Introduction To Veterinary Technology

Front 1

what does the acronym AVMA stand for

Back 1

American veterinary medical association

Front 2

who is considered the father of veterinary technology

Back 2

Walter collins

Front 3

who is NAVTA

Back 3

national organization for vet techs

Front 4

the CVMA is an accrediting body for veterinary technician programs in which country

Back 4

canada

Front 5

who is responsible for accreditation of vet tech programs in the United states

Back 5

AVMA

Front 6

what are the three things a vet tech cannot do in the veterinary hospital

Back 6

diagnose disease, prescribe medicine, and perform surgical procedures

Front 7

according to the U.S. bureau of labor statistics, the options for the veterinary technician in the work force are

Back 7

increasing

Front 8

the ultimate responsibility for all activities in the veterinary hospital belongs to the

Back 8

veterinarian

Front 9

what is the name of the national board examination given to vet techs

Back 9

veterinary technician national exam

Front 10

NCVEI established a website for veterinary technician employers to

Back 10

Guide the management in the use of vet techs

Front 11

is the committee of the AVMA that accredits veterinary technician programs

Back 11

CVTEA

Front 12

is the committee of the CVMA that accredits veterinary technician programs

Back 12

AHT/ VT PAC

Front 13

the CVTEA has essential criteria for accreditation

Back 13

11

Front 14

why are essential tasks required for accredited programs

Back 14

to ensure a cohesive educational experience

Front 15

the national examination for vet techs is developed by the and

Back 15

PES; AAVBS

Front 16

the national examination consists of questions with hours for completion

Back 16

200; 4

Front 17

veterinary technician can perform which of the following

Back 17

surgical assisting

Front 18

it is important for the veterinary technician to be cross trained, that means

Back 18

learning all aspects of the hospital

Front 19

graduate veterinary technician are skilled in radiology. this does not include

Back 19

calibrating the machine

Front 20

which is not a type of protective equipment for radiology

Back 20

barium sulfate

Front 21

the treatment room is typically not used for

Back 21

laboratory testing

Front 22

the vet tech is responsible for performing which two primary task during dentistry

Back 22

monitoring anesthesia, cleaning and polishing teeth

Front 23

the operating room technician can also be called the

Back 23

circulating nurse

Front 24

one of the most important duties for the vet tech in surgery is

Back 24

administering anesthesia

Front 25

the vet tech is responsible for and the level of patient pain

Back 25

monitoring; assessing

Front 26

an effective veterinary hospital depends on

Back 26

dedication of the support staff and professionals

Front 27

the acronym for ECFVG means

Back 27

educational commission of forfeit veterinary graduates

Front 28

the order for establishing a vet tech specialty group is

Back 28

shared interest, establishment of an association, petition, and examination

Front 29

the acronym for veterinary technician specialty group is

Back 29

VTS

Front 30

a vet tech who holds a bachelor of science degree from a 4 year, AVMA accredited college is considered a

Back 30

veterinary technologist

Front 31

in canada, the veterinary technologist a veterinary technician in the United states

Back 31

is equivalent to

Front 32

most vet assistants are

Back 32

trained on the job

Front 33

in europe, vet techs are called

Back 33

veterinary nurses

Front 34

ATLAS and CALAS are organizations which certify

Back 34

lab animal technicians

Front 35

the professional manner of a vet tech is initially based on

Back 35

appearance

Front 36

uniforms must be

Back 36

cleaned, pressed, and fit well

Front 37

it is essential to have a for a patient assessment

Back 37

watch with a second hand

Front 38

which statement is true

Back 38

confidentiality about clients and co-workers must be maintained at all times

Front 39

one trait for positive personal relations is tact, it means

Back 39

doing and saying the right thing at the right time

Front 40

what is a common form of written communication today

Back 40

e-mail

Front 41

any form of correct written communication should have

Back 41

a salutation, correct grammar, closing statement, and signature

Front 42

which item is not an indication of a professional letter

Back 42

lined copy paper

Front 43

the letter that accompanies a resume is most commonly known as a

Back 43

cover letter

Front 44

which closing is not acceptable for the letter that accompanies the resume

Back 44

sincerely yours

Front 45

it is important to dress in for a initial job interview

Back 45

dress clothes

Front 46

the best way to be less nervous during an interview is to

Back 46

practice interviewing skills

Front 47

the three phases of general adaptation syndrome are

Back 47

alarm reaction, autonomic phase, and phase of exhaustion

Front 48

common psychological response to stress are

Back 48

anxiety, depression, and anger

Front 49

which personality type suffers most from "hurry sickness"

Back 49

type A

Front 50

change in behavior, missing prescription or medicines, poor judgment, unexplained absences are most common signs of

Back 50

substance abuse

Front 51

which occupation is not governed by the states

Back 51

USDA inspector

Front 52

the judgement of the has the most impact on what a veterinary technician can and cannot do on the job in states where there are no laws to guide the professional actions of veterinary technician

Back 52

supervising veterinarian

Front 53

the laws that govern the practice of veterinary medicine and the legal roles of veterinary technicians are outlined in the document called the

Back 53

practice act

Front 54

the administrative body that regulates the practice of veterinary medicine and technology is presided over at which level of government

Back 54

state

Front 55

a veterinary technician who is the subject of a formal complaint of unethical conduct in a state that licenses technicians will be investigated by which agency

Back 55

state boards of veterinary medicine

Front 56

specialty boards of veterinary technician are associated with

Back 56

NAVTA

Front 57

NAVTA recognizes veterinary technician specialists in which genre

Back 57

all of the above

Front 58

which is not a full-scale academy of veterinary technology

Back 58

AAEVT

Front 59

VTS stands for

Back 59

veterinary technician specialist

Front 60

a veterinary technologist holds which college degree

Back 60

bachelor's

Front 61

the most common technician nomenclature does not include

Back 61

approved

Front 62

the person most often responsible for the injurious actions for a veterinary technician is the

Back 62

supervising veterinarian

Front 63

most states require which qualifications for entry into the practice of veterinary technology

Back 63

national boards and graduation from an AVMA accredited program

Front 64

which citation does not need to be reported on an application for licensure as a vet tech

Back 64

speeding

Front 65

which is not a crime of moral turpitude

Back 65

driving under the influence of alcohol

Front 66

which is not a crime of depravity

Back 66

embezzlement

Front 67

the difference between laws and regulations is

Back 67

laws are enacted; regulations are promulgated

Front 68

describe/prohibit specific required conduct and mandate general conduct

Back 68

regulations, laws

Front 69

information not commonly required on an application for vet tech licensure includes

Back 69

VTNE passing grade

Front 70

is required for professional licensure renewal by most states

Back 70

continuing education

Front 71

RACE is an acronym for which association

Back 71

registry of continuing education

Front 72

AAVSB is an acronym for which association

Back 72

American association of veterinary state boards

Front 73

common disciplinary sanctions for veterinary technician does not include

Back 73

prison terms

Front 74

a notice of disciplinary action is not delivered by

Back 74

local police department

Front 75

the licensee to be represented by an attorney at a disciplinary hearing

Back 75

is not required

Front 76

disciplinary hearing are

Back 76

public records

Front 77

the most severe sanction the board can give is

Back 77

revocation

Front 78

permanently prohibits the sanctioned individual from practicing the profession

Back 78

revocation

Front 79

sanctioned limits on the practice of a veterinary technician called

Back 79

probation

Front 80

public censure of a licensee without attendant suspension or probation is

Back 80

reprimand

Front 81

technical violations do not include

Back 81

completion of continuing education

Front 82

is the telling of information that is not accurate

Back 82

misrepresentation

Front 83

the practice of veterinary medicine by an unlicensed individual will result in

Back 83

sanctions and or imprisonment

Front 84

malpractice or professional negligence by a veterinary practitioner is best defined by which description

Back 84

failure to provide care equivalent to that provided by individuals under similar circumstances

Front 85

in most states, veterinary technician can

Back 85

administer anesthesia

Front 86

a technician know the task he/she can perform under the state's licensing laws

Back 86

must

Front 87

conduct refers to conduct that disparages the profession in the eyes of the public

Back 87

unprofessional

Front 88

the usually remedy in a tort action is

Back 88

monetary compensation

Front 89

the usual remedy for malpractice is

Back 89

disciplinary sanctions

Front 90

refers to conduct that increases the risk that negligence will occur

Back 90

incompetence

Front 91

is defined as "concerning good and bad, right and wrong, with moral duty and obligations"

Back 91

ethics

Front 92

the overriding purpose of the veterinary board and practice act is

Back 92

protecting the public

Front 93

veterinary technicians should consider the NAVTA guidelines set forth by the

Back 93

code of ethics

Front 94

if the technician is unsure of the practice act and regulations, he/she should

Back 94

write the veterinary state board

Front 95

why are ethics issues difficult to address

Back 95

recommendations by the veterinary staff may not be followed by the client

Front 96

is best defined as the actions necessary to relieve pain or suffering necessary to sustain life

Back 96

emergency

Front 97

is defined as "a licensed veterinarian is within direct eye sight and hearing range"

Back 97

immediate supervision

Front 98

is defined as "a licensed veterinarian is not on the premises, but maintains constant communication"

Back 98

indirect supervision

Front 99

according to the textbook, which state veterinary boards do not license or register technicians

Back 99

Hawaii, utah, and florida

Front 100

the design of a veterinary facility will vary depending on

Back 100

needs of clients and species served

Front 101

a mixed practice means

Back 101

all species

Front 102

general practitioner means

Back 102

offering primary care level services

Front 103

has extensive standards of excellence for the management of veterinary hospitals

Back 103

AAHA

Front 104

one primary factor in attracting new clients is

Back 104

location

Front 105

parking for employees should be the building

Back 105

behind

Front 106

deliveries of veterinary supplies should be made

Back 106

away from client contact

Front 107

which is not specific division of activity within the hospital

Back 107

admissions

Front 108

is composed of reception, examination rooms, labs, pharmacy, and rest rooms

Back 108

outpatient

Front 109

the reception area should be considered the by employees

Back 109

the clients greeting room

Front 110

which will not create positive feelings for clients

Back 110

bright colors

Front 111

as a rule, examination rooms should be available for each veterinarian

Back 111

two

Front 112

OSHA stands for

Back 112

occupational safety and health administration

Front 113

is composed of the treatment area, patient ward, isolation area, exercise area, and necropsy area

Back 113

inpatient

Front 114

the highest priority for hospital staff is

Back 114

animal security

Front 115

a refrigerator in the wards room with biologic specimens cannot store

Back 115

human food or drink

Front 116

in the large animal hospital, cannot be fed to animals because of toxicity

Back 116

moldy hay

Front 117

patient discharged should not be

Back 117

dirty and wet

Front 118

clipping and scrubbing of a surgical patient should be done entering the surgical suite

Back 118

before

Front 119

the operating room should have entrances

Back 119

one

Front 120

intense cleaning of the surgical suite should be done once a

Back 120

day

Front 121

which piece of equipment is not necessary for radiology

Back 121

lead - lined boots

Front 122

area contains the professional offices, library, employee lounge, and storage

Back 122

support

Front 123

what percentage of veterinary practices is equine related

Back 123

4%

Front 124

some large - animal veterinary hospitals have animals brought to the practice. this is called

Back 124

haul - in facility

Front 125

in a mixed practice of large and small animals, treatment areas are typically

Back 125

separate

Front 126

clients often initially evaluate the level of patient care by the

Back 126

appearance of the building and grounds

Front 127

an old saying for new graduate's is % cleanup and %medical practice

Back 127

90/10

Front 128

duties of the including hiring, inventory, finances and office protocols

Back 128

practice manager

Front 129

ward staff needs which training to complete their duties

Back 129

on-the-job training

Front 130

is also called the client relations specialist

Back 130

receptionist

Front 131

regardless the hospital setting, all personnel should have

Back 131

job description

Front 132

which is not recommendation for hiring a new employee after the initial interview

Back 132

material status

Front 133

which question is unlawful to ask during a job interview

Back 133

national origin

Front 134

an initial interview should be limited to

Back 134

30 minutes

Front 135

the most difficult task of inventory control is

Back 135

over or under stocking

Front 136

inventory is the largest expense of a veterinary hospital

Back 136

second

Front 137

controlled drugs are regulated by the

Back 137

DEA

Front 138

the most important person in nay practice is

Back 138

the client

Front 139

general office procedure knowledge is required by

Back 139

all staff

Front 140

veterinary practices should set fees according to

Back 140

cost and delivery of services

Front 141

the overhead, indirect costs of the veterinary practice do not include

Back 141

expendables

Front 142

fees are divided into which two categories

Back 142

shopped and non shopped

Front 143

which fee is the most competitive

Back 143

shopped

Front 144

the best payment form for hospitals is

Back 144

cash

Front 145

collection of % of the initial payment of estimated expenses based on the treatment plan is

Back 145

50

Front 146

a fee slip should have how many serial numbered copies attached

Back 146

3

Front 147

fee slips can reduce or eliminate

Back 147

embezzlement

Front 148

for a good client communication, the telephone should be answered by the ring

Back 148

third

Front 149

about % of all communication is verbal and % is body language

Back 149

40/60

Front 150

in instances when a client appears unreasonable, indicate that they should speak with the

Back 150

veterinarian

Front 151

the best response to a difficult client who appears to be under the influence of drugs or alcohol is

Back 151

call the law enforcement

Front 152

only a small portion of marketing is

Back 152

advertising

Front 153

in regards to marketing, the most important question the veterinarian can ask is

Back 153

"what business am I in"

Front 154

marketing can be divided into which categories

Back 154

internal and external

Front 155

a successful campaign for marketing and an expectation of client's is

Back 155

annual reminder cards

Front 156

a personal marketing approach that has a positive effect on client perception is

Back 156

sympathy and thank you cards

Front 157

which is the least effective form of communicating veterinary practice services

Back 157

telephone soliciting

Front 158

the veterinary technician must choose a practice in which the veterinarian delegates

Back 158

billable technical hours

Front 159

"how to market yourself" is an excellent resource for technicians provided by whom

Back 159

IAMS

Front 160

medical records have and purpose

Back 160

primary and secondary

Front 161

legal issues, research, and medical business information are all medical purposes

Back 161

secondary

Front 162

prevents confusion of patient and client identities

Back 162

medical records

Front 163

diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment are all medical purposes

Back 163

primary

Front 164

which is not a purpose of medical records

Back 164

assess client physical abilities

Front 165

according to the law, information in medical records is viewed as

Back 165

not recorded, not done

Front 166

to maintain confidentiality, is removed from records before they are used for teaching

Back 166

patient markers

Front 167

currently, veterinary hospital information is more efficiently managed as a result of the use of

Back 167

computers

Front 168

a majority of veterinary practices use which popular letter - sized folders for medical records

Back 168

8 × 10

Front 169

the popular - size folders have tabs where

Back 169

edge of one end of the folder

Front 170

letter - size folders are typically stored

Back 170

vertically

Front 171

a card file system typically uses which size cards

Back 171

5×8

Front 172

card files are typically stored where

Back 172

file drawers

Front 173

patient information recorded on the card file typically entered in order

Back 173

reverse chronological

Front 174

AAHA requires which size folders for accreditation

Back 174

8×10

Front 175

farm animals veterinarians typically use for records as they travel from farm to farm

Back 175

carbonized invoice sheets

Front 176

farm animal veterinarians keep immunization records on large number of animals

Back 176

combined herd

Front 177

SOMR is an acronym for

Back 177

source - oriented medical record

Front 178

POMR is an acronym for

Back 178

problem - oriented medical record

Front 179

in a SOMR, the information is added how

Back 179

chronologically

Front 180

entries in the SOMR are made in which integrates information as it comes to mind

Back 180

free form

Front 181

the major drawback of SOMR documentation is

Back 181

lacks details

Front 182

POVMR fosters communication and retrieval of information

Back 182

excellent and rapid

Front 183

is the term used for patient information recorded in a patient record

Back 183

signalment

Front 184

patient previous history does not include

Back 184

current medications

Front 185

WNL is an acronym for

Back 185

within normal limits

Front 186

in the POVMR, the patient information, physical examination, and diagnostic test are collectively known as

Back 186

database

Front 187

serves as a snapshot overview of the patient's medical history

Back 187

master problem list

Front 188

helps the clinician to list clinical signs as they become apparent without offering a specific diagnosis

Back 188

working problem list

Front 189

ongoing management of the veterinary patient is documented in notes

Back 189

progress

Front 190

the S and O in SOAP refers to

Back 190

subjective and objective

Front 191

the A and P in SOAP refers to

Back 191

assessment and plan

Front 192

in private practice, the technician often completes which part of the SOAP process

Back 192

S and O

Front 193

the physiologic, measurable data is referred to as the in the SOAP process

Back 193

O

Front 194

in the medical records, are imperative as handwriting alone may not be adequate in a court of law in identifying the author

Back 194

initials

Front 195

which is the compilation of the lab data collected from an animal

Back 195

diagnostic flow sheet

Front 196

the completed authorization form that provides the veterinary practice with legal evidence that the owner was informed of important information and agreed to purse that action is

Back 196

doctrine of informed consent

Front 197

the forms from authorization for surgery, necropsy, and euthanasia are called

Back 197

consent

Front 198

which is not a log typically kept in a veterinary office

Back 198

cleaning and office supplies

Front 199

which log is helpful for technicians who wish to improve exposure techniques

Back 199

radiology

Front 200

which controlled drug category is the most addictive

Back 200

schedule I

Front 201

the controlled drug log must have pages that

Back 201

cannot be easily removed

Front 202

all controlled drug logs must be kept for a minimum of years

Back 202

2

Front 203

there are two types of folder systems, they are

Back 203

alphabetical and numerical

Front 204

the general medical records are typically owned by the

Back 204

veterinary hospital owner

Front 205

data in a medical record must not be

Back 205

erased or scratched out

Front 206

VMDB is an acronym for

Back 206

veterinary medical database

Front 207

by law, controlled drugs must be inventoried how often

Back 207

every two years

Front 208

for which procedure is a consent form needed

Back 208

euthanasia

Front 209

ethically, information in a patient chart is

Back 209

confidential

Front 210

OSHA is an acronym for

Back 210

occupational safety and health administration

Front 211

OSHA enforces which laws that ensures worker's safety

Back 211

federal

Front 212

if a safety complaint is not adequately addressed, the proper procedure is to

Back 212

contact the regional OSHA office

Front 213

if the practice employs more than employees, you have the right to review OSHA form 3A

Back 213

10

Front 214

employees must comply with OSHA standards and rules and regulations under the

Back 214

occupational safety and health act

Front 215

in the event of an OSHA inspector, the has the right to be present

Back 215

owner of the practice

Front 216

the practice should have a collection of written safety policies called the

Back 216

hospital safety manual

Front 217

for safety, two people are required to lift patients weighing more than lbs.

Back 217

40

Front 218

the rules for preventing injury when lifting is

Back 218

keep your back straight and lift with your legs

Front 219

refigerated food, drinks, and snacks for human consumption are stored the vaccines

Back 219

away from

Front 220

when working with equipment with moving parts, which is most dangerous

Back 220

loose clothing and jewerly

Front 221

which is not a hazard in the veterinary office

Back 221

curling irons

Front 222

when storing flammable materials, place them no closer than to an ignition source

Back 222

3 feet

Front 223

emergency exits should be

Back 223

unlocked and unobstructed

Front 224

in the event of a fire, which is not the technician's responsibility

Back 224

rescue all patients from the building

Front 225

this law requires that staff be informed of all chemical exposures in the practice; this is known as the

Back 225

right to know

Front 226

bottles must be labeled and identified with OSHA labels

Back 226

secondary

Front 227

the manufacturer of a product that contains hazardous chemicals will send an MSDS for the product to the hospital. what does MSDS stand for

Back 227

material safety data sheet

Front 228

the MSDS will not contain information for the product

Back 228

cost

Front 229

ethylene oxide (EtO) is commonly used for

Back 229

sterilizing rubber products

Front 230

formalin is most commonly used for in the veterinary hospital

Back 230

tissue biopsy

Front 231

cold sterilization uses which potent chemical

Back 231

glutaraldehyde

Front 232

the most common types of injury to veterinary technicians are

Back 232

animal related

Front 233

if working in noisy areas of the hospital for any length of time, is required

Back 233

ear plugs or muffs

Front 234

when bathing an animal, which piece of equipment is least important to wear

Back 234

sneakers

Front 235

disease that can be transmitted from animal to human are called

Back 235

zoonotic

Front 236

rabies is an disease

Back 236

viral

Front 237

rabies is not typically found in which species

Back 237

rats

Front 238

which listed pathogen does not cause bacterial infection

Back 238

microsporum

Front 239

which disease is characterized by joint pain, fever, and flulike symptoms in humans after the bite of a deer tick

Back 239

lyme

Front 240

which two species are most susceptible to microsporum

Back 240

cats an horses

Front 241

which parasite appears as subcutaneous red lines in regions where the parasite larva has burrowed

Back 241

hookworms

Front 242

which parasite typically occurs in regions where ther is tight clothing

Back 242

mites

Front 243

cat litter pans and gardening are source for which potozoan

Back 243

toxoplasma

Front 244

what nonzoonotic entity is most likely to cause pinkeye or conjunctivitis in technicians

Back 244

chylamydia

Front 245

animal dental procedures can aerosolize which common pathogen that is linked to cardiac and pulmonary problems in humans

Back 245

pasterurella

Front 246

skin changes, cell damage, and gastrointestinal disorders have been linked to exposure to radiation

Back 246

long term

Front 247

the technician must be careful not to allow any part of the body to enter the xray beam as it can cause a high dose of radiation

Back 247

primary

Front 248

portable xray machines generally require exposure times to produce images

Back 248

longer

Front 249

the radiation dosimeter badge is worn on the of the for maximum measurement

Back 249

outside, collar of the lead lined apron

Front 250

radiographic processing chemicals caustic to tissue

Back 250

are

Front 251

liquid drain cleaners and developing chemicals can cause reactions

Back 251

exothermic

Front 252

anesthetic agents that are not metabolized by the patient are called

Back 252

waste anesthetic gases

Front 253

carbon dioxide absorbent is used in

Back 253

anesthesia machine

Front 254

compressed gas must be in a postion

Back 254

chained and upright

Front 255

which is not a recommended disposal of needles and syringes

Back 255

discard in regular trash containers

Front 256

cancer patients are treated with CDs. define CDs

Back 256

cytotoxic drugs

Front 257

when disposing of a syringe and needle, remove the needle first and destroy by cutting the syringe

Back 257

never, never

Front 258

an owner tells you that he can tell his dog penny knows she's done a bad thing because the dog looks so guilty when her owner discovers she's made a mess. penny's guilty behavior is really

Back 258

submissive behavior

Front 259

shutting a particular door is way to minimize inappropriate behavior by

Back 259

managing the pet's environment

Front 260

accusing a pet of being vindictive, spiteful, jealous, or rebellious is considered a explanation for unrealistic expectations

Back 260

anthropomorphic

Front 261

the process by which an animal develops appropriate social behaviors toward members of its own and other species is called

Back 261

socialization

Front 262

owners should use negatice punishment when their

Back 262

dog will not release a toy for the owner to throw

Front 263

to prevent or minimize inappropriate behavior by a pet, the owners must

Back 263

use crate training with the puppy

Front 264

appropriate crate training includes

Back 264

acclimating the dogs very slowly to the crate

Front 265

delivering punishment within a few seconds after a behavior events refers to of punishment

Back 265

immediacy

Front 266

which of the following represents an exapmle of appropriate remote training

Back 266

handheld noisemakers

Front 267

during a visit, a pet might be placed on a scale, given a tidbit, and subjected to brief handling procedures to help it feel comfortable in the clinic environment and make its next visit a more pleasant experience

Back 267

initial

Front 268

a behavior is one an animal performs, or stops performing, after learning to associate it with a specific consequence

Back 268

operant

Front 269

the appropriate response if a dog jumps up on you is to

Back 269

turn away and move out of its reach

Front 270

habituating a cat to a carrier

Back 270

involves having the open carrier always available somewhere in the house

Front 271

a househould bringing home a brand new cat should

Back 271

confine it to one room for several days

Front 272

when introducing a new cat into a household that already has a pet or pets

Back 272

have it sleep on a towel that has been rubbed on the face and tail of one of the other animals

Front 273

which of the following is not a part of the five step positive proaction plan

Back 273

avoid negative punishment to discourage inappropriate behavoir

Front 274

the impetus for animal's behavior is most likely based on

Back 274

whether or not a previous action made the animal feel good or bad

Front 275

contingency refers to

Back 275

the predictability of an association

Front 276

classical conditioning is the same thing as

Back 276

pavlovain conditioning

Front 277

counterconditioning involves

Back 277

substituting an alternative emotional response or behavior that is incompatible with the problem behavior or emotional response you are trying to eliminate

Front 278

a horse's eyes

Back 278

have two blind spots, one directly behind the animal and one directly below the nose

Front 279

an alarmed horse will

Back 279

lower its ears, with the aural canal opening directed outward

Front 280

the most common vocalization between mares and foals who are separated is the

Back 280

whinny

Front 281

a horse that extends its head, rotates its ears to the side, and everts its upper lip is displaying

Back 281

the flehmen response

Front 282

stroking the has been shown to reduce the heart rate in a horse

Back 282

withers

Front 283

conspecific describes members of

Back 283

the same species

Front 284

compared with sheep, goats are

Back 284

more overt in showing aggressive behavior in order to establish a hierarchy

Front 285

a cow that stands sideways with its head held low and perpendicular to the ground and with its feet drawn well under its body is

Back 285

threatening aggression

Front 286

hosuing a social animal singly or frequently moving them to new places

Back 286

can become a predispoding factor to a variety of behavior problems for the domestic horse

Front 287

a good reason for using psychotropic medications in animals is to

Back 287

prevent suffering from severe anxiety or phobias

Front 288

in dogs, the socialization period

Back 288

comes after the transition period

Front 289

which of the following is true about a dog's normal social behavoir

Back 289

dogs' roles as dominant or subordinate may change between individuals, depending on what is happening

Front 290

a cat who appears to like being petted but then suddenly turns and snaps at the person petting it is displaying

Back 290

irritable aggression that is thought to be normal

Front 291

according to multiple studies, the leading cause of death for pets in the united states likely is

Back 291

behavior problems

Front 292

a veterinary technician has the responsibility to support a pet's health by doing which of the following

Back 292

all of the above

Front 293

a good rule to follow when restraining animals for veterinary care is

Back 293

apply the minimum effective amount of restraint that will keep the animal and personnel safe

Front 294

will pin their ears back when upset or aggressive, while the will prick its ears forward

Back 294

horse, llama, cat and dog

Front 295

concerning the punishment of dog by hanging it or shaking it by the scruff of the neck, which statement is most accurate

Back 295

this method of punishment should never be used because of the risk of injury to the dog

Front 296

an otherwise docile female animal is most likely to become aggresive toward her human handler when the handler

Back 296

appears to be a threat to her suckling young

Front 297

which type of aggression rarely poses a risk to veterinary hospital personnel during their workday

Back 297

predatory aggression

Front 298

the most commonly encountered type of attack in veterinary facilities is

Back 298

canine fear biting

Front 299

the most dangerous animal of all the species that veterinary personnel are asked to restrain is the

Back 299

dairy breed bull

Front 300

a duck hunter brings duke, his intact, adult, male, 100lb labrador retriever, in for a heartworm test. he has trained and worked closely with duke since the dog was 6 weeks old. you take the otherwise docile dog back to the treatment room, where he suddenly begins to growl, glare, and resist restraint. he will not allow you to place a muzzle. what action will most likely result in the most rapid, safe, and successful sample collection

Back 300

bring the hunter into the treatment room; duke will probably calm down in the presence of his owner and trainer

Front 301

horse display aggression by

Back 301

biting

Front 302

a fight between two large pigs is usually handled by

Back 302

placing a solid pannel of plywood between them

Front 303

the best way to approach a horse is

Back 303

slowly and from the front and left side

Front 304

you are standing alongside the withers of a stalled horse attempting to place a rope around its neck. the best action to take if the horse moves away from you is to

Back 304

attempt to stay with the horse by moving along side and holding onto the mane

Front 305

a foal is best restrained by

Back 305

placing one arm under the foal's neck and one hand grasping the base of the tail

Front 306

the position of a chaing lead attached to halter that will control most horses without being to sever is

Back 306

over the nose

Front 307

concerning tying a horse, which statement is most accurate

Back 307

tie a horse to an object at it should level or higher

Front 308

which method is acceptable for the restraint of a haltered horse that will not stand still for a minor procedure or examination

Back 308

grabbing the skin of the neck just cranial to the should and rolling it around the clenched fist

Front 309

when a lifted foreleg is used as a means of equine restraint, the person holding the leg should

Back 309

rotate and face forward with both hands supporting the foreleg

Front 310

the first thing that should be done after leading a horse into a stocks is

Back 310

close and latch the rear gate

Front 311

before performing an obstetric procedure, the clinician wraps a mare's tail up in gauze, ties a quick release knot just below the fleshy portion, and runs off to answer her cellular phone. she calls to you to tie the tail up out of the way while she's gone. you should

Back 311

tie the free end of gauze around the neck of the horse

Front 312

which statement regarding chemical restraint of the equine is true

Back 312

a new anesthetized colt should be slapped before beginning castration to ensure he won't be aroused by the initial incision

Front 313

whih technique can be used to move cattle down an alleyway

Back 313

tailing

Front 314

is often found at the end of a series of pens and alleyways and is the final capture and restraining device for cattle

Back 314

chute or head catch

Front 315

generally, the greatest danger to a handler working in close proximity to a tied cow's head is

Back 315

getting hit in the face when the animal throws its head

Front 316

a cow restrained by a halter tied to a fence becomes fidgety during an ear examination. the clinician asks you to jack her tail, meaning

Back 316

grasp one thrid of the way down the tail and push it straight up and forwaryd until it is vertical

Front 317

which species, when made very nervous or excited, is most prone to panicking and injuring itself as it attempts to escape an enclosure

Back 317

horse

Front 318

the most prudent way to capture a mohair goat is

Back 318

with a shepherd's hook

Front 319

are essential for the safety of veterinary personnel restraining pigs

Back 319

ear plugs

Front 320

the first step to take when attempting to handle a larger, aggressive dog is

Back 320

catch the dog by the neck using a snare or a lead rope with a slip knot

Front 321

which species can usually be restrained for minor procedures by one handler setting it up on its rump

Back 321

sheep

Front 322

if a dog is too large for you to lift onto the examination table by yourself, you should

Back 322

get help so two of you can lift him

Front 323

you are restraining a basenji dog for cephalic venipuncture. when the person performing the injection has placed the needle and is ready to inject the drug, he says to you, okay. he is most likely asking you

Back 323

lift the thumb that is occluding the vein

Front 324

which statement about muzzling dogs is true

Back 324

some dogs' mouths can be restrained manually with the handler's hands

Front 325

one of the most effective ways to capture and restrain an agitated cat is

Back 325

grasp the scruff of the neck

Front 326

above all else, the handling of exotic species must be performed

Back 326

efficiently and confidently

Front 327

which species is most likely to seek out a hiding place if it escapres its enclosure

Back 327

cat

Front 328

which statement about bird capture and restraint is true

Back 328

pressure with the hand or fingers on the breast of a passerine (songbird) can cause suffocation

Front 329

which statement concerning rabbit restraint is most accurate

Back 329

a rabbit being carried with its hind legs unrestrained can kick out with enough force to permanently damage its spinal cord

Front 330

a twich is

Back 330

a nerve stimulating restraint device often applied to the upper lip of horses

Front 331

concerning the veterinary technician's role in the history taking process of patient, which statement ismost accurate

Back 331

even the best veterinarian may be unable to solve the problems of a particular patient without an accurate and complete history

Front 332

the signalment of the animal includes which of the following

Back 332

age

Front 333

the client is usually most concerned with the chief complaint, which is

Back 333

the reason the client brought the animal in for evaluation

Front 334

the section of a patient's history that addresses the severity, duration, frequency, progression, trigger situations, time of the day, and character of the problem is the

Back 334

history of the present illness

Front 335

a question about whether a dog is on heartworm preventive medication is part of the dog's

Back 335

medication history

Front 336

one of the goals of the history and physical examination is to allow the clinician to formulate a list of differential diagnoses, which are

Back 336

a list of possible diagnoses based on the history and clinical signs observed that the clinician will attempt to rule in or out using specific diagnostic tests

Front 337

a complete system review requires that the following be asked

Back 337

one or two questions about each body system

Front 338

system is the most technically difficult and time consuming to examine completely; therefore, a complete examination of this system is usually reserved for the patient with a known or suspected disease of this system

Back 338

central nervous

Front 339

once a new patient is placed in an examination room, the first aspect of his or her visit usually involves the veterinary technician or veterinarian

Back 339

obtaining a complete medical history and performing a physical examination

Front 340

concerning a complete physical examination, which statement is most accurate

Back 340

measurement of the vital signs is an important part of the complete physical examination

Front 341

which body part or parameter is included in a complete integumentary examination

Back 341

interdigital areas

Front 342

observation of the nose for nasal discharge often begins the examination of which body system

Back 342

respiratory

Front 343

difficulty breathing due to stenotic (constricted) nares is most commonly seen in which kinds of dogs

Back 343

brachycephalic

Front 344

while examining an adult horse, you discover a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute

Back 344

this is a normal respiratory rate

Front 345

the heart rates of small breed dogs are generally than those of large breed dogs

Back 345

faster

Front 346

the normal feline heart rate ranges from

Back 346

140 to 220 beats/min

Front 347

a normal capillary refill time (CRT) is

Back 347

1 to 2 seconds

Front 348

mucous membranes are normally in color and are often observed

Back 348

pink; on the gingivae over the upper canine tooth

Front 349

in dogs and cats, the ulse rate is most often evaluated over the

Back 349

femoral artery

Front 350

which of the following terms or phrases correctly describes the location of a heart murmur

Back 350

mitral

Front 351

the term grade refers to the of a heart murmur

Back 351

loudness

Front 352

during digital rectal palpation of an intact male dog, normal prostate gland can be palpated as

Back 352

firm, bilobed, and not painful

Front 353

the urinary bladder can usually be palpated in which part of the abdomen

Back 353

caudoventral

Front 354

which parameters are used to assess the brain during a nervous system examination

Back 354

cranial nervers and mental status

Front 355

a firm but gentle tap on an appropriate tendon and observation of the degree of contraction of the corresponding muscle is used in the measurement of

Back 355

spinal reflexes

Front 356

if the patellar tendon is tapped an no quadriceps muscle contraction occurs, a lesion is most likely present in the

Back 356

spinal cord

Front 357

the normal response to a firm toe pinch is

Back 357

some acknowledgement of pain in addition to withdrawal of the leg

Front 358

a normal ocular examination generally includes

Back 358

a white sclera

Front 359

a comedone is a

Back 359

blackhead