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220 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

The greatest legal concerns for a personal trainer are:

Pre-activity health screening of clients, interpreting the results, the development of
physical activity recommendations and parameters for training, the instruction and
supervision of physical activity, emergency preparations and timely fulfillment of
such services.

(T/F) A failure to screen or even perform screening which results in client injury may
actually increase the likelihood of legal claims and suits based upon negligence.

True

(T/F) Employers may not be responsible for the actions of their employees.

False

(T/F) It is recommended to utilize applicable protective documents such as waivers,
releases and informed consents to meet their legal duties.

True

(T/F) It is not recommended to obtain liability insurance when working as an
independent contractor.

False

(T/F) Professionalism has nothing to do with punctuality, appearance, presentation,
knowledge or hygiene.

False

Name the four chambers of the heart.

Left and Right Ventricles, Left and Right Atriums.

Name the three energy systems.

ATP/Creatine-Phosphate, Glycolysis, Aerobic Oxidation.

What is the prime mover, antagonist and stabilizers for the bench press?

Pectoralis Major (middle and upper fibers emphasized). Rhomboids, Trapezius,
Posterior Deltoid. Rotator Cuff Musculature: Supraspinatus, Infaspinatus, Teres
Minor, Subscapularis.

What causes post exercise soreness and what do you do about it?

Microtrauma to the muscle tissue. PRICE, light stretching or active rest and hydrate.

Describe what occurs during the systolic and diastolic phase of blood pressure. What
is considered a normal reading?

Systolic is the pressure in the arterial walls during ventricular contraction. Diastolic
pressure is the pressure in the arterial walls during ventricular filling. 120/80 is
considered a normal reading.

What is the difference between slow and fast twitch muscle?

Slow twitch muscle fibers have slow shortening velocities, are red, endurance and
resistant to fatigue, large mitochondria, high myoglobin, rich capillary supply,
primarily postural, tonic. Fast twitch muscle fibers have high shortening velocities,
fatigue rapidly, have large numbers of actin and myosin filaments which are larger in
diameter, are white, prime mover/strength/power, phasic musculature, easily
inhibited.

What might be the fat burning target heart range for a 45-year old individual with a
resting heart rate of 60 bpm?

Using the Karvonen formula and calculating the training heart rate based on Zone 1
(40-65%), the answer is 220 – 45 - 60 x.4 + 60 =106 bpm and 220 – 45 - 60 x.65 + 60 =
135 bpm or 106 -135 bpm.

What is the all or none theory?

When a myofiber is innervated by a nerve cell, it contracts totally or not at all.

Explain the difference between concentric and eccentric in resistance training.

A concentric contraction is the shortening of the muscle fibers. An eccentric
contraction is the lengthening of the muscle fibers.

Name two functions of blood.

Transport oxygen and nutrients to the cell and removes wastes and carbon dioxide
from the cell.

What is the definition of OBLA?

Onset of Blood Lactate Accumulation.

How could you determine maximum heart rate and training heart rate when designing
a cardiovascular workout for a client?

VO2 Max test, 220 - age x % = THR, 220 - age - RHR x % + RHR = THR (Karvonen),
or 220 - age x % x 1.15 = THR.

Discuss the concept of periodicity.

The gradual cycling of specificity, intensity, volume, duration, and frequency to
achieve a specific goal.

What is the Valsalva Maneuver?

Exhaling forcibly with the glottis closed.

What does the abbreviation ATP mean?

Adenosine Triphosphate.

With exercise lasting longer than ten seconds what system kicks in to provide ATP?

Glycolytic System.

How long does Glycolysis last?

From ten seconds to three minutes.

Define reciprocal inhibition.

When an agonist or prime mover is called upon to perform a desired motion, the
antagonist are neurologically inhibited.

What is a Co-contraction?

When the agonist and antagonist contract simultaneously.

What is a spurt muscle? Give an example.

Muscles that have their distal tendon close to the joint axis. Biceps Brachii.

What is a double-jointed muscle?

A muscle in the body that crosses two joints and is able to produce motion at more
than one joint.

Define the term reversibility.

A major decrease in strength and aerobic capacity are apparent after two weeks
without exercise, and a major decrease in aerobic capacity after three weeks without
exercise.

What would afferent information be?

Afferent information is nerve impulses from receptors or sense organs toward the
central nervous system.

What is a motor unit?

A single a-motor neuron and all of the corresponding muscle fibers it innervates.

Janda suggested there is a group of postural muscles involved in static tasks such as
standing or sitting that have a tendency to become overactive. The muscles are referred
to as:

Tonic muscularature.

What body type is characterized by a muscular build?

Mesomorph.

When a client has a decrease in appetite, inability to sleep and elevated rate heart, they
may be:

Overtraining.

The fascia that surrounds bundles of muscle fibers is called?

Fasiculi.

Which contraction is the strongest; concentric, eccentric or isometric?

Eccentric.

Define Visceral or smooth muscles.

Visceral or smooth muscles operate blood vessels and tubular organs such as the
stomach and uterus. Smooth muscle gets its name because there are no striations
visible in them. Smooth muscle is autonomous or doesn’t require conscious thought
to be stimulated.

Define the origin of a mucsle.

Is the attachment nearest the midline of the body and/or the end attached to the least
movable bone.

List three reasons why eating 5 - 6 meals a day is more effective.

Thermogenic effect of food, steady supply of nutrients, and smaller amounts do not
encourage fat storage.

What is the ACSM recommended intake of carbohydrates, proteins and fats for health?

58% Carbohydrates, 30% or >30% fat, and 12% protein.

What are vitamins?

Vitamins are organic food substances found only in living things, such as, plants and
animals, are required by the body in minute amounts for physiological maintenance
and growth.

How much water should a person drink a day?

For men 125oz, for women 91oz

How many calories are in: One gram of fat: One gram of carbohydrates: One gram of
protein: One gram of vitamins:

9, 4, 4, 0.

The essential Amino Acids are:

Phenylalanine, Valine, Threonine, Methionine, Tryptophan, Histidine, Isoleucine,
Leucine, Lysine.

Define basal metabolic rate.

BMR is the amount of energy expended to support the ongoing metabolic work of the body’s cells at rest.

What major role does potassium play in the body?

Production of energy, muscle contraction, beating of the heart, synthesis of protein,
nerve tranquilization, and kidney function.

What is the Institute of Medicine's recommended intake of carbohydrates, proteins
and fats?

45-65% carbohydrates, 10-35% protein, 20-35% fat.

What hormone does the pancreas release in response to high concentration of blood
sugar?

Insulin.

What macronutrient provides the majority of the energy used by muscles in the first
three minutes of an activity?

Carbohydrate.

Give an example of a saturated fat.

Any fat that is solid at room temperature and/or palm and coconut oil.

According to the Food Guide Pyramid which category of foods offer high-quality protein?

Meats.

Which type of vitamins may have a risk for toxicities?

Fat-soluble vitamins.

According to the American Dietetic Association, a person should drink _____8 oz of water per day.

8.

What is the acronym RDA stand for?

Recommended Dietary Allowance.

Give examples of a disaccharide.

Maltose, lactose or sucrose are a few examples.

Name the essential fats.

Linolenic and linoleic acids.

List some of the benefits of vitamin C.

Helps to maintain collagen, can reduce histamines and is an antioxidant.

What vitamin is most affected by the industrialization of our food supply?

B vitamins.

How many calories are in a food that contains 20 grams of carbohydrates, 42 grams of
protein and 12 grams of fat?

356 calories.

The recommended intake for dietary fiber is:

25-30 grams.

8 grams per kilogram is the RDA recommendation for healthy adults for which
macronutrient?

Protein.

Galactose and glucose make up the disaccharide:

Lactose.

While the body is at rest, what percentage of fat is utilized for fuel?

60%.

Glucose and fructose are examples of:

Monosaccharides.

Which vitamin helps maintain collagen?

Vitamin C.

What is collagen?

The most abundant protein in the body.

Define the term Golgi Tendon Organ.

A sensory organ situated at the musculotendinous junction.

What is a dynamic stretch?

The body’s own movement causes the stretch.

What is ballistic stretching?

Uncontrolled bouncing, jerking, bobbing or pulsing to achieve greater ROM.

What are the dangers of hyper flexibility?

May cause joint instability and precautions during pregnancy would include
moderate stretching.

What sensory receptor activates the stretch reflex mechanism?

Muscle spindle.

What can you do to increase the efficiency in the process of reciprocal innervation?

A good warm up.

Flexibility around a joint is affected by:

Bone structure, ligaments, elasticity of skin, muscles, tendons and fascia.

Tendons are resistant to what kind of force?

Tensile forces.

Define the term elastic.

The ability to return back to their original shape.

The “ability to return to its original shape” is the definition of:

Elastic.

The sensory receptor involved in the stretch reflex mechanism is called:

Muscle Spindle.

What percent of body fat for men and women is considered obese?

Men 25% and Women 32%.

What is a form of treatment for Osteoarthritis?

A non-steroidal anti-inflammatory or some form of analgesic.

What is Rheumatoid Arthritis?

An autoimmune process resulting in inflammation of the synovial fluid contained in
the burs sacks of the joint surfaces.

What is Hypertension?

High Blood Pressure.

Name two things a trainer should pay attention to if working with someone with
Hypertension.

The client should never do exercises with their head below the level of their heart and
they should avoid lifting heavy weights over their heads.

What should a trainer pay attention to when working with a pregnant client in the
first trimester?

Heart rate, core temperature, and making sure the client is not exercised to exhaustion.

How often should a pregnant woman consume water when exercising? How much
water should be consumed in a hour long training session?

At least every ten minutes. 16 to 32 ounces during a one hour session.

How many tender points must a person have to be diagnosed with Fibromyalgia?

11 out of 18 tender points for three months or longer.

What is the primary symptom of Fibromyalgia?

Muscle soreness.

What problems can Multiple Sclerosis cause?

Muscle control, strength, vision, balance, sensation and mental functions.

What causes Multiple Sclerosis?

Multiple Sclerosis is the process of demyelination and subsequent disruption of the
nerve impulse flow.

What should be avoided in an exercise program for someone with Multiple Sclerosis?

Exercise programs should be designed to avoid over heating.

What response during exercise can you suspect from a client who is taking a Beta
Blocker?

A client taking Beta Blockers can have a decreased exercise heart rate.

What response during submaximal testing can you suspect from a client who is
taking a Calcium Channel Blocker?

A client taking a Calcium Channel Blocker can have a lower blood pressure when
performing a sub-maximal exercise test.

What considerations should you take when training someone with cancer?

Avoid high impact aerobic activity due to risk of bone fractures and avoid pressure or
friction on the skin during exercise, because bruising can easily occur.

What are some recommendation you might make to a client with osteoporosis?

Avoid high impact aerobics, uncontrolled spinal flexion, decrease caffeine intake,
increase weight bearing activities and insure and adequate intake of calcium and
vitamin D.

When training a client with AIDS/HIV, why is it important to wash your hands?

To protect them from being exposed to other infections.

Are sit ups a recommended exercise for a pregnant woman in her second trimester?

No.

What can cause Exercise Induced Asthma (EIA)?

Cold air and specific intensities and durations. Going too hard too fast.

Define diastasis.

Diastasis is the separation of the rectus abdominis muscle.

What are some of the considerations when training someone with cancer?

General weakness, nausea, risk of bone fractures and bruising from pressure or friction
on the skin.

When training a client with osteoporosis, is it better to perform weight-bearing or non
weight-bearing exercise?

Weight-bearing exercise.

Considerations when training someone with AIDS/HIV include:

Washing your hands to protect the client from exposure to other infections.

What is an anatomical position?

In this position the body is in an erect stance, facing forward, arms at the side of the
trunk with palms facing forward and the legs together with the feet pointing forward.
All joints are in anatomical neutral with the exception of full supination at the
radio-ulnar joint.

Define the term supination.

Movement in which the palms face forward in anatomical position.

Define the term external.

Refers to a segment rotating around a vertical axis so that the anterior surface of the
segment moves away from the midline of the body.

What is circumduction?

An imaginary “O”. Actually a combination of four movements: flexion, adduction,
extension, and abduction.

What is circumduction?

Pertaining towards the head.

What is Caudal?

Pertaining to the tail end.

(T/F) The term bilateral refers to both sides.

True.

(T/F) The terms posterior/dorsal both refer to the back of the body.

True.

What means do the anatomical planes provide?

They are means of communication or describing motion.

Define the term flexion. Give one example.

Flexion occurs when the joint motion is moving away from neutral in the sagittal
plane, or if past neutral in a position of extension, is moving back to neutral. Elbow
Flexion - curl.

Define the term extension. Give one example.

Extension occurs when the joint motion is moving from a position of flexion back to,
or past anatomical neutral in the sagittal plane. Elbow extension / triceps
push-down.

Name the three planes of motion.

Sagittal or Median; Frontal or Coronal; Horizontal or Transverse planes of motion.

Which muscles flex the elbow joint?

Biceps Brachii, Brachialis, an Brachioradialis.

The Pes Anserinus consists of:

Latin for “Gooses Foot.” The insertion of the Gracilis, Semitendinosus, and the
Sartorius.

An example of a closed kinematic exercise chain exercise would be?

The bench press.

Name the four muscles of the Rotator Cuff.

S.I.T.S. - Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres Minor and Subscapularis.

What are the five main spinal regions?

Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar, Sacral, Coccyx.

Name the origin and insertion of the rectus abdominis muscle. What action does it
accomplish?

Origin: Pubic Crest or Pubic Symphysis. Insertion: Xiphoid Process and the Costal
Cartilages of the fifth through seventh ribs. Compresses the abdominopelvic cavity
and flexes the vertebral column.

What muscle plantar flexes the foot?

Gastrocnemius.

What muscles dorsiflexes the ankle?

Tibialis Anterior.

What type of joint allows flexion and extension?

A ball and socket or a hinge joint.

Give an example of a fusiform muscle.

Biceps brachii, sartorious, brachialis, rectus femoris and rectus abdominis.

What makes up the shoulder girdle?

The clavicle and the scapula.

What does the triceps surae consist of?

The two heads of the gastrocnemius and the soleus.

Name the muscles of the quadraceps.

Vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, vastus inermedius and rectus femoris.

What is the longest muscle in your body?

Sartorius.

What is the longest bone in your body?

Femur.

Define a sesamoid bone.

A short bone embedded within a tendon or joint capsule. An example would be the
bones found in the base of the first metatarsal in the foot, or of course the largest
example would be the patella.

What are the three basic body types in Somatotyping?

Ectomorph, mesomorph and endomorph.

What types of muscles maintain a joint in a static position?

Stabilizers.

Name the thee heads of the triceps brachii.

Long, lateral and medial.

How many vertebrae are found in the cervical region of the spine?

Seven.

What is the origin and insertion for the pectoralis major?

Origin: Medial half of the clavicle, the sternum, the costal cartilages of the upper six
ribs and the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle. Insertion: Greater tubercle of
the humerus.

The deltoids and the gluteus maximus are examples of:

Penniform muscles.

Give an example of a Class II lever system.

A wheel barrow, can opener or the MTP joint in plantar flexion.

Which muscle dorsiflexes the ankle?

Tibialis anterior.

What motions are performed by the iliopsoas?

Hip flexion and external rotation concentrically, hip extension and internal rotation
eccentrically.

What are the names of the three heads of the triceps brachii?

Long, lateral and medial.

What are the six questions you should address to determine the effectiveness of any
exercise?

Determine the motion. Determine the direction of resistance. Determine the starting
position. Monitor joint position stabilization continually. Monitor the path of motion
continually. Determine and monitor the range of motion.

What do the trunk muscles consist of?

Back extensors that bend the trunk backward, lateral flexors that bend it sideways and anterior abdominals that bend it forward.

Movement from the extremities originate and emanate from?

The Core.

How should a client position themselves for the supine pelvic hold level 1?

Lying with back arched naturally. Feet portioned as close to buttocks as possible.

What percentage of the adult population will experience low back pain?

80%.

What is the starting position for the back extension machine?

Seated in ideal alignment with arms crossed, line up hip joint with axis of machine.

What are the mechanical points for the reverse crunch?

Do not throw the legs, placing arms above head will help with balance, do not move
legs passed the point of full abdominal contraction, as this strains the neck.

What is considered to be normal ROM in horizontal abduction?

30 - 45 degrees.

What is the motion in a seated cable row? Direction of resistance?

Shoulder extension concentrically. Outward.

How can you make the dumbbell pullover a safer exercise?

Decline bench makes a better shoulder position, alter speed, bend elbows, or, apply
resistance via a cable crossover.

What is the risk/benefit of the butt blaster machine?

Risk: body weight plus resistance is resting on one knee, really tough to stabilize
spine, room in hip extension beyond neutral = 10-30 degrees, limited range to work
glutes. Benefit: minimal gluteus stimulation.

What is a Q angle?

Is formed by the longitudinal axis of the femur and the line of pull of the patellar
ligament

An individual’s mechanical ability to perform multiple joint movements
simultaneously under load is primarily based upon what?

The length of the levers or segments connecting these joints.

When performing a prone leg curl the pivot point of the machine should be lined up
with the:

Axis of rotation of the knee.

List two machines that train the latissimus dorsi?

Pull up bar, lat-pulldown machine or a row machine.

What is a Carrying Angle?

The angle formed between the humerus and the forearm.

What are the prime movers in a squat?

Quadraceps at the knee and the Gluteus maximus at the hip.

What muscles are antagonists at the hip in hip extension?

Hip Flexors.

What are the agonists in a preacher curl?

Biceps brachii, brachioradialis and brachialis.

How much does the intradiscal pressure increase when we are in a seated flexed position?

30-40%.

What is the normal range of motion in shoulder flexion?

160-180 degrees.

In a seated position, intradiscal pressure increases:

30-40%.

What are some of the risks when performing an upright row?

Excessive internal rotation during abduction.

When a multi-joint, compound exercise is executed immediately after a single joint
exercise, what type of training is this an example of?

Pre-exhaustion.

What muscles must be stretched when a client has a protracted shoulder girdle?

Pectoralis major, pectoralis minor, subscapularis and anterior deltoid.

A squat, bench press, barbell curl and a leg press are examples of:

A closed kinetic chain exercise.

What are the prime movers in a leg press?

Vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, vastus intermedius and rectus femoris.

What is the difference between muscular strength and muscular endurance?

Muscular Strength is the ability of a muscle to exert a force. Muscular Endurance is
the ability of a muscle to exert a force over a period of time.

If you train the bench press and the triceps push-down which would usually be trained
first?

The bench press.

Define the term volume.

Volume can be measured by the total amount of work performed in a training
session. This can be measured by the amount of repetitions completed or the total
amount of weight lifted. This can be measured by each set, workout, day, week,
month etc.

Define the term intensity.

Intensity is a measure of one’s applied strength relative to their current level of
maximum strength. Intensity is most easily represented as a percentage of one’s
repetition maximum.

When do type 2A muscle fibers fatigue?

Begin at six seconds and fully fatigue at 30-120 seconds.

How much time under tension is needed to receive an Aerobic/Muscular Endurance
training effect?

Greater than 70 seconds.

What is absolute strength?

The maximum amount of force an individual can produce, irrespective of body
weight and time of force development. This type of strength is important for shot
putters, and football lineman where body weight has a high correlation to an increase
in performance.

When working with loads under 60% of maximum how long should the rest periods
be?

Approximately 45 seconds to two minutes.

What is the double double training technique?

In this technique the user performs two different double jointed exercises for the same
muscle group back to back.

What are the four components of a fitness routine?

Flexibility, stabilization/balance, strength/hypertrophy, cardiovascular.

Define unilateral training.

Flexibility, stabilization/balance, strength/hypertrophy, cardiovascular.

For a hypertrophic effect to occur the repetition range should be:

Six to twelve repetitions per set.

Using the Karvonen formula, calculate the training heart rate (THR) of 70% for a
40-year old male with a resting heart rate of 30bpm. Do it again for a 40-year old male
with the same %, but a resting heart rate of 72.

For the 40-year old with a resting HR or 30 bpm, a THR of 70% = 135bpm. For the
40-year old with a resting HR of 72 bpm; a THR of 70% = 148 bpm.

Normal resting heart rates are:

60-100 beats per minute (bpm).

A normal blood pressure reading is:

120/80 mm/Hg.

Dividing the body weight in kilograms by the height in meters squared (kg/m2)
equals:

Body Max Index (BMI).

Force times distance divided by time equals? (F x D÷T=)?

Power.

The stretch shortening cycle is the sequence of:

Eccentric action followed by a concentric action.

For how long should you take someone’s pulse after the step test?

One Minute.

What are two purposes of fitness testing?

To provide information that is helpful in prescribing an exercise program. Educating
participants about physical fitness and individual fitness status. List any from page
10-2.

What are two reasons an accurate resting heart rate measurement is important?

It is used for the calculation of exercise target heart rate, exercise test, and exercise
prescription. It provides baseline information for comparison as cardiovascular
fitness levels improve. List any of the four found on page 10-3.

What is considered to be an optimal blood pressure reading?

120 systolic and 80 diastolic.

How long does the push-up test last?

Until the client can no longer complete another repetition or correct alignment can no
longer be maintained.

What are the standard sites for women from the 3-site skinfold formula?

Triceps brachii, suprailiac and thigh.

What does the acronym BMI stand for?

Body Mass Index.

A BMI measurement of 32 may be considered:

Class 1 obesity.

What is the metronome setting for the 3-minute step test?

96 bpm.

What fitness assessment measures the endurance capabilities of the rectus adominis,
internal and external obliques?

The sit-up test.

What is Upper Cross Syndrome?

Forward head posture. Muscles short and facilitated: neck extensors, upper trapezius,
sternocleidomastoid and pectoralis major and minor. Muscles elongated and
inhibited: deep neck flexors, lower, middle trapezius, rhomboids, serratus anterior
and rectus abdominis.

Normal range of motion for hip extension is:

15 – 30 degrees.

Upper Cross Syndrome is characterized by:

Short cervical extensors and pectoralis major. Long rhomboids, mid trapezius and cervical
flexors.

Which method of assessing body fat has a lower estimated accuracy range; hydrostatic
weighing or Bio-Impedance Analysis (BIA)?

Hydrostatic weighing is plus or minus 2.5% and BIA is plus or minus 4%.

How many beats per minute should you set the metronome at for the YMCA 3-minute
step test?

96 beats per minute (bpm).

Normal range of motion for shoulder flexion is:

160 – 180 degrees.

Subcutaneous fat levels in individuals are affected by:

Gender, body type, age and activity levels.

In the treatment for common injuries, what does the acronym P.R.I.C.E. mean?

Protect, Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation.

List two reasons why you should call 911.

If the victim is unconscious, is bleeding severely. Any from the list on page 11-2.

How do you treat heat cramps?

Rest, gentle stretches, ice, re-hydrate.

What are the symptoms of a sprain?

Swelling, limitations of ROM, discoloration, soreness.

How do you treat a contusion?

Apply Ice.

What are the symptoms of cardiac arrest?

Heart stops beating, no pulse, no breathing, ischemia (lack of oxygen to the heart).

How do you treat a blister?

If punctured, cleanse blister, protect with pad and dressing.

What are the symptoms of fainting?

Light headedness, dizziness, paleness, light sweating.

What is the treatment for heatstroke?

Call 911 and try to cool the person down.

What is the treatment for an epileptic seizure?

Remove objects that might injure them. Protect their head. Do not place your finger,
hand or hard object between their teeth. Don’t restrain, slap or douse them with
water. Once the seizure has ended move them to a comfortable place.

What are signs of heat exhaustion?

Pale, clammy skin, rapid weak pulse, weakness, headache or nausea.

True or False? When someone suffers from an epileptic seizure you should place a hard
object between the person’s teeth.

False.

What are some signs of hypoglycemia?

Excessive hunger, dizziness or weakness.

Explain the difference between using free weights and selectorized equipment.

Free weights are functional, real life, easy to transport and require technique. Machines require less technique and less stabilization from the user. Because of the
guided path of motion and the outside support mechanisms or the machine, more
weight may be lifted. However, machines might not fit everyone.

What are the concerns to be aware of when using free weights?

Awkwardness, potential danger to the body from lack of control, skill needed,
momentum.

How much does a Cybex hack squat carriage weigh?

65 pounds.

What is the weight of a 7-foot Olympic bar?

45 pounds.

What is the weight of an E-Z curl bar?

25 pounds.

T/F) Lack of physical activity is a risk factor for heart disease.

True

How many deaths in the U. S. per year are attributed to lack of physical fitness?

250,000

Of people age 55 and older, what percentage report essentially sedentary lifestyles?

38 percent.