heroine, methadone, codeine, meperidine, pentazocine addiction. 9,000 methadone pills required to see this effect.

Back 149

Talc Retinopathy
tiny, glistening yellow crystals in arterioles
if block O2 can see neo and bleeding

Front 150

Patients diagnosed with Talc Retinopathy will have problems not only with their eyes but also________________.

Back 150

lungs.
Talc embolized from lungs to the eyes.

Front 151

Ethambutol and anti-TB drug can damage_____________.

Back 151

Optic nerve

Front 152

Damage of optic nerve by ethambutol can lead to.

Back 152

scotomas
optic neuropathy
blindness
R/G prob

Front 153

Viagra's optic nerve effect is.

Back 153

color vision change for 4-5 hours

Front 154

Color vision change in which objects look snow covered caused by O.D. of meds.

Back 154

Digitalis cardiac glycoside

Front 155

Adverse rxns of beta blockers

Back 155

slow pulse
shortness breath
fatigue
asthma
hair loss
depression
impotence

Front 156

Adverse rxns of pilocarpine

Back 156

brow ache
iritis
detached retina (myopia)
synechiae
angle closure with narrow

Front 157

Adverse rxns of CAI (neptazane/acetazolamide)

Back 157

hypokalemia
fatigue
tingling
maliase
kidney stones
aplastic anemia

Front 158

Disengage the sphinchter resulting in mydriasis. List in order of potency.

Back 158

Anti-cholinergics
1. atropine
2. homatropine
3. scopolamine
4. cyclopentolate
5. tropicamide

Front 159

Peak effect of mydriatic phenylephrine within ____min.

Back 159

45-60 min.

Front 160

Pigment floaters in AC noted with use of this mydriatic.

Back 160

phenylephrine

Front 161

PE (phenylephrine) contraindicated due to HTN effects in these pts.

Back 161

2.5% in orthostatic hypotension pts
MAO inhibitors
reserpine, guanethidine, methyldopa (chemical smupathectomy)

Front 162

Peak mydriatic effect of tropicamide.

Back 162

30 min.
Last 6 hours.

Front 163

Tropicamide time of loss of accommodation.

Back 163

<30 minutes

Front 164

Tropicamide cause a temp. rise in IOP. In POAG pts ______change.

Back 164

.5mmHG

Front 165

Tropicamide causes pressor effects?
T or F

Back 165

False

Front 166

Anti-cholinergic with greater cycloplegic effect than mydiratic.

Back 166

Cyclopentolate

Front 167

OD of anti-cholinergics result in:

Back 167

red beet
hot hare
mad hatter
dry bone

Front 168

pseudoexfolitaion synd. pts show _______response to dilating and may be _______pts for cat sx

Back 168

poor
poor

Front 169

In POAG pt study, for every _____mm dilation result in increase IOP.

Back 169

1mm
norm pupil dilate 4mm!!

Front 170

Infant and neonates avoid large doses of ______ and ____% phenylephrine.

Back 170

large
10%

Front 171

IN pregnant and nursing avoid ________and __________.

Back 171

scoplamine
phenylephrine

Front 172

For diabetics, use _______ and _________ for dilation.

Back 172

0.5% tropicamide
2.5% phenylephrine

Front 173

For asthmatics, avoid _________ and ____________.

Back 173

adrenergics w/bronchodilators
sulfite meds ex. PE

Front 174

For MAO pts, avoid ___________.

Back 174

adrenergics (potential supersentivity)

Front 175

Pediatric population, ____% of pts were found to have 1 or more posterior pole lesion undetectable without dilation.

Back 175

25%

Front 176

Non-mydriatic fundus camera was more superior to dilate fundus evaluation to id diabetic retinopathy.
T or F

Back 176

True!

Front 177

Pediatric pts (2-8) dilated equally well when mydriasis was obtained from spray as conventional drops.
T or F

Back 177

True!

Front 178

Application of cyclopentolate to medial canthus was found as effective as drops applied to the conj.
T or F

Back 178

True!

Front 179

Pre-medication with topical anesthetic result in a slight greater pupil diameter only amoung dark eyed pts with use of 0.5%T.
T of F

Back 179

False
light but clinically insignificant

Front 180

Better images are obtained without dilation.

Back 180

GDx

Front 181

Test not affect with or without dilation.

Back 181

VF
OCT-NFL thickness
HRT
central corneal thickness

Front 182

After effects of pupillary dilation in simulated driving.

Back 182

Reduced Contrast threshold and high contrast VA
No reduction VF or UFOV

Front 183

Dapiprazole is an _____________.

Back 183

alpha adrenergic block
not available any more

Front 184

Flower petal leakage into sensory retina due break down blood/brain barrier b/c of ______________ supplement.

Back 184

Niacin 3g/day

Front 185

RP patients are told to avoid ________ and take ____________.

Back 185

vit E
vit A

Front 186

Vit A provide _________addtional uears of useful vision for avg RP pt when supplementation is started by age 32 as measure by ERG.

Back 186

7

Front 187

______percursor to vit A and may function in ___________ protection against _______.

Back 187

beta-carotene
antioxidant
free radicals

Front 188

Deficiency in vitA can result in ____________ and OD can result in _____________.

Back 188

night blindness xerophthalmia
papilledema

Front 189

Fat Soluble vit.

Back 189

ADE and K

Front 190

Deficiency in this mineral may lead to optic nerve dysfunction.

Back 190

thaimin (water-soluble)

Front 191

Deficiency in this mineral can result in cataract formation, corneal vascularization, angular conj., amd KCS

Back 191

Riboflavin (B-2)

Front 192

Deficiency in this mineral may lead to pellagra(optic neuropathy)

Back 192

naicin (B-3)

Front 193

Deficiency in this mineral results in anemia. Necessary to supplement with Daraprim for ocular toxoplasmosis.

Back 193

Folate (B complex)

Front 194

Deficiency in this mineral result in __________________.

Back 194

toxic optic neuropathies
detoxifies cyanide

Front 195

Present in retina, aqueous, and lens at >50 x plasma levels.

Back 195

Vit C

Front 196

Deficiency in this mineral result in scurvy (conj. & retinal hemes)

Back 196

Vit C

Front 197

Positive effect on drusen reduction for ARMD by this mineral.

Back 197

Zinc

Front 198

Essential as coenzyme in protection of oxidative damage to hemoglobin.

Back 198

Selenium

Front 199

Recommend vitamin ___________. Avoid __________ in smokers due to increase risk lung cancer.

Back 199

Ocuvite Lutein
B-carotene

Front 200

____________ have been shown recently to reach the macula in sufficient quantity to be of some protective benefit against blue-light damage

Back 200

Lutein