Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
295 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
1. True or False The vaginal wall does not contain mucus-secreting glands.
|
True
|
|
|
2. True or False Estrogen is needed for the closure of long bones after the growth spurt in puberty.
|
True
|
|
|
3. True or False During the late follicular phase of the menstrual cycle, estrogen levels begin to dip and progesterone levels begin to rise.
|
True
|
|
|
4. True or False The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for arteriolar constriction necessary for penile erections.
|
False
|
|
|
5. Until the _____ week of gestation, the initial reproductive structures of the male and female appear the same.
a. Third b. Eighth c. Twentieth d. thirieth |
Eighth
|
|
|
6. Which of the following shows a correct sequence in the hormonal stimulation of the reproductive systems leading to puberty in the female?
a. Anterior pituitary, gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinizing hormone (LH) b. Hypothalamus, FSH, anterior pituitary c. Anterior pituitary, FSH, LH d. GnRH, hypothalamus, FSH, LH |
Anterior pituitary, FSH, LH
|
|
|
7. Which hormone is linked to obesity and early puberty?
a. Inhibin b. Leptin c. Activin d. Follistatin |
Leptin
|
|
|
8. The Skene glands are located on either side of the:
a. introitus. b. urinary meatus. c. clitoris. d. vestibule. |
urinary meatus
|
|
|
9. The function of Bartholin glands is to secrete mucus in order to:
a. lubricate inner labial surfaces and enhance motility of sperm. b. lubricate the urinary meatus and vestibule. c. maintain the acid-base balance to discourage proliferation of pathogenic bacteria d. lubricate the cervix and enhance movement of the penis during intercourse. |
lubricate inner labial surfaces and enhance motility of sperm.
|
|
|
10. What factors defend the vagina from infection?
a. An acid pH between 4 and 5 b. A thin squamous epithelial lining c. Douching or use of vaginal spray d. Low estrogen levels |
acidic ph 4-5
|
|
|
11. At puberty the vaginal pH:
a. Increases b. Decreases c. Stabilizes d. fluctuates |
decreases
|
|
|
12. The _____ is lined with columnar epithelial cells.
a. Perimetrium b. endocervical canal c. myometrium d. vagina |
endocervical canal
|
|
|
13. The usual site of cervical dysplasia or cancer in situ is the point at which the:
a. squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the cuboidal epithelium of the vagina. b. columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the uterus. c. squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the columnar epithelium of the uterus. d. columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina. |
columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina.
|
|
|
14. A surge of which hormone changes the ovulatory follicle into the corpus luteum?
a. FSH b. LH c. GnRH d. Progesterone |
LH
|
|
|
15. During the menstrual cycle, ovulation is directly caused by a:
a. gradual decrease in estrogen levels. b. sudden increase of LH. c. sharp rise in progesterone. d. gradual increase in estrogen levels. |
sudden increase LH
|
|
|
16. Which anatomic structure secretes FSH, LH, and GnRH?
a. Hypothalamus b. Ovaries c. Anterior pituitary d. Adrenal cortex |
anterior pituitary
|
|
|
17. During menstrual cycles in which ovulation occurs, basal body temperature (BBT):
a. increases. b. decreases. c. fluctuates around 37° C (98° F). d. rises consistently above 37.8° C (100° F). |
fluctuates around 37 degrees
|
|
|
18. _____ are a pair of glands that lie posterior to the urinary bladder in the male.
a. Seminal vesicles b. Prostate glands c. Cowper glands d. Parabladder glands |
seminal vesicles
|
|
|
19. Penile erections begin:
a. before birth. b. shortly after birth. c. shortly before puberty. d. after puberty. |
before birth
|
|
|
20. Testosterone causes all of the following except:
a. baldness. b. increased libido. c. Acne. d. Decreased cholesterol. |
decreased cholesterol
|
|
|
21. What causes the vasomotor flushes (hot flashes) that are associated with declining ovarian function with age?
a. Decreased estrogen levels b. Increased progesterone levels c. Increased estrogen levels d. rapid changes in estrogen levels |
rapid changes in estrogen levels
|
|
|
22. Which of the following is not a normal characteristic of aging of the male reproductive system?
a. Reduced sperm count b. Slower, less forceful ejaculations c. Testicular atrophy and softening d. Longer time to achieve full erection |
reduced sperm count
|
|
|
Stimulates theca cells of the ovarian follicle to produce androgens
|
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
|
|
|
Relaxes the myometrium and prevents lactation until the fetus is born
|
Progesterone
|
|
|
Induces the conversion of androgens to estrogens
|
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
|
|
|
_____Acts on the Leydig cells to regulate testosterone secretion
|
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
|
|
|
In combination with progesterone, controls the menstrual cycle
|
Estrogen
|
|
|
Serology
|
Antigen-antibody reaction
|
|
|
Biopsy
|
Tissue sampling
|
|
|
Pap smear
|
Cytologic exam
|
|
|
Culture
|
Microbe identification
|
|
|
Female fertility test
|
Hormonal assay
|
|
|
1. True or False Constitutional delay of puberty seldom requires treatment, unless the delay is causing psychosocial problems.
|
True
|
|
|
2. True or False Weight loss aggravates symptoms of polycystic ovary syndrome, whereas weight gain may ameliorate the symptoms.
|
False
|
|
|
3. True or False A low-fat, vegetarian diet helps relieve symptoms of premenstrual syndrome.
|
True
|
|
|
4. True or False The acidic nature of vaginal secretions during the reproductive years provides protection
|
True
|
|
|
5. True or False Prevention of constipation and treatment of chronic cough may help prevent uterine prolapse.
|
True
|
|
|
6. True or False In a woman with endometriosis, endometrial tissue outside the uterus (most commonly in the
|
True
|
|
|
7. True or False With early diagnosis and treatment of cervical cancer, prognosis is excellent.
|
True
|
|
|
8. True or False Taking oral contraceptives increases the risk for ovarian and endometrial cancers.
|
False
|
|
|
9. True or False The risk of testicular cancer is 35 to 50 times greater for men with cryptorchidism than for
|
True
|
|
|
10. True or False Most epithelial ovarian cancers arise from a single cell and involve the loss of tumor suppressor genes and activation of oncogenes.
|
True
|
|
|
11. In 95% of cases of delayed puberty the problem is caused by:
a. disruption in the hypothalamus. b. disruption of the pituitary. c. deficit in estrogen or testosterone. d. physiological hormonal delays. |
physiological hormonal delays
|
|
|
12. The first sign of puberty in girls is:
a. thelarche. b. growth of pubic hair. c. menstruation. d. vaginal discharge |
thelarche
|
|
|
13. The first sign of puberty in boys is:
a. thickening of the scrotal skin. b. growth of pubic hair. c. enlargement of the testes. d. change in voice. |
enlargement of the testes
|
|
|
14. Precocious puberty is defined as a child developing some secondary sex characteristics at an early age. All of the following are correct EXCEPT:
a. Precocious puberty is defined as sexual maturation before age 6 in black girls b. Precocious puberty is defined as sexual maturation before age 7 in white girls c. Precocious puberty is defined as sexual maturation before age 9 in boys d. Precocious puberty leads to extended length of time for growth of long bones resulting in tall stature. |
Precocious puberty leads to extended length of time for growth of long bones resulting in tall stature.
|
|
|
15. Dysmenorrhea is caused by the release of the chemical mediator:
a. leukotrienes. b. prostaglandins. c. bradykinin. d. C-reactive protein. |
prostaglandins
|
|
|
16. Figure 23-1 & page 820. Considering the pathophysiology of primary amenorrhea, what lab studies would be appropriate to order? (select all that apply)
a. LH b. FSH c. urinalysis d. hCG (pregnancy test) e. TSH f. Prolactin |
d. hCG (pregnancy test)
e. TSH f. Prolactin |
|
|
17. The most common cause of cycle irregularities is a result of:
a. disorders within the endometrium. b. obstruction of the fallopian tubes. c. pregnancy. d. failure to ovulate |
failure to ovulate
|
|
|
18. The clinical manifestations of a woman include the following: irregular or heavy bleeding, passage of large clots, and depletion of iron stores. This person is experiencing:
a. premenstrual syndrome. b. dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB). c. polycystic ovary syndrome. d. primary dysmenorrhea. |
DUB
|
|
|
19. DUB secondary to ovarian dysfunction is abnormal uterine bleeding resulting from:
a. endometriosis. b. progesterone deficiency or relative estrogen excess. c. sexually transmitted infections. d. congenital abnormalities in the uterine structure. |
progesterone deficiency or relative estrogen excess.
|
|
|
20. The pathogenesis of polycystic ovarian syndrome is described as:
a. a decrease in leptin levels that reduces the hypothalamic pulsatility of gonadotropin-releasing hormone, which reduces the number of follicles that mature. b. a disorder in the anterior pituitary that increases the follicle-stimulating hormone, which reduces the luteinizing hormone released. c. excessive androgens secreted by the ovaries contributing to premature follicular failure and persistent anovulation causing enlarged polycystic ovaries. d. testosterone that stimulates androgen secretion by the ovarian stroma and reduces sex hormone–binding globulin indirectly. |
excessive androgens secreted by the ovaries contributing to premature follicular failure and persistent anovulation causing enlarged polycystic ovaries.
|
|
|
21. The leading cause of infertility is:
a. pelvic inflammatory disease. b. endometriosis. c. salpingitis. d. polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). |
PCOS
|
|
|
22. Considering the mediating factors of PMS, which drug is used to treat it?
a. NSAIDs b. Estrogens c. SSRIs d. Progestins |
SSRIs
|
|
|
23. Which description of the pathogenesis of PID is false?
a. It develops when pathogenic microbes ascend from an infected cervix along the endometrial tissue to infect the uterus and adnexa. b. It develops from virally infected endometrial cells that move through the fallopian tubes and empty into the pelvic cavity. c. It spreads by way of lymphatics with parametrial dissemination of infection into the pelvis. d. It develops by the adherence of sexually transmitted bacteria to sperm that travel through the genital tract. |
It develops from virally infected endometrial cells that move through the fallopian tubes and empty into the pelvic cavity.
|
|
|
24. On assessment a nurse identifies a woman’s uterus protruding through the entrance of the vagina to the hymen. The nurse documents this finding as a Grade _____ uterine prolapse.
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 |
2
|
|
|
25. _____ is the descent of the bladder and the anterior vaginal wall into the vaginal wall.
a. Rectocele b. Vaginocele c. Cystocele d. Enterocele |
Cystocele
|
|
|
26. _______ develops when an ovarian follicle is stimulated, but no dominant follicle develops and completes the maturity process.
a. A benign ovarian cyst b. Dermoid cyst c. An endometrial polyp d. A myoma |
A benign ovarian cyst
|
|
|
27. _____ are benign uterine tumors that develop from smooth muscle cells in the myometrium and are commonly called uterine fibroids.
a. Endometrial polyps b. Myometrial polyps c. Leiomyomas d. Myometriomas |
Leuimyomas
|
|
|
28. The size of benign uterine tumors is thought to be due to the influence of which hormone?
a. Progesterone b. Estrogen c. Luteinizing hormone d. Gonadotropin-stimulating hormone |
estrogen
|
|
|
29. What is a theory of causation for endometriosis?
a. Obstruction within the fallopian tubes prevents the endometrial tissue from adhering to the lining of the uterus. b. Endometrial tissue passes through the fallopian tubes and into the peritoneal cavity and remains responsive to hormones. c. Inflammation of the endometrial tissue develops after recurrent sexually transmitted diseases. d. Endometrial tissue lies dormant in the uterus until the ovaries produce sufficient hormone to stimulate its growth. |
Endometrial tissue passes through the fallopian tubes and into the peritoneal cavity and remains responsive to hormones.
|
|
|
30. The common clinical manifestations of endometriosis include:
a. back and flank pain. b. infertility and dysmenorrhea. c. dysuria and absent menstrual flow. d. painless, vaginal bleeding between menstrual periods. |
infertility and dysmennorhea
|
|
|
31. Which virus is a necessary precursor for developing cervical intraepithelial carcinoma (CIN) and cervical cancer?
a. Human papillomavirus (HPV) b. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) c. Herpes simplex II virus (HSV) d. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) |
HPV
|
|
|
32. What description is given when all or most of the cervical epithelium shows cellular features of carcinoma, but underlying tissue is not affected?
a. Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) b. Cervical dysplasia c. Cervical carcinoma in situ d. Invasive carcinoma of the cervix |
cervical carcinoma in situ
|
|
|
33. What process occurs when columnar epithelium is replaced by squamous epithelium in the transformation zone?
a. Dysplasia b. Aplasia c. Metaplasia d. Epithelplasia |
metaplasia
|
|
|
34. Which of the following factors increases the risk for ovarian cancer after the age of 40?
a. Use of fertility drugs b. Oral contraceptive use c. Multiple pregnancies d. Prolonged lactation |
use of fertility drugs
|
|
|
35. Infertility is defined as inability to conceive after _____ months of unprotected intercourse.
a. 6 b. 12 c.18 d.24 |
12
|
|
|
36. _____ is a condition in which the foreskin cannot be retracted over the glans penis.
a. Paraphimosis b. Priapism c. Prephimosis d. Phimosis |
phimosis
|
|
|
37. _____ is a fibrotic condition that causes lateral curvature of the penis during erection, which is associated with a local vasculitis-like inflammatory reaction and decreased tissue oxygenation.
a. Phimosis b. Lateral phimosis c. Lateral paraphimosis d. Peyronie disease |
peyronie disease
|
|
|
38. _____ is inflammation of the glans penis.
a. Glanitis b. Balanitis c. Priapism d. Hydrocelitis |
balanitis
|
|
|
39. Cryptorchidism can be defined as:
a. a normal developmental state of the testes. b. an abnormal state in which there is overdevelopment of the testes. c. the lack of scrotum. d. failure of the testes to descend into the scrotal sac. |
failure of the testes to descend into scrotal sac
|
|
|
40. _____ is the most common infectious cause of orchitis and usually affects postpubertal males.
a. Herpes b. Escherichia coli c. Mumps d. Cytomegalovirus |
mumps
|
|
|
41. Which are clinical manifestations of testicular cancer?
a. Firm, nontender testicular mass b. Painful, mobile, firm testicular mass c. Painful fluid-filled testicular mass d. Soft, nontender testicular mass |
firm, notender testicular mass
|
|
|
42. All of the following are true about epididymitis EXCEPT?
a. Epididymitis is commonly caused by the sexually transmitted organisms n.gonorrhoeae or C. trachomatis. b. It is associated with urethral strictures and excessive physical strining in which increased abdominal pressure is transmitted to the bladder. c. Reflux of urine ascends the vas deferens from the bladder. d. The pathogenic microorganisms are attached to sperm that travel through the genital tract. |
The pathogenic microorganisms are attached to sperm that travel through the genital tract.
|
|
|
43. Symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia are a result of:
a. infection of the prostate. b. lack of bladder tone c. ischemia of the urethra. d. compression of the urethra. |
compression of the urethra
|
|
|
44. Which infection has clinical manifestations of sudden onset of malaise, low back pain, and perineal pain with high fever and chills, dysuria, nocturia, and urinary retention?
a. Orchitis b. Balanitis c. Epididymitis d. Bacterial prostatitis |
bacterial prostatitis
|
|
|
45. Which dietary factor is not a risk factor for prostate cancer?
a. High-fat diet b. High-protein diet c. High-fiber diet d. High-calcium diet |
high fiber diet
|
|
|
46. Which of the following is not a cause of galactorrhea?
a. Proliferation of the lactiferous ducts of the breast b. Hypothyroidism resulting from a decrease in thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH) c. Excess prolactin secretion from the anterior pituitary d. Drugs such as high-dose oral contraceptives and phenothiazines |
Proliferation of the lactiferous ducts of the breast
|
|
|
47. Which breast disorder is characterized by bilateral nodularity and breast tenderness that waxes and wanes with the menstrual cycle?
a. Paget disease b. Fibroadenoma c. Fibrocystic changes d. Lobular carcinoma in situ |
fibrocystic changes
|
|
|
48. What are typical findings on breast palpation of a client with fibroadenoma?
a. Painful, round, movable, and fluid-filled mass b. Painless, movable, hard, and irregular mass c. Painless, firm, elastic, and well-circumscribed mass d. Painful, nonmovable, irregular, and soft mass |
Painless, firm, elastic, and well-circumscribed mass
|
|
|
49. Which benign breast tumor affects 50- and 60-year-old women and is characterized by the principal lactiferous ducts becoming dilated and filled with cellular debris?
a. Mammary duct ectasia b. Intraductal papilloma c. Phyllodes tumor d. Fibroadenoma |
Mammary duct ectasia
|
|
|
50. Which cancers are associated with alterations of the BRCA1 gene?
a. Endometrial and ovarian b. Endometrial and cervical c. Cervical and breast d. Breast and ovarian |
breast and ovarian
|
|
|
51. Which of the following is usually the first clinical manifestation of breast cancer?
a. Nipple dimpling b. Nipple discharge c. Enlargement of one breast d. A painless lumps |
A painless lump
|
|
|
Painless diverticulum of the epididymis located between the head of the epididymis and the testis
|
Spermatocele
|
|
|
Collection of fluid in the tunica vaginalis
|
Hydrocele
|
|
|
Rotation of a testis, which twists blood vessels of the spermatic cord
|
Testicular torsion
|
|
|
Abnormal dilation of the vein within the spermatic cord
|
Varicocele
|
|
|
1. True or False All virally induced sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are incurable.
|
True
|
|
|
2. True or False STIs are seen in all socioeconomic classes.
|
True
|
|
|
3. True or False Ophthalmia neonatorum is caused by maternal gonorrhea infection.
|
True
|
|
|
4. True or False Syphilis has an asymptomatic stage and a stage that can exhibit destructive skin, bone and soft tissue lesions, aneurysms, heart failure, and neurosyphilis
|
True
|
|
|
5. True or False It is quite common for Treponema pallidum (cause of syphilis) to develop resistance to penicillin.
|
False
|
|
|
6. True or False Chancroid is a lesion found in individuals with syphilis.
|
False
|
|
|
7. True or False T. pallidum cannot be cultured.
|
True
|
|
|
8. True or False The most common clinical manifestations of chlamydial infections in newborns are conjunctivitis and pneumonia.
|
True
|
|
|
9. True or False Chlamydia infection is the leading cause of tubal infertility in women.
|
True
|
|
|
10. True or False Trichomoniasis is caused by a flagellated parasite.
|
True
|
|
|
11. Adolescent girls have the greatest risk for sexually transmitted exposure and infection because of all of the following EXCEPT?
a. Because they are in an experimental phase with sexual intercourse and are more likely to have higher risk partners b. They believe they are resistant to developing sexually transmitted infections c. Because of the immaturity of their cervix and lack of immunity d. Because of the proximity of the anus to the vaginal introitus |
Because of the proximity of the anus to the vaginal introitus
|
|
|
12. In females the _____ is the usual site of original gonococcal infection.
a. endocervical canal c. fallopian tube b. vagina d. labia majora |
endocervical canal
|
|
|
13. Uncomplicated local infections by gonococci in men are infections of the:
a. epididymis. b. lymph nodes. c. urethra d. prostate. |
urethra
|
|
|
14. The most common local complication of a gonococcal infection in females is:
a. acute salpingitis. c. vaginitis b. cystitis. d. cervicitis |
acute salpingitis (PID)
|
|
|
15. Which laboratory test is considered adequate for an accurate and reliable diagnosis of gonococcal urethritis in a symptomatic male?
a. Ligase chain reaction (LCR) b. Gram-stain technique c. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) d. DNA testing |
gram-stain technique
|
|
|
16. Which sexually transmitted infection frequently coexists with gonorrhea?
a. Syphilis b. Herpes simples virus c. Chlamydia d. Chancroid |
chlamydia
|
|
|
17. The organism that causes syphilis is best identified via:
a. acid-fast stain. b. Gram-stained slide. c. in vitro culture. d. darkfield microscopy |
darkfield microscopy
|
|
|
18. Figure 24-7 What blood test can be ordered to test for syphilis? (there are 2 correct answers)
a. RPR b. VDRL c. HSV titer d. Blood culture |
RPR
VDRL |
|
|
19. Which sexually transmitted infection is indicated by a patient who has small, vesicular lesions that last between 10 and 20 days?
a. Genital herpes c. syphilis b. Chancroid d chlamydia |
Genital Herpes
|
|
|
20. Which statement is false regarding the risk of transmission of the herpes simplex virus (HSV) from mother to fetus?
a. Neonatal infection of HSV rarely occurs in the intrapartum or postpartum period. b. The risk is higher in women who have a primary HSV infection. c. The risk is higher in women who experience ruptured membranes more than 6 hours before delivery. d. The risk is higher when internal fetal monitoring devices are used. |
Neonatal infection of HSV rarely occurs in the intrapartum or postpartum period.
|
|
|
21. Which of the following statements provides the most accurate information regarding the transmission of HSV?
a. HSV is transmitted only when vesicles are present. b. HSV is transmitted only while lesions are present. c. Transmission of HSV is prevented by the use of condoms. d. There is a risk of transmission even during latent periods. |
There is a risk of transmission even during latent periods.
|
|
|
22. _____ may be used for outbreak management of HSV infections.
a. Acyclovir (Zovirax) b. 5-Fluorouracil (5-FU) c. Retrovir (AZT) d. Bichloracetic acid (BCA) |
Acyclovir
|
|
|
23. Condylomata acuminata, or genital warts, are caused by:
a. chlamydia. c. human papillomavirus b. adenovirus. D. HSV-1 |
HPV
|
|
|
24. The treatment of genital warts includes:
a. Topical application of 5-FU. b. topical application of acyclovir. c. systemic penicillin. d. systemic tetracycline. |
Topical application of 5-FU.
|
|
|
25. A treatment for trichomoniasis is a single dose of metronidazole (Flagyl). A woman asks if her sexual partner should be treated also. The appropriate answer is:
a. sexual partners should be treated only if symptoms are present. b. sexual partners should be treated even if asymptomatic. c. infections in men are self-limiting; therefore, a male sexual partner does not require treatment. d. sexual partners should be treated in order to prevent infection. |
sexual partners should be treated even if asymptomatic.
|
|
|
26. Hepatitis _____ virus is known to be sexually transmitted.
a. A b. B c. C d. D |
B
|
|
|
27. Which sexually transmitted disease, primarily among homosexual men, causes clinical manifestations of sudden explosive diarrhea, distention, and flatulence with epigastric pain, vomiting, and foul, sulfuric burping?
a. Campylobacter enteritis c. Cytomegalovirus enteritis b. Shigellosis d. Giardiasis |
Giardiasis
|
|
|
1. Salivary α-amylase initiates the digestion of _____ in the mouth and stomach.
a. Proteins b. Carbohydrates c. Fats d. fiber |
Carbs
|
|
|
2. Saliva contains which immunoglobulin?
a. IgA b. IgE c. IgG d. IgM |
IgA
|
|
|
3. What is the effect of inhibiting the parasympathetic nervous system with a drug such as atropine?
a. Salivation increases. b. Salivation decreases. c. The pH of saliva changes. d. Digestive enzymes are inhibited. |
Salivation decreases
|
|
|
4. Which stimulus (i) affects the tone of the esophageal sphincter?
a. Progesterone b. Glucagon c. Motilin d. Gastrin and vagal input |
Gastrin and vagal input
|
|
|
5. Which of the following statements about upper GI anatomy is incorrect?
a. The pyloric sphincter is located between the stomach and duodenum’ b. The lower esophageal sphincter is near the fundus of the stomach c. The mucosal lining of the stomach forms folds called rugae. d. Food travels down the esophagus by gravitational force only. |
Food travels down the esophagus by gravitational force only.
|
|
|
6. Select all of the following that decrease gastric emptying
a. Large volumes of food b. Fats c. Solids d. Nonisotonic solutions |
b. Fats
c. Solids d. Nonisotonic solutions |
|
|
7. True or False The parietal cells in the stomach secrete hydrochloric acid and the Enterochromaffin-like cells secrete histamine.
|
True
|
|
|
8. True or False Histamine receptors in the gastric mucosa are histamine H2 receptors
|
True
|
|
|
9. Exposure to which substance protects the mucosal barrier of the stomach?
a. Prostaglandins b. Aspirin c. Helicobacter pylori d. Regurgitated bile |
prostaglandins
|
|
|
10. True or False The brush border is a mucosal surface consisting of micro-villi that increase the surface area for absorption.
|
True
|
|
|
salivary amylase
|
a. carbohydrate digestion and absorption
|
|
|
small intestines - pancreatic amylase
|
a. carbohydrate digestion and absorption
|
|
|
small intestine - brush border enyzmes (lactase, maltase, sucrase)
|
a. carbohydrate digestion and absorption
|
|
|
stomach - pepsin in presence of hydrochloric acid
|
b. protein digestion and absorption
|
|
|
small intestines - pancreastic enzymes (trypsin, chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase)
|
b. protein digestion and absorption
|
|
|
small intestines - brush border enzymes (aminopeptidases and dipeptidases)
|
b. protein digestion and absorption
|
|
|
small intestines - emulsifying agents (bile acids, fatty acids, monoglycerides, lecithin, cholesterol and protein
|
c. fat digestion
|
|
|
small intestines - pancreatic lipases
|
c. fat digestion
|
|
|
12. The two requirements necessary in order for calcium at concentrations less than 5 mmol/L to be absorbed through the ileum are vitamin:
a. C and a receptor site on the surface of the ileum. b. D3 and a carrier protein. c. K and pepsin. d. B12 and carboxypeptidase. |
D3 and carrier protein
|
|
|
13. True or False Absorption of calcium can be increased above 600mg if intake is increased so that the concentration in the intestinal lumen is increased to cause passive diffusion.
|
True
|
|
|
14. What substance changes ferric iron to ferrous iron which is the form more easily absorbed?
a. Vit D b. Vit C c. Calcium phosphate d. magnesium |
Vit C
|
|
|
15. All of the following about defecation are true EXCEPT:
a. If the defecation reflex is ignored, retrograde contraction of the rectum moves the feces out of the rectal vault until later. b. The defecation reflex can be over ridden voluntarily by contraction of the external anal sphincter and muscles of the pelvic floor c. During defecation , intra-abdominal pressure increases by forcing the diaphragm and chest muscles against a closed glottis. d. The rectal wall stretches and the constricted internal anal sphincter relaxes creating the urge to defecate. e. The defecation reflex is stimulated by movement of feces into the cecum. |
The defecation reflex is stimulated by movement of feces into the cecum.
|
|
|
16. The role of the normal intestinal bacterial flora is to:
a. metabolize bile salts, estrogens, and lipids and synthesize vitamin K. b. break down proteins into amino acids. c. facilitate the motility of the colon. d. metabolize aldosterone and insulin. |
metabolize bile salts, estrogens, and lipids and synthesize vitamin K.
|
|
|
17. True or False When the liver is swollen from disease or damage, the Glisson capsule stretches without any symptoms.
|
False
|
|
|
18. True or False The liver (kupffer cells) plays an important role in destroying intestinal bacteria
|
True
|
|
|
19. Which structure of the digestive system synthesizes clotting factors and vitamin K necessary for hemostasis?
a. Colon b. Spleen c. Gallbladder d. Liver |
Liver
|
|
|
20. Bile is all of the following EXCEPT
a. Bitter tasting b. Yellow/green c. Causes esophageal trauma from the acidity of the bile d. Emulsifies fats for absorption |
Causes esophageal trauma from the acidity of the bile
|
|
|
21. Bilirubin is a byproduct of the destruction of aged _____ that are destroyed by macrophages in the spleen and liver.
a. platelets b. Protein c. Leukocytes d. erythrocytes |
Erythrocytes
|
|
|
22. The process of conjugation of bilirubin in the liver is best described as the transformation of:
a. unconjugated (fat-soluble) bilirubin into urobilinogen. b. unconjugated (fat-soluble) bilirubin into conjugated (water-soluble) bilirubin. c. conjugated (water-soluble) bilirubin into unconjugated (fat-soluble) bilirubin. d. conjugated (water-soluble) bilirubin into urobilinogen |
unconjugated (fat-soluble) bilirubin into conjugated (water-soluble) bilirubin.
|
|
|
23. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding gallbladder function?
a. Within 30 minutes of eating, the gallbladder forces bile into the stomach. b. Cholinergic branches of the vagus nerve mediate gallbladder contraction. c. Cholecystokinin and motilin provide hormonal regulation of gallbladder contraction. d. The sphincter of Oddi controls the flow of bile from the gallbladder. |
Within 30 minutes of eating, the gallbladder forces bile into the stomach.
|
|
|
24. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the functions of the pancreas?
a. Release of pancreatic enzymes is stimulated by cholecystokinin and acetylcholine from the parasympathetic vagus nerve. b. Secretion of pancreatic enzymes is inhibited by bilirubin and S cells. c. Pancreatic enzymes hydrolyze proteins (proteases), carbohydrates (amylase), and fats (lipase) d. Pancreatic juices contain bicarbonate which neutralizes the pH of the chyme in the duodenum |
Secretion of pancreatic enzymes is inhibited by bilirubin and S cells.
|
|
|
tests for blood in the stool
|
b. Stool Guaiac test
|
|
|
tests for steatorrhea
|
d. Stool Fat
|
|
|
tests for bacteria in the stool
|
a. Stool culture
|
|
|
tests for pus in the stool indicating infection
|
e. WBC count
|
|
|
tests giardia (a parasite often picked up from drinking from a mountain stream or common in daycare)
|
c. Stool O&P
|
|
|
26. All of the following about the GI system with aging are true EXCEPT
a. Difficulty swallowing can result from poor chewing and lubrication of food b. Constipation is inevitable with aging c. Pernicious anemia is more likely with increased age d. Nutrient absorption is impaired in the intestines related to motility and blood flow decreases. |
Constipation is inevitable with aging
|
|
|
1. True or False Anorexia is the lack of desire to eat despite physiologic stimuli that would normally produce hunger.
|
True
|
|
|
2. The chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) for vomiting is located in the:
a. hypothalamus. b. medulla c. pons. d. midbrain. |
Medulla
|
|
|
3. _____ vomiting is caused by direct stimulation of the vomiting center by neurologic lesions involving the brainstem.
a. Retch b. Periodic c. Duodenal d. Projectile |
Projectile
|
|
|
4. True or False Because patterns of bowel evacuation differ greatly among individuals, constipation must be individually defined
|
True
|
|
|
5. Although on page 1453, the text states normal bowel habits range from 2-3 per day to 1 per week, the Rome III criteria for constipation (page 1454) requires 2 criteria for 12 weeks suggests less than 3 bowel movements per week is constipation if it is accompanied by any of the following EXCEPT
a. Hard stools at least 25% of the time b. Straining during 25% of defecations c. Sensation of incomplete evacuation d. Cramping abdominal pain |
Cramping abdominal pain
|
|
|
6. More than _____ stools per day is considered abnormal.
a. Two b. three c. five d. seven |
three
|
|
|
7. True or False Diarrhea is often a protective response.
|
true
|
|
|
8. The type of diarrhea that is a result of unhydrolyzed lactose is referred to as:
a. motility. b. osmotic. c. secretory. d. small-volume |
osmotic
|
|
|
9. A person who has cholera or Ecoli would be expected to have which type of diarrhea?
a. Osmotic b. Secretory c. Small volume d. Motility |
secretory
|
|
|
10. All of the following are the indicators of blood loss in the gastrointestinal tract EXCEPT
a. Blood pressure changes with a change from lying to sitting or standing b. Increased heart rate c. Vomiting (particularly if it has a coffee ground appearance) d. Melena (black tarry stool) e. Increased urinary output |
Increased Urine Output
|
|
|
11. Frank bleeding of the rectum is called:
a. melena. b. hematochezia. c. occult bleeding. d. hematemesis. |
hematochezia
|
|
|
12. Functional dysphagia is caused by:
a. intrinsic mechanical obstruction. b. extrinsic mechanical obstruction. c. a tumor. d. a neural or muscular disorder. |
a neural or muscular disorder
|
|
|
13. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is a result of:
a. excessive production of hydrochloric acid. b. a zone of low pressure of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES). c. presence of Helicobacter pylori in the esophagus. d. reverse muscular peristalsis of the esophagus. |
a zone of low pressure of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES).
|
|
|
14. Reflux esophagitis may be defined as a(n):
a. immune response to gastroesophageal reflux. b. inflammatory response to gastroesophageal reflux. c. congenital anomaly. d. secretory response to gastroesophageal reflux. |
inflammatory response to gastroesophageal reflux.
|
|
|
15. Intussusception causes intestinal obstruction by:
a. telescoping of part of the intestine into another usually causing strangulation of the blood supply. b. twisting the intestine on its mesenteric pedicle causing occlusion of the blood supply. c. the loss of peristaltic motor activity in the intestine, causing an adynamic ileus. d. forming fibrin and scar tissue that attach to intestinal omentum and cause obstruction. |
telescoping of part of the intestine into another usually causing strangulation of the blood supply.
|
|
|
16. Table 39-3 The most commonly occurring small intestinal obstruction is:
a. diverticulosis. b. tumor. c. volvulus. d. adhesions. |
adhesions (50-70%)
|
|
|
17. The cardinal symptoms of small intestinal obstruction include:
a. constant, dull pain in the lower abdomen relieved by defecation. b. acute, intermittent pain 30 minutes to 2 hours after eating. c. colicky pain caused by distention followed by vomiting. d. excruciating pain in the hypogastric area caused by ischemia. |
colicky pain caused by distention followed by vomiting.
|
|
|
18. Acute gastritis (injury to the protective mucosal barrier)can be caused by which of the following - check all that apply
a. Ibuprofen b. ASA (aspirin) c. Antacids d. H. Pylori e. alcohol |
Ibuprofen
b. ASA (aspirin) d. H. Pylori e. alcohol |
|
|
19. True or False Chronic gastritis tends to occur in older adults and causes thinning and degeneration of the stomach wall.
|
True
|
|
|
20. A peptic ulcer may occur in all of the following areas except the:
a. stomach. c. jejunum b. duodenum. d. esphagus |
jejunum
|
|
|
21. The primary cause of duodenal ulcers is:
a. hypersecretion of gastric acid. b. hyposecretion of pepsin. c. Helicobacter pylori. d. Escherichia coli. |
H. pylori
|
|
|
22. Which statement is false regarding the contributing factors of duodenal ulcers?
a. There are a greater than usual number of parietal cells in the gastric mucosa (increased acid production). b. Gastric emptying is slowed causing greater exposure of the mucosa to acid. c. High serum gastrin levels remain high longer than normal after eating. d. Decreased duodenal bicarbonate |
Gastric emptying is slowed causing greater exposure of the mucosa to acid.
|
|
|
23. Which of the following is consistent with dumping syndrome?
a. Usually responds well to dietary management b. Occurs 1 to 2 hours after eating c. Is seen following intestinal surgery d. Can result in alkaline reflux gastritis |
Usually responds well to dietary management
|
|
|
24. True or False True or False After a gastrectomy, individuals develop anemia from deficiencies in iron, folate, and vitamin B12.
|
true
|
|
|
Limited to mucosa of colon and rectum
|
Ulcerative colitis
|
|
|
Can affect small or large intestines
|
Crohn disease
|
|
|
Alterations in immunoglobulin G production have been found in individuals with this disorder.
|
Ulcerative colitis
|
|
|
Primary lesions are continuous
|
Ulcerative colitis
|
|
|
can affect some segments but not others creating a pattern called “skip lesions”
|
Crohn disease
|
|
|
individuals may just have irritable bowel symptoms initially
|
Crohn disease
|
|
|
26. Which of the following statements about diverticulitis is NOT true?
a. Condition is related to a low fiber diet b. When the NP recommends increasing whole grains, fruits and vegetables, recommending gradual increase over 1-2 months will decrease the side effects of flatulence and cramping. c. A CT is necessary to diagnose diverticulitis d. Probiotics are useful to reestablish microflora in the GI tract after antibiotic treatment of diverticulitis. |
A CT is necessary to diagnose diverticulitis
|
|
|
27. True or False Appendix inflammation often exhibits as epigastric or periumbilical (around the belly button) pain that changes to right lower quadrant rebound tenderness.
|
true
|
|
|
28. IBS is diagnosed by symptoms and exclusion of structural/biochemical causes. Which of the following is an “alarm symptom” that require more extensive diagnostic testing?
a. Diarrhea d. weight loss b. Constipation e. nausea c. Gas and bloating |
weight loss
|
|
|
29. True or False Obesity is defined as a body mass index (BMI) greater than 40.
|
false (more than 30)
|
|
|
30. Eating behavior, energy metabolism, and body fat mass are regulated by the arcuate nucleus in the:
a. anterior pituitary. b. hypothalamus. c. posterior pituitary. d. parietal lobes |
hypothalamus
|
|
|
distorted body image (perception that the body is fat when it is actually under weight)
|
a. Anorexia nervosa
|
|
|
recurrent episodes of binge eating (during which patient fears not being able to stop)
|
b. Bulimia nervosa
|
|
|
absence of 3 consecutive menstrual periods
|
a. Anorexia nervosa
|
|
|
weight generally stays about the same with intermittent fluctuations
|
b. Bulimia nervosa
|
|
|
Fear of obesity
|
a. Anorexia nervosa
|
|
|
32. The most common clinical manifestation of portal hypertension is _____ bleeding.
a. Rectal b. Duodenal c. Esophageal d. Intestinal |
esophageal
|
|
|
33. The most common manifestation of portal hypertension induced splenomegaly is:
a. leukopenia. b. thrombocytopenia. c. erythrocytopenia. d. pancytopenia. |
thrombocytopenia
|
|
|
34. Which statement is false concerning the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity?
a. Impaired excretion of sodium by the kidneys promotes water retention. b. Decreased oncotic pressure and increased hepatic sinusoidal hydrostatic pressure cause movement of fluid into the peritoneal cavity. c. Decreased blood flow to the kidneys activates aldosterone, which retains sodium. d. Circulating nitric oxide causes vasoconstriction, which forces fluid from the capillaries into the peritoneal cavity. |
Circulating nitric oxide causes vasoconstriction, which forces fluid from the capillaries into the peritoneal cavity.
|
|
|
35. True or False Hepatitis D virus (HDV) occurs in individuals with hepatitis B.
|
true
|
|
|
36. True or False Hepatitis A is transmitted through infected blood and other body fluids.
|
false
|
|
|
37. True or False Hepatitis B is a sexually transmitted disease.
|
true
|
|
|
38. True or False Individuals with chronic hepatitis C are at increased risk for chronic liver disease.
|
true
|
|
|
39. Which are the early (prodromal) clinical manifestations of hepatitis?
a. Fatigue, fever, hyperalgia, and vomiting b. Light-colored stools, dark-colored urine c. Large, tender liver; itching; jaundice d. Pain in the left upper quadrant, splenomegaly |
Fatigue, fever, hyperalgia, and vomiting
|
|
|
40. Hepatic fat accumulation is seen in which form of cirrhosis?
a. Biliary b. Metabolic c. Postnecrotic d. Alcoholic |
alcoholic
|
|
|
41. True or False Primary biliary cirrhosis can be a result of gallstones.
|
false (gallstone = obstrucive)
|
|
|
42. Which statement is false regarding the pathophysiology of acute pancreatitis?
a. Pancreatic acinar cells metabolize ethanol, which generates toxic metabolites. b. Injury to the pancreatic acinar cells permits leakage of pancreatic enzymes that digest pancreatic tissue. c. Acute pancreatitis is an autoimmune disease in which IgG coats the pancreatic acinar cells so they are destroyed by the pancreatic enzymes. d. When gallstones are present, bile flows into the pancreas, contributing to attacks. |
c. Acute pancreatitis is an autoimmune disease in which IgG coats the pancreatic acinar cells so they are destroyed by the pancreatic enzymes.
|
|
|
43. Which clinical manifestation is not consistent with cancer of the cecum and ascending colon?
a. Mahogany-colored blood mixed with stool b. Anemia c. Pain d. Constipation |
constipation
|
|
|
1. True or False In most cases, cleft lip and cleft palate are caused by multiple factors—genetic and environmental—including maternal use of alcohol and tobacco.
|
True
|
|
|
2. Incomplete fusion of the nasomedial or intermaxillary process during the fourth week of embryonic development causes:
a. cleft palate. b. sinus dysfunction. c. cleft lip. d. esophageal malformation. |
Cleft Lip
|
|
|
3. True or False In at least 50% of infants with esophageal defects, other congenital anomalies are present as well.
|
true
|
|
|
4. At 2 or 3 weeks of age, an infant who has been fed well and gained weight begins to vomit for no apparent reason. The vomiting has gradually become more forceful. These symptoms may be indicative of which disorder?
a. Esophageal atresia b. Congenital aganglionic megacolon c. Pyloric stenosis d. Galactosemia |
pyloric stenosis
|
|
|
5. _____ is a condition in which the developing colon remains in the upper right quadrant instead of moving to its normal location.
a. Intestinal malrotation b. Ileocecal displacement c. Duodenal obstruction d. Pyloric stenosis |
intestinal malrotation
|
|
|
6. Meconium _____ is an intestinal obstruction caused by meconium formed in utero that is abnormally sticky and adheres firmly to the mucosa of the small intestine.
a. Cecum b. Ileus c. Obstruction d. Vivax |
ileus
|
|
|
7. Meconium ileus is often associated with:
a. muscular dystrophy. b. cerebral palsy. c. cystic fibrosis. d. congenital aganglionic megacolon. |
cystic fibrosis
|
|
|
8. True or False In congenital aganglionic megacolon (hirschsprung’s), the aganglionic segment dilates and can exhibit as diarrhea because only watery stool can pass around the impacted feces.
|
false
(may also have constipation) |
|
|
9. An intestinal obstruction caused by the invagination of the ileum into the cecum and part of the ascending colon collapsing through the ileocecal valve is an example of a(n):
a. congenital aganglionic megacolon. b. malrotation. c. intussusception. d. volvulus. |
intussusception
|
|
|
10. An infant suddenly develops abdominal pain, becomes irritable (colicky), and draws up the knees. Vomiting occurs soon afterward. The mother reports that after the infant passed a normal stool, the stools look like currant jelly. Based on these data, which disorder does the nurse suspect?
a. Congenital aganglionic megacolon b. Intussusception c. Malrotation d. Volvulus |
intussusception
|
|
|
11. True or False In newborns, GERD is normal because neuromuscular control of the gastroesophageal sphincter is not fully developed.
|
True
|
|
|
12. Cystic fibrosis is characterized by:
a. excessive mucus production. b. elevated blood glucose levels. c. low sodium content in perspiration. d. formation of cysts in the alveoli. |
excessive mucus production
|
|
|
13. Cystic fibrosis is directly responsible for complications to which of the following?
a. Muscles and bones b. Kidneys and bladder c. Lymph nodes and spleen d. Cervix and liver |
cervix and liver
|
|
|
14. A person with cystic fibrosis has an exocrine pancreatic insufficiency because:
a. the pancreatic ducts are obstructed with mucus. b. of the impaired blood supply to the pancreas causing ischemia. c. genetically the pancreas is unable to produce digestive enzymes. |
the pancreatic ducts are obstructed with mucus.
|
|
|
15. True or False The intestinal villi of a child who has been diagnosed with gluten-sensitive enteropathy regenerates after treatment with a gluten-free diet.
|
true
|
|
|
16. True or False Because lactose intolerance is presumed in children with gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac sprue), lactose is excluded from their diet.
|
true
|
|
|
17. Foods eliminated from the diet for children who have gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac sprue) include:
a. citrus fruits. b. starchy vegetables. c. cereal grains. d. red meat. |
cereal grains
|
|
|
18. An infant with gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac sprue) bruises and bleeds easily because of:
a. a vitamin K deficiency from fat malabsorption. b. bone marrow function depression. c. iron, folate, and B12 deficiency anemias. d. prescribed daily warfarin (Coumadin). |
a vitamin K deficiency from fat malabsorption.
|
|
|
19. True or False Failure to thrive (FTT) is a disorder having organic (e.g., gastrointestinal and endocrine disorders) and nonorganic (e.g., psychosocial) deprivation causes.
|
true
|
|
|
20. What distinguishes kwashiorkor from marasmus?
a. All nutrients, proteins, fats, and carbohydrates are reduced in kwashiorkor. b. Physical growth of children is stunted in kwashiorkor, but not in marasmus. c. Muscle wasting, diarrhea, low hemoglobin, and infection characterize kwashiorkor. d. Subcutaneous fat, hepatomegaly, and fatty liver are present in kwashiorkor. |
Subcutaneous fat, hepatomegaly, and fatty liver are present in kwashiorkor.
|
|
|
21. Prolonged diarrhea is more severe in children than in adults because:
a. less water is absorbed from the colon in children. b. fluid reserves are smaller in children. c. children have a higher fluid volume intake. d. children have diarrhea more often than do adults |
fluid reserves are smaller in children.
|
|
|
22. Increased bilirubin production, impaired hepatic uptake and excretion of bilirubin, and reabsorption of bilirubin in the small intestine can each lead to:
a. pathologic jaundice of the newborn. b. physiologic jaundice of the newborn. c. hepatitis A. d. infantile cirrhosis |
physiologic jaundice of the newborn.
|
|
|
23. Cirrhosis causes intrahepatic portal hypertension in children as a result of:
a. fibrosis increasing resistance to blood flow within the portal system. b. increased pressure from the twisting of the common bile ducts. c. development of collateral circulation within the portal system. d. shunting of fluid to the spleen or abdomen. |
fibrosis increasing resistance to blood flow within the portal system.
|
|
|
24. Clinical signs of portal hypertension include:
a. right heart failure. b. pulmonary edema. c. splenomegaly. d. diarrhea. |
splenomegaly
|
|
|
Gluten sensitivity
|
Celiac sprue
|
|
|
Periduodenal band
|
malrotation
|
|
|
Congenital aganglionic megacolon
|
Hirschsprung disease
|
|
|
Protein energy malnutrition
|
Marasmus and kwashiorkor
|
|
|
Lack of digestive enzymes during fetal life
|
Meconium ileus
|
|
|
1. True or False Older adults have impaired wound healing because of a decreased blood supply and depressed immune system.
|
true
|
|
|
2. True or False Psoriasis is an inflammatory skin condition.
|
false
|
|
|
3. True or False The relationship between nevi and melanoma has been found to be insignificant.
|
false
|
|
|
4. True or False A furuncle may be a folliculitis that has spread through the follicular wall to the dermis.
|
true
|
|
|
5. True or False Tinea (e.g., ringworm) and candidiasis are caused by fungi.
|
true
|
|
|
6. True or False Cytomegalovirus is a type of herpesvirus.
|
true
|
|
|
7. True or False Pain experienced by patients during the thawing period after frostbite is mild because the nerve endings are anesthetized by the cold.
|
false
|
|
|
8. True or False Shingles and chickenpox are both caused by the same herpesvirus.
|
true
|
|
|
9. True or False Warts are benign lesions of the skin caused by human papillomavirus (HPV).
|
true
|
|
|
10. True or False Melanoma is a malignant tumor of the skin originating from keratinocytes, the cells of the skin that synthesize the pigment melanin.
|
false
|
|
|
11. True or False Kaposi sarcoma is a vascular malignancy that occurs only in people with AIDS.
|
False
|
|
|
12. True or False When pressure on capillaries is unrelieved, the endothelial cells lining those capillaries become disrupted with platelet aggregation forming microthrombi. (ulcer section)
|
True
|
|
|
13. _____ of the epidermis initiate immune responses and provide defense against environmental antigens.
a. Langerhans cells b. Merkel cells c. Keratinocytes d. Melanocytes |
Langerhans cells
|
|
|
14. Which cells of the dermis release histamine and play a role in the hypersensitivity reactions of the skin?
a. Histiocytes b. Fibroblasts c. Mast cells d. Macrophage |
mast cells
|
|
|
15. Which cells of the dermis secrete connective tissue matrix?
a. Macrophages b. Mast cells c. Fibroblasts d. Histiocyte |
fibroblasts
|
|
|
16. Which gland releases secretions that are important in thermoregulation and cooling of the body through evaporation?
a. Sebaceous c. Eccrine b. Apocrine d. exocrine |
eccrine
|
|
|
17. Which receptors of the autonomic nervous system regulate heat loss through the skin?
a. Cholinergic c. α-Adrenergic b. ß-Adrenergic d. Anticholinergic |
alpha adrenergic
|
|
|
18. What is the first change in the skin to indicate a pressure ulcer?
a. Blanchable erythema of intact skin b. Nonblanchable erythema of intact skin c. Blister at the site of pressure d. Reddish-purple discoloration |
Nonblanchable erythema of intact skin
|
|
|
19. Keloids are sharply elevated, irregularly shaped, progressively enlarging scars caused by excessive amounts of _____ in the corneum during connective tissue repair.
a. Elastin b. Collagen c. Stroma d. reticular fibers |
collagen
|
|
|
20. In latex allergies, which immunoglobulin is associated with an immediate reaction?
a. IgA b. IgE c. IgG d. IgM |
IgE
|
|
|
21. _____ is an inflammatory disorder of the skin characterized by pruritus with lesions that have an indistinct border and is often considered synonymous with dermatitis.
a. Eczema b. Psoriasis c. Lichen planus d. Pityriasis rosea |
Eczema
|
|
|
22. What clinical manifestations do allergic, atopic, and stasis dermatitis have in common?
a. Petechiae and hyperpigmentation b. Edema and vesicular lesions c. Scaling and crusting of lesions d. Erythema and pruritus |
erythema and pruritis
|
|
|
23. Which of the following medications may exacerbate existing psoriasis?
a. Antibiotics b. Calcium channel blockers c. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) d. Antilipidemic |
NSAIDs
|
|
|
24. Which type of psoriasis is characterized by lesions on the elbows and knees that are well demarcated, thick, silvery, scaly, and erythematous?
a. Plaque b. Inverse c. Guttate d. Erythrodermic |
plaque
|
|
|
25. Which skin disorder begins with a single lesion that is circular, demarcated, salmon-pink, approximately 3 to 4 cm in diameter, and usually located on the trunk?
a. Lichen planus b. Pityriasis rosea c. Psoriasis d. Acne rosacea |
pityriasis rosea
|
|
|
26. _____ are a collection of infected hair follicles that often occur on the back of the neck, the upper back, and lateral thighs that form a mass that evolves into an erythematous, painful, edematous mass, which drains through many openings.
a. Erysipelas b. Furuncles c. Carbuncles d. Boils |
carbuncles
|
|
|
27. Chickenpox may be followed years later by:
a. erysipelas. b. cytomegalovirus. c. warts (verrucae). d. herpes zoster. |
herpes zoster
|
|
|
28. Tinea corporis (ringworm) is a _____ infection of the skin.
a. nematode b. Fungal c. Viral d. bacterial |
fungal
|
|
|
29. Cutaneous vasculitis develops from the deposit of _____ in small blood vessels as a toxic response allergen
a. immune complexes b. IgE c. Complement d. T lymphocytes |
immune complexes
|
|
|
30. Which skin lesion is mediated by IgE-stimulated release of histamine, bradykinin, kallikrein, or acetylcholine from mast cells?
a. Dermatitis b. Scleroderma c. Urticaria d. Cutaneous vasculitis |
urticartia
|
|
|
31. Scleroderma is more common in women and is associated with a(n):
a. X-linked recessive gene. b. X-linked dominant gene. c. virus. d. autoantibodies. |
autoantibodies
|
|
|
32. _____ is a benign proliferation of basal cells that produces smooth or warty elevated lesions on the chest, back, and face that are tan or waxy, yellow, flesh-colored, or dark brown-black.
a. Basalokeratosis b. Seborrheic keratosis c. Keratoacanthoma d. Actinic keratosis |
seborrheic keratosis
|
|
|
33. Which malignancy is characterized by slow-growing lesions that usually have depressed centers and rolled borders and are frequently located on the face and neck?
a. squamous cell carcinoma c. Malignant melanoma b. Kaposi sarcoma d. Basal cell carcinoma |
basal cell carcinoma
|
|
|
34. An older adult man states he has a sore above his lip that has not healed and is getting bigger. The nurse practitioner observes a red scaly patch with an ulcerated center and sharp margins. The nurse recognizes these features as commonly associated with Bowen disease, a form of:
a. Kaposi sarcoma. b. malignant melanoma. c. basal cell carcinoma. d. squamous cell carcinoma. |
squamous cell carcinoma
|
|
|
35. A nevus characterized by a small (less than 1 cm) lesion with regular edges and bristle-like hairs with a color change from skin tones to light brown is a(n) _____ nevus.
a. junctional c. intradermal b. Epidermal d. compound |
intradermal
|
|
|
36. Inflammatory mediators that are active in frostbite include:
a. leukotrienes, serotonin, and prostacyclin. b. histamine, bradykinin, and thromboxanes. c. lymphokines, leukotrienes, and fibrin. d. plasmin, lysosomal compounds, prostacyclin. |
histamine, bradykinin, and thromboxanes.
|
|
|
37. Treatment for frostbite includes:
a. application of local, dry heat. b. rubbing or massaging the area. c. immersion in warm water. d. leaving the area uncovered. |
immersion in warm water.
and leaving the area uncovered. |
|
|
38. Aspirin is given to individuals being treated for frostbite in order to:
a. treat fever. b. prevent plate aggregation. c. reduce pain. d. inhibit prostaglandins. |
inhibit prostaglandins
|
|
|
39. Women who develop hirsutism may be secreting hormones associated with:
a. posterior pituitary adenoma. b. Cushing disease. c. polycystic ovaries. d. Addison disease. |
polycystic ovaries
|
|
|
40. _____ is a fungal infection of the nail plate.
a. Paronychia b. Onychomycosis c. Tinea corporis d. Tinea capitis |
onychomycosis
|
|
|
Elevated, firm circumscribed area less than 1 cm in diameter
|
Wart (verruca) or lichen planus
|
|
|
Elevated, firm, and rough lesion with flat top surface greater than 1 cm in diameter
|
Psoriasis or seborrheic and actinic keratoses
|
|
|
Flat circumscribed area that is less than 1 cm in diameter
|
Nevus (flat mole)
|
|
|
Elevated irregular-shaped area of cutaneous edema; solid, transient; with a variable diameter
|
Urticaria, allergic reaction
|
|
|
Elevated circumscribed, superficial lesion filled with serous fluid, less than 1 cm in diameter
|
Varicella (chickenpox), herpes zoster (shingles)
|
|
|
1. True or False Impetigo is a common viral skin infection in infants and children.
|
false
|
|
|
2. True or False Atopic dermatitis is the most common cause of eczema in children.
|
true
|
|
|
3. True or False Scalded-skin syndrome is the result of staphylococcal infection of burned skin.
|
false
|
|
|
4. True or False In cases of staphylococcal scalded-skin syndrome, the most effective treatment is direct application of antibiotics to the skin.
|
false
|
|
|
5. True or False Fungal disorders of the skin are known as mycoses and when caused by dermatophytes, the mycoses are termed tinea.
|
true
|
|
|
6. True or False Acne lesions may be divided into inflammatory lesions (pustules, papules, and nodules) and noninflammatory lesions (closed and open comedones).
|
true
|
|
|
7. True or False Koplik spots are characteristic of rubella.
|
false
|
|
|
8. True or False Pregnant women who contract rubella during the first trimester may have a fetus with congenital defects.
|
true
|
|
|
9. True or False Scabies is a contagious disease caused by the itch mite, Sarcoptes scabiei.
|
true
|
|
|
10. True or False The majority of strawberry hemangiomas require surgical treatment.
|
false
|
|
|
11. Which of the following forms of acne is the highly inflammatory form that may cause disfiguration with the formation of communicating cysts?
a. Acne vulgaris b. Acne conglobata c. Sebaceous follicles d. Closed comedones |
Acne conglobata
|
|
|
12. Which of the following findings is associated with atopic dermatitis?
a. It has a prevalence rate of 50% to 75%. b. There often is an increased IgG level. c. Blood eosinophilia is common. d. Itching is a rare finding |
Blood eosinophilia is common.
|
|
|
13. Which of the following pathogens is associated with diaper dermatitis?
a. Candida albicans b. Group A Streptococcus pyogenes c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Tinea pedis |
candida albicans
|
|
|
14. Which disease causes a disruption of desmosomal adhesion molecules due to a toxin called exfoliative toxin (ET)?
a. Vesicular impetigo b. Bullous impetigo c. Tinea corporis d. Thrush |
bullous impetigo
|
|
|
15. Which of the following diseases includes a rash with Koplik spots over the buccal mucosa?
a. Roseola b. Rubella c. Rubeola d. Varicella |
rubeola
(red measles) |
|
|
16. Which of the following is TRUE concerning scabies infection?
a. Pediculosis capitis, pediculosis corporis, and Phthirus pubis are the three species that cause scabies. b. Scabies are caused by a blood-sucking, nocturnal parasite of man. c. Scabies infection is characterized by burrows and papules. d. Scabies infection is caused by fleas. |
Scabies infection is characterized by burrows and papules.
|
|
|
17. Which of the following is the typical pattern with Roseola?
a. High fever, malaise, enlarged lymph nodes, cough, conjunctivitis, erythematous maculopapular rash starting on head and spreading distally changing from red to brownish as the rash fades. Very sick. b. Sudden onset of high fever (102-104.5) lasing 3-5 days, as fever resolves erythematous macular rash appears. Child fairly playful, OK appetite. c. Vesicular rash starting on trunk and spreading distally, typically mild fever d. linear rash with burrows, papules and vesicular lesion with severe itching. |
Sudden onset of high fever (102-104.5) lasing 3-5 days, as fever resolves erythematous macular rash appears. Child fairly playful, OK appetite.
|
|
|
18. Molluscum Contagiosum will resolve without treatment in ________ months if not manipulated.
a. 4-6 b. 6-9 c. 13-16 d. 24+ |
6-9
|
