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359 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
what does the acronym AVMA stand for
American veterinary medical association
who is considered the father of veterinary technology
Walter collins
who is NAVTA
national organization for vet techs
the CVMA is an accrediting body for veterinary technician programs in which country
who is responsible for accreditation of vet tech programs in the United states
what are the three things a vet tech cannot do in the veterinary hospital
diagnose disease, prescribe medicine, and perform surgical procedures
according to the U.S. bureau of labor statistics, the options for the veterinary technician in the work force are
the ultimate responsibility for all activities in the veterinary hospital belongs to the
what is the name of the national board examination given to vet techs
veterinary technician national exam
NCVEI established a website for veterinary technician employers to
Guide the management in the use of vet techs
is the committee of the AVMA that accredits veterinary technician programs
is the committee of the CVMA that accredits veterinary technician programs
the CVTEA has essential criteria for accreditation
why are essential tasks required for accredited programs
to ensure a cohesive educational experience
the national examination for vet techs is developed by the and
the national examination consists of questions with hours for completion
200; 4
veterinary technician can perform which of the following
surgical assisting
it is important for the veterinary technician to be cross trained, that means
learning all aspects of the hospital
graduate veterinary technician are skilled in radiology. this does not include
calibrating the machine
which is not a type of protective equipment for radiology
barium sulfate
the treatment room is typically not used for
laboratory testing
the vet tech is responsible for performing which two primary task during dentistry
monitoring anesthesia, cleaning and polishing teeth
the operating room technician can also be called the
circulating nurse
one of the most important duties for the vet tech in surgery is
administering anesthesia
the vet tech is responsible for and the level of patient pain
monitoring; assessing
an effective veterinary hospital depends on
dedication of the support staff and professionals
the acronym for ECFVG means
educational commission of forfeit veterinary graduates
the order for establishing a vet tech specialty group is
shared interest, establishment of an association, petition, and examination
the acronym for veterinary technician specialty group is
a vet tech who holds a bachelor of science degree from a 4 year, AVMA accredited college is considered a
veterinary technologist
in canada, the veterinary technologist a veterinary technician in the United states
is equivalent to
most vet assistants are
trained on the job
in europe, vet techs are called
veterinary nurses
ATLAS and CALAS are organizations which certify
lab animal technicians
the professional manner of a vet tech is initially based on
uniforms must be
cleaned, pressed, and fit well
it is essential to have a for a patient assessment
watch with a second hand
which statement is true
confidentiality about clients and co-workers must be maintained at all times
one trait for positive personal relations is tact, it means
doing and saying the right thing at the right time
what is a common form of written communication today
any form of correct written communication should have
a salutation, correct grammar, closing statement, and signature
which item is not an indication of a professional letter
lined copy paper
the letter that accompanies a resume is most commonly known as a
cover letter
which closing is not acceptable for the letter that accompanies the resume
sincerely yours
it is important to dress in for a initial job interview
dress clothes
the best way to be less nervous during an interview is to
practice interviewing skills
the three phases of general adaptation syndrome are
alarm reaction, autonomic phase, and phase of exhaustion
common psychological response to stress are
anxiety, depression, and anger
which personality type suffers most from "hurry sickness"
type A
change in behavior, missing prescription or medicines, poor judgment, unexplained absences are most common signs of
substance abuse
which occupation is not governed by the states
USDA inspector
the judgement of the has the most impact on what a veterinary technician can and cannot do on the job in states where there are no laws to guide the professional actions of veterinary technician
supervising veterinarian
the laws that govern the practice of veterinary medicine and the legal roles of veterinary technicians are outlined in the document called the
practice act
the administrative body that regulates the practice of veterinary medicine and technology is presided over at which level of government
a veterinary technician who is the subject of a formal complaint of unethical conduct in a state that licenses technicians will be investigated by which agency
state boards of veterinary medicine
specialty boards of veterinary technician are associated with
NAVTA recognizes veterinary technician specialists in which genre
all of the above
which is not a full-scale academy of veterinary technology
VTS stands for
veterinary technician specialist
a veterinary technologist holds which college degree
the most common technician nomenclature does not include
the person most often responsible for the injurious actions for a veterinary technician is the
supervising veterinarian
most states require which qualifications for entry into the practice of veterinary technology
national boards and graduation from an AVMA accredited program
which citation does not need to be reported on an application for licensure as a vet tech
which is not a crime of moral turpitude
driving under the influence of alcohol
which is not a crime of depravity
the difference between laws and regulations is
laws are enacted; regulations are promulgated
describe/prohibit specific required conduct and mandate general conduct
regulations, laws
information not commonly required on an application for vet tech licensure includes
VTNE passing grade
is required for professional licensure renewal by most states
continuing education
RACE is an acronym for which association
registry of continuing education
AAVSB is an acronym for which association
American association of veterinary state boards
common disciplinary sanctions for veterinary technician does not include
prison terms
a notice of disciplinary action is not delivered by
local police department
the licensee to be represented by an attorney at a disciplinary hearing
is not required
disciplinary hearing are
public records
the most severe sanction the board can give is
permanently prohibits the sanctioned individual from practicing the profession
sanctioned limits on the practice of a veterinary technician called
public censure of a licensee without attendant suspension or probation is
technical violations do not include
completion of continuing education
is the telling of information that is not accurate
the practice of veterinary medicine by an unlicensed individual will result in
sanctions and or imprisonment
malpractice or professional negligence by a veterinary practitioner is best defined by which description
failure to provide care equivalent to that provided by individuals under similar circumstances
in most states, veterinary technician can
administer anesthesia
a technician know the task he/she can perform under the state's licensing laws
conduct refers to conduct that disparages the profession in the eyes of the public
the usually remedy in a tort action is
monetary compensation
the usual remedy for malpractice is
disciplinary sanctions
refers to conduct that increases the risk that negligence will occur
is defined as "concerning good and bad, right and wrong, with moral duty and obligations"
the overriding purpose of the veterinary board and practice act is
protecting the public
veterinary technicians should consider the NAVTA guidelines set forth by the
code of ethics
if the technician is unsure of the practice act and regulations, he/she should
write the veterinary state board
why are ethics issues difficult to address
recommendations by the veterinary staff may not be followed by the client
is best defined as the actions necessary to relieve pain or suffering necessary to sustain life
is defined as "a licensed veterinarian is within direct eye sight and hearing range"
immediate supervision
is defined as "a licensed veterinarian is not on the premises, but maintains constant communication"
indirect supervision
according to the textbook, which state veterinary boards do not license or register technicians
Hawaii, utah, and florida
the design of a veterinary facility will vary depending on
needs of clients and species served
a mixed practice means
all species
general practitioner means
offering primary care level services
has extensive standards of excellence for the management of veterinary hospitals
one primary factor in attracting new clients is
parking for employees should be the building
deliveries of veterinary supplies should be made
away from client contact
which is not specific division of activity within the hospital
is composed of reception, examination rooms, labs, pharmacy, and rest rooms
the reception area should be considered the by employees
the clients greeting room
which will not create positive feelings for clients
bright colors
as a rule, examination rooms should be available for each veterinarian
OSHA stands for
occupational safety and health administration
is composed of the treatment area, patient ward, isolation area, exercise area, and necropsy area
the highest priority for hospital staff is
animal security
a refrigerator in the wards room with biologic specimens cannot store
human food or drink
in the large animal hospital, cannot be fed to animals because of toxicity
moldy hay
patient discharged should not be
dirty and wet
clipping and scrubbing of a surgical patient should be done entering the surgical suite
the operating room should have entrances
intense cleaning of the surgical suite should be done once a
which piece of equipment is not necessary for radiology
lead - lined boots
area contains the professional offices, library, employee lounge, and storage
what percentage of veterinary practices is equine related
some large - animal veterinary hospitals have animals brought to the practice. this is called
haul - in facility
in a mixed practice of large and small animals, treatment areas are typically
clients often initially evaluate the level of patient care by the
appearance of the building and grounds
an old saying for new graduate's is % cleanup and %medical practice
duties of the including hiring, inventory, finances and office protocols
practice manager
ward staff needs which training to complete their duties
on-the-job training
is also called the client relations specialist
regardless the hospital setting, all personnel should have
job description
which is not recommendation for hiring a new employee after the initial interview
material status
which question is unlawful to ask during a job interview
national origin
an initial interview should be limited to
30 minutes
the most difficult task of inventory control is
over or under stocking
inventory is the largest expense of a veterinary hospital
controlled drugs are regulated by the
the most important person in nay practice is
the client
general office procedure knowledge is required by
all staff
veterinary practices should set fees according to
cost and delivery of services
the overhead, indirect costs of the veterinary practice do not include
fees are divided into which two categories
shopped and non shopped
which fee is the most competitive
the best payment form for hospitals is
collection of % of the initial payment of estimated expenses based on the treatment plan is
a fee slip should have how many serial numbered copies attached
fee slips can reduce or eliminate
for a good client communication, the telephone should be answered by the ring
about % of all communication is verbal and % is body language
in instances when a client appears unreasonable, indicate that they should speak with the
the best response to a difficult client who appears to be under the influence of drugs or alcohol is
call the law enforcement
only a small portion of marketing is
in regards to marketing, the most important question the veterinarian can ask is
"what business am I in"
marketing can be divided into which categories
internal and external
a successful campaign for marketing and an expectation of client's is
annual reminder cards
a personal marketing approach that has a positive effect on client perception is
sympathy and thank you cards
which is the least effective form of communicating veterinary practice services
telephone soliciting
the veterinary technician must choose a practice in which the veterinarian delegates
billable technical hours
"how to market yourself" is an excellent resource for technicians provided by whom
medical records have and purpose
primary and secondary
legal issues, research, and medical business information are all medical purposes
prevents confusion of patient and client identities
medical records
diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment are all medical purposes
which is not a purpose of medical records
assess client physical abilities
according to the law, information in medical records is viewed as
not recorded, not done
to maintain confidentiality, is removed from records before they are used for teaching
patient markers
currently, veterinary hospital information is more efficiently managed as a result of the use of
a majority of veterinary practices use which popular letter - sized folders for medical records
8 × 10
the popular - size folders have tabs where
edge of one end of the folder
letter - size folders are typically stored
a card file system typically uses which size cards
card files are typically stored where
file drawers
patient information recorded on the card file typically entered in order
reverse chronological
AAHA requires which size folders for accreditation
farm animals veterinarians typically use for records as they travel from farm to farm
carbonized invoice sheets
farm animal veterinarians keep immunization records on large number of animals
combined herd
SOMR is an acronym for
source - oriented medical record
POMR is an acronym for
problem - oriented medical record
in a SOMR, the information is added how
entries in the SOMR are made in which integrates information as it comes to mind
free form
the major drawback of SOMR documentation is
lacks details
POVMR fosters communication and retrieval of information
excellent and rapid
is the term used for patient information recorded in a patient record
patient previous history does not include
current medications
WNL is an acronym for
within normal limits
in the POVMR, the patient information, physical examination, and diagnostic test are collectively known as
serves as a snapshot overview of the patient's medical history
master problem list
helps the clinician to list clinical signs as they become apparent without offering a specific diagnosis
working problem list
ongoing management of the veterinary patient is documented in notes
the S and O in SOAP refers to
subjective and objective
the A and P in SOAP refers to
assessment and plan
in private practice, the technician often completes which part of the SOAP process
S and O
the physiologic, measurable data is referred to as the in the SOAP process
in the medical records, are imperative as handwriting alone may not be adequate in a court of law in identifying the author
which is the compilation of the lab data collected from an animal
diagnostic flow sheet
the completed authorization form that provides the veterinary practice with legal evidence that the owner was informed of important information and agreed to purse that action is
doctrine of informed consent
the forms from authorization for surgery, necropsy, and euthanasia are called
which is not a log typically kept in a veterinary office
cleaning and office supplies
which log is helpful for technicians who wish to improve exposure techniques
which controlled drug category is the most addictive
schedule I
the controlled drug log must have pages that
cannot be easily removed
all controlled drug logs must be kept for a minimum of years
there are two types of folder systems, they are
alphabetical and numerical
the general medical records are typically owned by the
veterinary hospital owner
data in a medical record must not be
erased or scratched out
VMDB is an acronym for
veterinary medical database
by law, controlled drugs must be inventoried how often
every two years
for which procedure is a consent form needed
ethically, information in a patient chart is
OSHA is an acronym for
occupational safety and health administration
OSHA enforces which laws that ensures worker's safety
if a safety complaint is not adequately addressed, the proper procedure is to
contact the regional OSHA office
if the practice employs more than employees, you have the right to review OSHA form 3A
employees must comply with OSHA standards and rules and regulations under the
occupational safety and health act
in the event of an OSHA inspector, the has the right to be present
owner of the practice
the practice should have a collection of written safety policies called the
hospital safety manual
for safety, two people are required to lift patients weighing more than lbs.
the rules for preventing injury when lifting is
keep your back straight and lift with your legs
refigerated food, drinks, and snacks for human consumption are stored the vaccines
away from
when working with equipment with moving parts, which is most dangerous
loose clothing and jewerly
which is not a hazard in the veterinary office
curling irons
when storing flammable materials, place them no closer than to an ignition source
3 feet
emergency exits should be
unlocked and unobstructed
in the event of a fire, which is not the technician's responsibility
rescue all patients from the building
this law requires that staff be informed of all chemical exposures in the practice; this is known as the
right to know
bottles must be labeled and identified with OSHA labels
the manufacturer of a product that contains hazardous chemicals will send an MSDS for the product to the hospital. what does MSDS stand for
material safety data sheet
the MSDS will not contain information for the product
ethylene oxide (EtO) is commonly used for
sterilizing rubber products
formalin is most commonly used for in the veterinary hospital
tissue biopsy
cold sterilization uses which potent chemical
the most common types of injury to veterinary technicians are
animal related
if working in noisy areas of the hospital for any length of time, is required
ear plugs or muffs
when bathing an animal, which piece of equipment is least important to wear
disease that can be transmitted from animal to human are called
rabies is an disease
rabies is not typically found in which species
which listed pathogen does not cause bacterial infection
which disease is characterized by joint pain, fever, and flulike symptoms in humans after the bite of a deer tick
which two species are most susceptible to microsporum
cats an horses
which parasite appears as subcutaneous red lines in regions where the parasite larva has burrowed
which parasite typically occurs in regions where ther is tight clothing
cat litter pans and gardening are source for which potozoan
what nonzoonotic entity is most likely to cause pinkeye or conjunctivitis in technicians
animal dental procedures can aerosolize which common pathogen that is linked to cardiac and pulmonary problems in humans
skin changes, cell damage, and gastrointestinal disorders have been linked to exposure to radiation
long term
the technician must be careful not to allow any part of the body to enter the xray beam as it can cause a high dose of radiation
portable xray machines generally require exposure times to produce images
the radiation dosimeter badge is worn on the of the for maximum measurement
outside, collar of the lead lined apron
radiographic processing chemicals caustic to tissue
liquid drain cleaners and developing chemicals can cause reactions
anesthetic agents that are not metabolized by the patient are called
waste anesthetic gases
carbon dioxide absorbent is used in
anesthesia machine
compressed gas must be in a postion
chained and upright
which is not a recommended disposal of needles and syringes
discard in regular trash containers
cancer patients are treated with CDs. define CDs
cytotoxic drugs
when disposing of a syringe and needle, remove the needle first and destroy by cutting the syringe
never, never
an owner tells you that he can tell his dog penny knows she's done a bad thing because the dog looks so guilty when her owner discovers she's made a mess. penny's guilty behavior is really
submissive behavior
shutting a particular door is way to minimize inappropriate behavior by
managing the pet's environment
accusing a pet of being vindictive, spiteful, jealous, or rebellious is considered a explanation for unrealistic expectations
the process by which an animal develops appropriate social behaviors toward members of its own and other species is called
owners should use negatice punishment when their
dog will not release a toy for the owner to throw
to prevent or minimize inappropriate behavior by a pet, the owners must
use crate training with the puppy
appropriate crate training includes
acclimating the dogs very slowly to the crate
delivering punishment within a few seconds after a behavior events refers to of punishment
which of the following represents an exapmle of appropriate remote training
handheld noisemakers
during a visit, a pet might be placed on a scale, given a tidbit, and subjected to brief handling procedures to help it feel comfortable in the clinic environment and make its next visit a more pleasant experience
a behavior is one an animal performs, or stops performing, after learning to associate it with a specific consequence
the appropriate response if a dog jumps up on you is to
turn away and move out of its reach
habituating a cat to a carrier
involves having the open carrier always available somewhere in the house
a househould bringing home a brand new cat should
confine it to one room for several days
when introducing a new cat into a household that already has a pet or pets
have it sleep on a towel that has been rubbed on the face and tail of one of the other animals
which of the following is not a part of the five step positive proaction plan
avoid negative punishment to discourage inappropriate behavoir
the impetus for animal's behavior is most likely based on
whether or not a previous action made the animal feel good or bad
contingency refers to
the predictability of an association
classical conditioning is the same thing as
pavlovain conditioning
counterconditioning involves
substituting an alternative emotional response or behavior that is incompatible with the problem behavior or emotional response you are trying to eliminate
a horse's eyes
have two blind spots, one directly behind the animal and one directly below the nose
an alarmed horse will
lower its ears, with the aural canal opening directed outward
the most common vocalization between mares and foals who are separated is the
a horse that extends its head, rotates its ears to the side, and everts its upper lip is displaying
the flehmen response
stroking the has been shown to reduce the heart rate in a horse
conspecific describes members of
the same species
compared with sheep, goats are
more overt in showing aggressive behavior in order to establish a hierarchy
a cow that stands sideways with its head held low and perpendicular to the ground and with its feet drawn well under its body is
threatening aggression
hosuing a social animal singly or frequently moving them to new places
can become a predispoding factor to a variety of behavior problems for the domestic horse
a good reason for using psychotropic medications in animals is to
prevent suffering from severe anxiety or phobias
in dogs, the socialization period
comes after the transition period
which of the following is true about a dog's normal social behavoir
dogs' roles as dominant or subordinate may change between individuals, depending on what is happening
a cat who appears to like being petted but then suddenly turns and snaps at the person petting it is displaying
irritable aggression that is thought to be normal
according to multiple studies, the leading cause of death for pets in the united states likely is
behavior problems
a veterinary technician has the responsibility to support a pet's health by doing which of the following
all of the above
a good rule to follow when restraining animals for veterinary care is
apply the minimum effective amount of restraint that will keep the animal and personnel safe
will pin their ears back when upset or aggressive, while the will prick its ears forward
horse, llama, cat and dog
concerning the punishment of dog by hanging it or shaking it by the scruff of the neck, which statement is most accurate
this method of punishment should never be used because of the risk of injury to the dog
an otherwise docile female animal is most likely to become aggresive toward her human handler when the handler
appears to be a threat to her suckling young
which type of aggression rarely poses a risk to veterinary hospital personnel during their workday
predatory aggression
the most commonly encountered type of attack in veterinary facilities is
canine fear biting
the most dangerous animal of all the species that veterinary personnel are asked to restrain is the
dairy breed bull
a duck hunter brings duke, his intact, adult, male, 100lb labrador retriever, in for a heartworm test. he has trained and worked closely with duke since the dog was 6 weeks old. you take the otherwise docile dog back to the treatment room, where he suddenly begins to growl, glare, and resist restraint. he will not allow you to place a muzzle. what action will most likely result in the most rapid, safe, and successful sample collection
bring the hunter into the treatment room; duke will probably calm down in the presence of his owner and trainer
horse display aggression by
a fight between two large pigs is usually handled by
placing a solid pannel of plywood between them
the best way to approach a horse is
slowly and from the front and left side
you are standing alongside the withers of a stalled horse attempting to place a rope around its neck. the best action to take if the horse moves away from you is to
attempt to stay with the horse by moving along side and holding onto the mane
a foal is best restrained by
placing one arm under the foal's neck and one hand grasping the base of the tail
the position of a chaing lead attached to halter that will control most horses without being to sever is
over the nose
concerning tying a horse, which statement is most accurate
tie a horse to an object at it should level or higher
which method is acceptable for the restraint of a haltered horse that will not stand still for a minor procedure or examination
grabbing the skin of the neck just cranial to the should and rolling it around the clenched fist
when a lifted foreleg is used as a means of equine restraint, the person holding the leg should
rotate and face forward with both hands supporting the foreleg
the first thing that should be done after leading a horse into a stocks is
close and latch the rear gate
before performing an obstetric procedure, the clinician wraps a mare's tail up in gauze, ties a quick release knot just below the fleshy portion, and runs off to answer her cellular phone. she calls to you to tie the tail up out of the way while she's gone. you should
tie the free end of gauze around the neck of the horse
which statement regarding chemical restraint of the equine is true
a new anesthetized colt should be slapped before beginning castration to ensure he won't be aroused by the initial incision
whih technique can be used to move cattle down an alleyway
is often found at the end of a series of pens and alleyways and is the final capture and restraining device for cattle
chute or head catch
generally, the greatest danger to a handler working in close proximity to a tied cow's head is
getting hit in the face when the animal throws its head
a cow restrained by a halter tied to a fence becomes fidgety during an ear examination. the clinician asks you to jack her tail, meaning
grasp one thrid of the way down the tail and push it straight up and forwaryd until it is vertical
which species, when made very nervous or excited, is most prone to panicking and injuring itself as it attempts to escape an enclosure
the most prudent way to capture a mohair goat is
with a shepherd's hook
are essential for the safety of veterinary personnel restraining pigs
ear plugs
the first step to take when attempting to handle a larger, aggressive dog is
catch the dog by the neck using a snare or a lead rope with a slip knot
which species can usually be restrained for minor procedures by one handler setting it up on its rump
if a dog is too large for you to lift onto the examination table by yourself, you should
get help so two of you can lift him
you are restraining a basenji dog for cephalic venipuncture. when the person performing the injection has placed the needle and is ready to inject the drug, he says to you, okay. he is most likely asking you
lift the thumb that is occluding the vein
which statement about muzzling dogs is true
some dogs' mouths can be restrained manually with the handler's hands
one of the most effective ways to capture and restrain an agitated cat is
grasp the scruff of the neck
above all else, the handling of exotic species must be performed
efficiently and confidently
which species is most likely to seek out a hiding place if it escapres its enclosure
which statement about bird capture and restraint is true
pressure with the hand or fingers on the breast of a passerine (songbird) can cause suffocation
which statement concerning rabbit restraint is most accurate
a rabbit being carried with its hind legs unrestrained can kick out with enough force to permanently damage its spinal cord
a twich is
a nerve stimulating restraint device often applied to the upper lip of horses
concerning the veterinary technician's role in the history taking process of patient, which statement ismost accurate
even the best veterinarian may be unable to solve the problems of a particular patient without an accurate and complete history
the signalment of the animal includes which of the following
the client is usually most concerned with the chief complaint, which is
the reason the client brought the animal in for evaluation
the section of a patient's history that addresses the severity, duration, frequency, progression, trigger situations, time of the day, and character of the problem is the
history of the present illness
a question about whether a dog is on heartworm preventive medication is part of the dog's
medication history
one of the goals of the history and physical examination is to allow the clinician to formulate a list of differential diagnoses, which are
a list of possible diagnoses based on the history and clinical signs observed that the clinician will attempt to rule in or out using specific diagnostic tests
a complete system review requires that the following be asked
one or two questions about each body system
system is the most technically difficult and time consuming to examine completely; therefore, a complete examination of this system is usually reserved for the patient with a known or suspected disease of this system
central nervous
once a new patient is placed in an examination room, the first aspect of his or her visit usually involves the veterinary technician or veterinarian
obtaining a complete medical history and performing a physical examination
concerning a complete physical examination, which statement is most accurate
measurement of the vital signs is an important part of the complete physical examination
which body part or parameter is included in a complete integumentary examination
interdigital areas
observation of the nose for nasal discharge often begins the examination of which body system
difficulty breathing due to stenotic (constricted) nares is most commonly seen in which kinds of dogs
while examining an adult horse, you discover a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
this is a normal respiratory rate
the heart rates of small breed dogs are generally than those of large breed dogs
the normal feline heart rate ranges from
140 to 220 beats/min
a normal capillary refill time (CRT) is
1 to 2 seconds
mucous membranes are normally in color and are often observed
pink; on the gingivae over the upper canine tooth
in dogs and cats, the ulse rate is most often evaluated over the
femoral artery
which of the following terms or phrases correctly describes the location of a heart murmur
the term grade refers to the of a heart murmur
during digital rectal palpation of an intact male dog, normal prostate gland can be palpated as
firm, bilobed, and not painful
the urinary bladder can usually be palpated in which part of the abdomen
which parameters are used to assess the brain during a nervous system examination
cranial nervers and mental status
a firm but gentle tap on an appropriate tendon and observation of the degree of contraction of the corresponding muscle is used in the measurement of
spinal reflexes
if the patellar tendon is tapped an no quadriceps muscle contraction occurs, a lesion is most likely present in the
spinal cord
the normal response to a firm toe pinch is
some acknowledgement of pain in addition to withdrawal of the leg
a normal ocular examination generally includes
a white sclera
a comedone is a