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348 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Infectious disease
Preparation reduces microorganisms in the disease process (preparation is a surgical procedure).
What are the objectives of tooth preparation?
1. Remove defects and protect pulp
2. Conservative cutting
3. Form preparation to withstand forces of
mastication
4. Allow for functional placement of
restoration
What are the 7 steps of cavity preparation?
1. Outline Form
2. Resistance Form 3. Retention Form
4. Convenience Form
5. Removal of Decay
6. Cavosurface Finish
7. Debridement of the Preparation
Class I definition of caries
• All pit and fissure caries
• May be on occlusal surface of premolars and
molars
• May be on the occlusal two-thirds of the facial or lingual surface of premolars and molars (where ever there is a groove)
• May be on the lingual surface of anteriors
Outline Form
1. The facial-lingual width is to be 1mm (measured by the smallest amalgam condenser)
2. Extend slightly further into occlusal primary grooves (slightly up the major grooves).
3. Maintain the marginal/ oblique ridge integrity following the contour of that ridge.
Outline Form
Facial-Lingually the Width Should be Wide Enough to Accommodate the Smallest Plugger Loosely(1mm
Resistance Form
The internal shape that you produce that best prevents the fracture of the filling material and/or the tooth ie. Those features of the prep which resist the forces of mastication
Resistance Form
• Must maintain marginal ridge/oblique ridge integrity
• Must have a smooth, flat pulpal floor
(perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth)
• Mesial & distal walls form a 6 degree obtuse angle w/pulpal floor
Resistance Form
Utilize a #1556 burr
– carbide bur; cross-cut
fissured bur
– 3.8mm cutting length
– enter perpendicular to the occlusal surface so 1⁄2-2/3 of cutting length sinks into preparation
Which one is the pear, the straight cut, or rounded end cross cut? 1556, 330, and 56 all have .80 diameter
Straight fissure = 56
Pear shaped = 330 for class III
Straight rounded end cross-cut = 1556
Retention form
• Walls: Enclosing side of a cavity preparation which takes its name according to its adjacent surface
• Other examples of retention form may include:
– grooves
– slots
– undercuts
4. Convenience (Access) Form
Modification of the ideal outline form in order to be able to remove fully all decay or defective tooth structure
Removal of Decay
Excavation of all infected tooth structure using low-speed rotary instruments and spoon excavators
Cavosurface Finish
Cavosurface angle is the angle formed at the junction of a cut wall and the external surface of the tooth. The actual junction is the cavosurface margin.
• Proper Finishing of cavosurface margins
• Determined by filling material and location of the preparation
•Amalgam Restorations are finished as a “butt joint” (90 degree exit angle) on the occlusal surface with no bevel
7. Debridement of Preparation
• Flushing out of all debris from the cavity preparation
• Final step prior to beginning the restorative phase of the procedure
Summation of Class I
1. 1mm F-L width
2. Slightly up major grooves
3. Preserve marginal/oblique ridge
4. Depth 1.7-2mm at shallowest point (the fossae)
5. .5mm into dentin
6. Smooth pulpal floor
7. M&D walls 6 degree obtuse angle with pulpal floor
8. F&L walls perpendicular or slightly acute with pulpal floor
Explorer numbers?
#23 and #17
Which are internal walls of a prep & which are external walls?
Internal walls: Pulpal and Axial walls
External: Distal Facial Lingual Gingival

Axial Wall-Parallel to the Long Axis of the Tooth Pulpal Floor or Wall-Perpendicular to the Long Axis of the Tooth
Line Angles
Where Two Surfaces Come Together You Have A Line Angle
Point Angles
Where Three Surfaces Come Together You Have A Point Angle
Definition of number of surfaces:
1. Simple
2. Compound
3. Complex
• SIMPLE: one surface only
• COMPOUND: two surfaces
• COMPLEX: three or more surfaces
Class I Caries
All pit and fissures
Class II Caries
Proximal Surfaces of Posterior Teeth
Class III Caries
Proximal Surfaces of Anterior Teeth
Class IV Caries
Proximal Surfaces of Anterior Teeth,
Involving the incisal angle
Class V Caries
Involves the gingival 1/3 of all Teeth
Facially (buccal/labial) and Lingually
Class VI Caries
Caries on cusp tips and incisal edges
All Classes, II-VI, are?
smooth surface caries
Class I’s are not (pit [fossa] and fissures [grooves])
Rubber Dam-WHY?
1. Reduces microbial contamination by up to 99%
2. Most significant reduction is in vicinity of operator and dental assistant.
3. Centers for Disease Control & Prevention, recommends the use of high speed evacuation and dental dams
4. Provide patient protection & increases access, visibility and moisture control
5. Prevents aspiration or swallowing of foreign bodies

AN ULTIMATE TIME SAVINGS OF 40-50%
Rubber Dam Isolation
• Isolation of your working field is accomplished through use of a rubber dam
• Keeps your working area free of debris and saliva
– moisture control
• saliva, blood, sulcular fluids
– retraction
– soft tissue protection
Rubber Dam Isolation • Why do we isolate?
– to improve vision and access by removing impediments • lip,cheek,tongue
– to produce a clean, dry field
• improves quality of amalgam restorations
• absolutely mandatory for all bonded restorations
–moisture adversely affects retention and permanence in bonded restoration
Methods of Controlling the Operating field
• DRUGS
– antisialogogues: not routinely used for operative
procedures
• atropine sulfate: .25-.50mg 2 hrs prior to procedure
• belladonnas: 15mg 2 hrs prior to procedure
• scopalamine: 0.4mg 1/2 hr prior to procedure • valium: 5 - 10mg 1 hr prior to procedure
– local anesthetics:
• lidocaine: anesthetic relax patient reducing salivary flow
– Bibulous paper
– Cotton rolls: block duct openings
• Parotid, Sublingual
• must be changed as often as necessary to keep field dry based on patient’s salivary flow
– Vacuum devices:
• hi-speed evacuation • saliva ejectors
– Rubber dam
The Ideal Working Area
• Rubber Dam and High Speed Evacuation
Rubber Dam
– Prevents salivary contamination
– depresses gingiva around teeth
– acts as a tongue depressor and cheek retractor
– improves field of vision by providing a uniform non-glare background
– protects patient: reduces chance of slicing soft tissue with a high-speed instrument; reduces chance of aspiration of small instruments or chemicals
Rubber Dam
– Infection control
• Hepatitis, TB, AIDS
– Efficiency: keeps patient from constantly talking
and/or rinsing
Rubber Dam
Rubber dam sheets are provided in 5x5 and
6x6 inch squares

Holes should be 1.5- 2.0mm apart: too close together causes rips; too far apart causes bunching
• Rubberdamclamps (retainers)
used to anchor the dam to the teeth
– various sizes based on size of tooth
– winged and unwinged
– those with prongs are helpful in clamping partially erupted teeth
#9 Clamp
Anterior teeth for Class V's
#2 Clamp
Large Premolars
#2A Clamp
Smaller Premolars
#4 Clamp
Small Maxillary Premolars
#7 Clamp
Mandibular Molars
#12A Clamp
Mandibular right and Maxillary Left molars
#13A Clamp
Mandibular left and Maxillary Right molars
ANTERIORISOLATION:(ClassIII,IVorV restorations )
first premolar to first premolar; use two clamps, one on each premolar
• POSTERIOR QUADRANT ISOLATION:
second molar to one tooth past midline (central incisor); clamp 2nd molar,
POSTERIOR 3-TOOTH ISOLATION:
clamp tooth distal to the one being restored and ligate tooth anterior to the one being restored (you can do this but not recommended)
First big hole in the 5 hole punch is for?
2nd hole?
3rd hole?
4th hole?
5th hole?
1 - Anchor tooth
2 - molars
3 - premolars and canines
4 - maxillary incisors
5 - mandibular incisors
If any teeth in the operating field are missing or not in alignment, the holes for these teeth should be?
skipped or realigned and the operating field adjusted as necessary.
Rubberdamclamp forceps:
used to place and remove retainers

In order for the clamp to be secure, both points of each jaw must contact the anchor tooth below the height of contour.
The bow of the clamp always faces?
posterior (towards the back of the mouth).
What are the exceptions to use of a rubber dam?
• Patient phobic
• Respiratory problems: cold, asthma • Extremely malposed teeth
• Broken down teeth
Class II Preparations
• Prewedge all Class II Preparations
• Place Matrix (Tofflemire) on adjoining tooth and the open end is always face down towards the gingiva
Outline Form
outer shape of the preparation Includes
Maintain uninvolved marginal ridge integrity
Facio-lingual width 1mm; and extend slightly into primary grooves
May or may not see light in F/L embrasures
Tapering form gingivo-occlusal
Gingival extension (must break contact with adjacent tooth)
Resistance Form
-internal shape that prevents fracture of filling or tooth
1. Pulpal depth 1.7-2mm and 1/2mm into Dentin
2. Axial depth 1mm premolars, 1-1.3mm molars
3. Axio-pulpal line angle beveled
4. Uninvolved proximal slightly obtuse(6 degrees)
5. Flat pulpal and gingival floors
6. Axial wall is convex or follows contour of gingival cavo-surface margin
Retention Form
-internal shape that prevents filling from falling out.
•Buccal & lingual walls face each other (proximal box)
•Converging slightly towards the occlusal
(proximal box)
Summation of Class I and Class II Box
1. 1mmF-Lwidth
2. Slightly up major grooves
3. Preserve marginal/oblique ridge
4. Depth 1.7-2mm at shallowest point (the fossae)
5. .5mm into dentin
6. Smooth pulpal floor
7. M&D walls 6 degree obtuse angle with pulpal floor
8. F&L walls perpendicular or slightly acute with pulpal floor
Proximal Box of Class II
9. Axial wall depth 1-1.3mm
10. Bevel axio-pulpal line angle
11. Flat gingival floor
12. Axial wall is convex, follows contour of gingival cavo-surface margin
13. B-L walls face each other
14. Diverging occlusal to gingival
15. Break contact F, L (classic prep only) and gingival (always)
16. Plane gingival margin (if finish is on enamel)
Cavity Lesion rankings from Shallowest to deepest
E1 --> E2 --> D1 --> D2
Amalgam Restorations
Simple: One surface
Compound: Two Surfaces
Complex: Three Surface
Atypical: Three or more surfaces that always involve the onlaying of one or more cusps
Occlusal caries spread how?
Small on top of enamel to spreading big at the dentin-enamal junction and then in spreads into dentin tapering.
Proximal surface caries spread how?
Large caries on top of enamel to spreading to a small point at the dentin-enamal junction and then in spreads Large caries on top of dentin tapering down into the dentin.
Rectilinear instruments
CHISELS:
Hatchets
Hoes
Margin Trimmers
• A hatchet is a hand instrument whose blade is?
parallel with the handle; a hoe has a blade which creates a right angle with the handle

83 is mesial 97 is distal
Instrument formula
• Identified by 3 or 4 number formula
– e.g. 13-97-9-15; 10-7-15
• In general, instruments whose formula begins with “10” are for premolars ; those whose formulas begin with “13” for molars. We will be using 10 series only. 10 are for premolars and 13 are for molars
10-97-7-15
• 1st number: (10) the width of the blade in tenths of millimeters
• 2nd number: (97) angle the cutting edge creates with the handle in degrees centigrade• 3rd number: (7) the length of the blade in millimeters
• 4th number: (15) the angle the the entire blade makes with the handle in degrees centigrade
• In three digit formulas, it is understood that the second digit is missing and that digit is understood to be a?
“90” (90 degrees Cent.)
Proper Use of Hand Instruments
• Thelongersideofthebladeisalwaysused as the cutting edge
• Instrumentisheldusingamodifiedpen grasp
• Thesideofthebladeshouldbeparallelwith the long axis of the tooth in order to attain the proper angles
• Scrapeinonedirectiononly-NOTback& forth
Unsupported enamel must be planed at what degree angle?
20 degrees
An S curve is used to achieve?
A 90 degree exit angle
Burnishers
Discoid Cleoid Carver and Hollenbach Carvers
When using a toffelmire, the band must extend at least?
1mm above the marginal ridge
What are the qualities of an ideal Restorative Preparation?
• RestoreDamagedTooth • WearResistance
• FractureResistance
• BondtoTooth
• BondtoSelf
• SmoothSurface • Esthetic
• LowConductivity • Radiopaque
What are the advantages of posterior composites?
• Tooth Colored Restoration • Conservative Preparations • Adhesive
What are the disadvantages of Posterior Composites?
• Difficult to Contour (and achieve closed contact) • Tooth Colored (difficult to identify)
• Difficult to Remove
• Time Consuming
• More Rapid Wear
• Expensive in chair time
What are the contraindications, a factor that renders the administration of a drug or the carrying out of a medical
procedure inadvisable:
1. Abusive Occlusion
2. Preparation wider than 1/3 the facial- lingual width
3. No Holding Contact
4. Subgingival Preparation (cannot control moisture)
5. Inability to Place Rubber Dam
6. Clasp from partial denture
Depth of cure increments?
2mm at a time
Placing Composites.
1. Pumice
2. Rinse
3. Air Dry (do not desiccate)
4. Acid Etch 15 sec. (35% phosphoric acid)
5. Rinse
6. Air Dry (do not desiccate)
7. Apply Bonding Agent (brush in)
8. Air Dry slightly to remove solvent (no puddling) 9. Light Cure
10. Place Composite (Cure only in 2mm increments)
Inadequate Cure due to curing light could be from?
• Inefficient Lamp
• Low (fluctuating) voltage
• Dirty tip
What are the Properties of the Restorative Material Affecting Intensity of Light Transmitted?
• Shade- pigment • Opacity
• Thickness
What does an ideal preparation look like?
• Removal of Caries
• Removal of Unsupported Enamel
• Placement of Margins in a Finishable Location
Things involving Contact Area
• Wedging
• Tooth movement
• Gingival adaptation
• Matrix Band
• Thin
• Contoured
• Burnishable
• Held against adjacent tooth during curing
#14OL prep is what class cavity?
class 1 compound cavity
#4MO with no molars in that quadrant what wouldn’t you use?
don’t use clamp use tofflemire or floss on #4
#9 incisal fractures is what class?
class 4
35% phosphoric acid on prep prior to restoring tooth with composite→ acid should be applied to?
dentin first to remove smear layer
97 is for what margin?
all DISTAL gingival cavosurface margins
Access form is the shape of the prep that?
facilitates prep and restoration
After triturating amalgam pack restoration material with?
condenser
Area of class 2 prep that provides portion of resistance form?
rounded axial-pulpal line angle
Best caries indicator of high risk for caries?
presence of cavitated lesions
Bevel placed at gingival margin of class 3 composite prep #10 is?
not necessary
Breaking contact with adjacent tooth in proximal box is what form?
outline form
Caries can form in a small area of prep in enamel at the bottom of a pit/fissure. The caries will begin to spread laterally at?
the DEJ.
Caries
(It is NOT infectious, NOT fluoride dependant, NOT vitamin deficient).
Class 2 amalgam prep will need?
amalgam well, matrix, matix retainer, carrier, condenser, carver
In a Class 2 composite restoration the best way to place composite is at how many increments?
2mm or less increments
Class 2 prep with divergent occ→gingiv proximal box will?
prevent restoration from falling out
Class II 3 surface restoration makes 87 degree with pulp floor what step?
retention
T/F Distal wall of MO class 2 amalgam is the external wall. Pulpal wall of class 1 amalgam is external wall.
first statement True and Second False
Example of caries located in a fossa is for what class only?
class 1 only
Facial and lingual walls of proximal box of class 2 amalgam preps: 1) converge toward the?
occlusal AND 2) face each other
Facial wall of class 3 is parallel to?
the facial surface of the tooth. Gingival wall must break contact with the adjacent tooth.
For a class 2 restoration we plane the gingival cavosurface margin bc?
the enamel rods: slant in gingival direction
For rubber dam #29 dam should extend from?
#31 to #24
Hand instrument 13-93-9-13 has blade with width of?
1.3mm
T/F Ideal maxillary class 3 composite prep has no bevels. Must plane gingival margin→
BOTH TRUE
In a case where there is a great deal of large carious lesions where you completed all necessary restorations the success depends primarily on?
implementing an active medical approach
Inversion of rubber dam accomplishes what?
improving moisture control
Large #15MO what do you condense first?
condense restoration at proximal box first
Large class 2 with lots of soft decay what do you use to remove the decay?
use spoon excavator with slow speed round bur
T/F Line angle is where 3 surfaces come together. All line angles are rounded.
False a Line angle has 2 surfaces. Second statement is true.
MB cusp of #19 would be considered what class of caries?
a class 6
MO on amalgam #30 fractured and pt has pain on biting: what might be the reason?
→ A failure to bevel along gingival cavosurface margin
Non-carious loss of tooth structure includes?
cavitation
On BW xray you observe decay on #3M that penetrated into dentin. During the prep of MO restoration you didn’t see decay: you did not extend prep sufficiently
gingivally
Open end of the tofflemire faces ______ when placed on the tooth
apically/gingivally
Pain caused by debonding occurs due to?
fluid passing over the dentinal tubules
Patient has class 3 caries on #23D. You should approach?
facial/lingual whichever is closest to the lesion
Prep #3MO for restoration what is the next step?
next step is to place the matrix band between #3/#4
Primary reason for condensation of triturated amalgam in prep is to?
eliminate internal voids in amalgam which reduce strength
Purpose of overbuilding and carving condensed amalgam is to take off?
the Hg layer during carving
Reason for banking of composite during the restoration is to prevent?
shrinkage across the restoration
The forth # of the four numbers on a rectilinear instrument represents the?
angle that the entire blade makes with the handle
To provide resistance to proximal box of class 2 gingival floor should be?
perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth
Tofflemire should extend how far above the marginal ridge?
1.0mm above the marginal ridge
Wedges are used to?
prevent amalgam extrusion gingivally and to re-establish the proximal contact
When checking occlusion with articulating paper on #14 a high spot may be found hitting the amalgam on #19?
DB cusp
When etching the tooth before composite restoration how long should the acid be in contact with the tooth prior to rinsing it off?
¼ min
When restoring the occlusal of a mandibular second molar ___________ cusps are functional in centric occlusion.
MB and DB
Where do you place the retention grooves for class 3?
NOWHERE!! (do NOT place grooves incisally/gingivally)
While placing the class 2 composite restoration the most difficult thing to achieve is?
contact with adjacent tooth (NOT reproducing decent anatomy)
You did a #14MO amalgam. One year later on xray you discover recurrent decay at the gingival margin. You did not properly complete which step of the cavity prep?
margination
You’re about to restore #19MO #20 MO #21 MO. What order should you place the restoration in?
ANS: 21 20 19.
You’re about to restore 3 teeth in the maxillary left quadrant. Which tooth is most difficult in preventing gingival excess?
maxillary first premolar #12
Can medically treat non-cavitated caries due to buffering of saliva in all GV Black’s classifications except?
lingual surface of #9 Can treat med. on: #5F 14M 9D
1. What is enamel prism (rod) decussation?
a. relates to mineralization density
b. determines the shape of the tooth
c. an anti-crack propagating feature
d. none of the choices
C.
2. What is the one difference in cavity design for an amalgam versus a composite slot preparation?
a. Gingival extension
b. Extension onto the occlusal surface
c. Margination
d. Retention grooves
D.
3. There is D2 decay on both M & D of the tooth #14. The patient is low caries risk. The decay is also present in both occlusal fossaes. The decay does not undermine the oblique ridge. You should:
a. Cross the oblique ridge
b. Cut two slot preps
c. Cut two class II preps
d. Do not do treatment now, observe for 6 months
C
6. The facial wall of a class III prep parallels the lingual surface of the tooth. The facial wall most always break contact with the adjacent tooth.
1. The first statement is true; the second is false
2. The first statement is false the second is true
3. Both are true
4. Both are false
D
7. Polymerization shrinkage effects can be reduced by:
1. A prep designed to maximize cavity wall orientation to be in the plan of the enamel rod direction
2. Banking of composite resin against prepared surfaces
3. Using flowable composite, overlayed with a heavily filled mini hybrid composite
4. Polymerizing in layers of not more than 2mm thinkness
5. Banking the composite resin against prepared surfaces and polymerization in layers of not more than 2mm thinkness
5.
8. A line angle is where two surfaces come together. All line angles are rounded.
1. The first statement is true; the second is false
2. The first statement is false the second is true
3. Both are true
4. Both are false
Both are True
9. You placed and MO amalgam restoration on #30 one week ago. The patient returns complaining of pain on biting. Upon examination you find that the restoration has fractured at the isthmus. What is the most likely cause?
1. Failure to bevel the axial-pulpal line angle
2. Failure to bevel the gingival cavosurface margin
3. The axial depth is to great
4. The pulpal depth is to great
5. The omission of a liner
1.
10. After completing the insertion of a class II amalgam restoration, the correct sequence for the removal of the rubber dam is:
1. rubber dam frame
2. cutting interseptal rubber
3. clamp
4. rubber dam
a. 1, 3, 2, 4
b. 1, 2, 3, & 4
c. 2 then 1, 3, & 4 simultaneously
d. 3, 2 then 1 & 4 simultaneously
C
11. To provide resistance in the proximal box of a class II, the gingival floor should be placed in what position?
1. Parallel to the long axis of the tooth
2. Below the contact point
3. Perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth
4. At gingival level
3.
12. The instrument of to round the axio-pulpal angle for a DO amalgam preparation in tooth #19 has the following formula
1. 10-87-7-15
2. 10-83-7-15
3. 13-93-9-15
4. 10-97-7-15
5. 10-7-15
4.
13. In order for rubber dam clamps to stay in place on a tooth, they must:
1. He tied it down with dental floss
2. Kdlkflkf
3. Dental floss tied to the clamp and the rubber dam frame
4. Pass over both the lingual and facial heights of contour
4.
14. A patient has caries on the cusp tip of tooth #19. What class(es) could this be?
1. Class II
2. Class III
3. Class IV
4. Class V
5. Class VI
1. 1 only
2. 4 only
3. 1 or 4
4. 3 or 5
5. 5 only
Class VI????
15. Radiographic examination of a sixteen yr old male reveals a carious lesion on the distal surface of tooth #29. You elect to restore the tooth with amalgam. The ideal axial depth is
1. 1.0 mm
2. 1.3 mm
3. 1.5mm
4. 2.0mm
5. 2.5mm
1.0mm because it's a premolar
16. What is the best indicator in determining that a patient is a high risk for caries?
1. The presence of cavitated lesions
2. The frequency that a person ingests carbohydrates
3. The amount of plaque on their teeth
4. The genetics or family history
5. None of the choices
1.
17. Class I amalgam preparation on the occlusal surfaces of posterior teeth should be at least 1.3mm wide faciolingually. Resistance form for this preparation dictates that the gingival cavosurface margin should be flat
1. The first statement is true; the second is false
2. The first statement is false the second is true
3. Both are true
4. Both are false
4.
18. Use of the rubber dam is
1. Beneficial to the patient
2. Beneficial to the dentist
3. Not mandatory if the patient has respiratory problems
4. All of the above
4.
19. Radiographic examination of a 42 year old female patient reveals a carious lesion on the mesial surface of tooth #14. You elect to restore the tooth with amalgam. The ideal axial depth of the proximal box of this prep should be about:
1. .8-1.8mm
2. 1.0-1.3mm
3. 1.7-2mm
4. 2.0-2.5mm
2
20. A patient presents to you office who has worn almost through his/her enamel on the occlusal surfaces. You need to place an amalgam on the occlusal surface of tooth #15 which has 1/2mm of enamel left. Which statements are true:
1. the pulpal floor should be perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth
2. the amalgam must extend at least 0.5mm into dentin
3. the amalgam must be at least 1.7mm in thickness
4. the pulpal floor of the prep will need to be at least 1.5mm into dentin
a. 1,2,3
b. 1,3,4
c. 1,2
d. 3,4
e. 3 only
a.
21. A hand instrument with the formula 13-93-9-13 has a blade with a
1. Width of 13mm
2. Length of 13mm
3. Cutting edge that creates a 93 degree angle with the handle
4. Length of 9mm
3.
22. Convenience (access) form may be defined as that shape of the cavity prep which
1. Helps retain the restoration
2. Facilitates preps and restoration
3. Best hastens prep time
4. Bests resist the forces of mastication
2.
23. In the classic class II G.V. black preparation, you must break contact facially and lingually in the proximal must diverge occlusal- gingivally.
1. The first statement is true; the second is false
2. The first statement is false the second is true
3. Both are true
4. Both are false
3.
24. You have just completed a class V composite prep on a #4 half on enamel and half on dentin. For margination and retention you should:
1. Bevel all the margins
2. Bevel the occlusal enamel and place a retention groove gingivally
3. Place retention groove gingivally and occlusally
4. Bevel the enamel
4.
25. A carious lesion exists in the mesial and distal fossa of tooth #14. There is decay under the oblique ridge. The outline form of your prep will:
1. Include a distal wall which slightly undercuts the DL cusp
2. Include an axial wall which is 0.5 mm deep
3. Cross the oblique ridge
4. Have both a mesial and distal occlusal box
5. Have two separate preps

a. 1 & 2
b. 1 & 3
c. 3 only
d. 4 & 5
c.
26. When preparing a molar for two surface class II restoration, the uninvolved proximal wall ideally creates a 6 degree obtuse angle with respect to the pulpal floor. What step is this in cavity preparation?
a. margination
b. retention form
c. resistance form
d. convenience form
c.
28. Maxillary Class III composite preparation are never beveled around the lingual portion of the preparation. Contact must be broken gingivally.
a. the first statement is true; the second is false
b. the first statement is false; the second true
c. both statement are false
d. both statement are true
d.
29. Which of the following types of cavity preparation would have the highest “C” factors and thus have the potential for internal debonds when restored when composite ?
a. Class II with minimal occlusal extention
b. Class V with M,F,G, and O walls
c. Lingual approach Class III
d. Class IV of #8
e. All the choices have the same “C” factor
b.
30. Resistance form may be defined as:
a. that shape of the prep which helps retain the restoration
b. that shape of the prep which facilitates prep and restoration
c. that shape of the prep which best hastens preparation time
d. the part of the prep that best resists the forces of mastication
d.
31. A bevel placed at the cavosurface of a class III composite prep on tooth #10 is:
a. .5mm wide
b. at a 45 degree angle
c. 1.0mm wide
d. at a 55 degree angle
e. not necessary
e.
32. When placing a rubber dam on tooth #29, the rubber dam should extend from
a. second molar to the central incisor in the same quadrant
b. second molar to one tooth passed the midline
c. first premolar to first premolar
d. third molar to one tooth passed the midline
b.
34. Whether employing a two or three body abrasive method for polishing composites, which of the following is true of the abrasive?
1. must have a hardness at least equal to the hardness of the matrix resin.
2. must have a hardness greater than the hardness of the matrix resin
3. must have a hardness greater than the hardness of the rediopaque glass filler particles
4. must have a hardness greater than the hardness of the radiopaque metal particles
3.
36.the fourth number of there four numbers on a rectilinear instrument represents
1. the angle the entire blade makes with the handle
2. the cutting endge in tenths of a millimeter
3. the angle the cutting edge makes with the handle
4. the length of the blade in millimeters
1.
37. when restoring the occlusal of a mandibular second molar, which cusp is not functional in centric occlusion?
a. the mesiobuccal cusp
b. the distobuccal cusp
c. ML cusp
d. D cusp
c.
38. You entered an operatory where an operative procedure was just completed. On the bracket tray you notice a 10-97-7-15 instrument has been used. The dentist probably just completed which of the following?
a. an MO preparation on # 29
b. a DO prep. On # 29
c. an MO prep. On # 30
d. an MO prep. # 3
B
39. Polymerization shrinkage is thought to contribute to all of the following is resin composites restorations except?
a. margin straining
b. post- operative hypersensitive
c. secondary caries
d. cracking in enamel
e. occlusal wear
e.
The term that best describes removing unsupported enamel is

a. beveling
b. planning
c. preparing
b.
41.a patient presents with Class V caries on the facial of tooth # 12 that is subgingival. What is the best means to achieve a dry field?
1. retraction cord
2. rubber dam
3. butterfly rubber dam clamp
4. not possible to achieve

A. 3
B. 2
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 4
C.
42. Which tooth crown has a concavity that may compromise matrix band adaptation?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 15
D. 20
E. none
A.
43. you have just completed a Do restoration on tooth # 14. due to the ? of the caries, the gingival floor is gingival to the cemento- enamel junction. What instrument should be used to finish this gingival floor?
A. 10-7-15
B. 10-97-7-15
C. 10-83-7-15
D. 10-87-7-15
A.
44. The prep. For Class V amalgam should include

1. planning the gingival portion of the enamel
2. having a flat axial wall
3. mesial and distal walls that are at the right angles with the axial wall
4. beveling the occlusal portion of the enamel

A. 1 and 4
B. 1 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 2
E. 3
E.
45. the angle created at the junction of the lingual wall and the pulpal floor of an occlusal class I amalgam preparation should
A. be slightly acute or at 90 degree
B. be slightly obtuse or at 90 degree
C. approx. 98 deg.
D. Approx. 82 deg.
E. None
A.
46. You are a left handed dentist and you must plane the gingival margin for a DO prep. What rectilinear instrument would you use?
A. 13-97-9-15
B. 10-97-7-15
C. 10-83-7-15
D. 10-87-7-15

Ans. B
B.
47. why is dam inversion important?
A. to prevent negative pressure from sulcular fluid
B. to prevent positive pressure from suluclar fluid
C. to prevent the dam from slipping
D. to place the dam past contact point
B.
48. in an ideal Class III preparation the Outline from should
A. be semicircular n shape
B. converge towards the access
C. converge away from the access
D. cross the marginal ridge
B.
49. incipient caries has been detected by radiograph on the mesial of tooth #3. The location of the carries lesion is probably
A. facial to the contact area
B. lingual to the contact area
C. gingival to the contact area
D. occlusal to the contact area
C.
50. the tapering form in the proximal box is what step of cavity prep?
A. outline form
B. retention form
C. resistance form
D. access from
B.
51. what class of cavity preparation may you leave unsupported enamel?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. None
C.
52. the order of steps prior t o placing a Class III is
1. rubber dam
2. shade selection
3. acid etch
4. composite
5. bonding agent

A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B. 1, 3, 5, 2, 4
C. 2, 1, 3, 5, 4
D. 3, 5, 2, 1, 4
C.
53. a flat gingival floor is which step of cavity preparation?
A. outline form
B. B. resistance form
C. Retention
D. Access form.
C.
55. you have just prepared tooth # 13 for an MO amalgam restoration. There are no molars present in that quadrant. Holding the rubber dam in place could best be accomplished by
A. placing a clamp on tooth # 13
B. placing a clamp on tooth #12
C. tying # 13 down with dental floss
D. trying #13 down with dental floss
E. using no clamp
F. E. using a Tofflemire retainer on tooth # 13
E.
57 . what is the best suited rectilinear instrument to smooth the pulpal floor for an amalgam preparation?
A hatchet
B excavator
C hoe
D 1536 burr
E none of the choices
C.
58. the appropriate hand instrument used to place the gingival cavosurface margin on the distal of tooth # 19 has the formula
a 10-97-7-15
b 13-9-15
c 10-83-7-15
d 10-7-15
A.
59. What is an example of a smooth surface caries
1 class I
2. class II
3. class III
4. class V


a I only
b. 1 and 2
c. 1 and 3
D. 2,3, and 4
E. 3 and 4
D.
60. in a classic class II preparation, retention is accomplished by parallel walls in the proximal box. The occlusal portion has acute angles facial-lingually.
a. the second statement is true the first statement is false
b. the first statement is true, the second is false
c. both statement are true
d. both statement are false
C.
61. There a fracture of the MI of tooth #10. What is the G.V. black classification of the restoration that will replace the missing tooth structure.

a. I
b. II
c. III
d.IV
e. VI
d.
where do you place retention groove (s) for a class III preparation?
A. incinally
B. gingivally
c. both incinally and gingivally
d. none of the choices
d.
63. wedges may be used to accompany wich of the following?
a. adapt the gingial portions of the matrix band to the tooth
b. stabilize the tofflencire band
c. prevent amagum entrusion which will form overlaings
d. re-establish the proximal contact
e all of the above are correct
e.
64. you are preparing a class V on a natural tooth. How is retention accomplished for an amalgam restoratives?
a. Retention groove gingivally
b. retention groove occlusally
c. no retention grooves
d. retention groove gingivally and retention groove occlusally
e. bonding
d.
65. in a classic surface amalgam class II preparation, the outline form should
1. be 1.3 mm when measured at the narrowest position on the occlusal
2. just break contact facially, lingually and gingivally in the proximal box
3. be in the middle ½ mesio-distally
4. maintain the integrity of the opposite marginal ridge
5. go half way up the major grooves occlusally
a. 3 and 5
b. 2 and 5
c. 2 and 4
d. 3 and 4
c.
66. what is the cause of abfraction?
a. flexion of the tooth due to occlusal loading
b. tooth brush abrasion
c. chemicals
d. caries
a.
67. a reason for pre-wedging is to get separation between adjoining teeth. Thus you will be able to:
A. get better contact for restoration
B. prevent overhang
C. make it easier to place a matrix
D. mold the interproximal restoration.
A.
68. what is the primary reason the dental amalgam is being removed from usage in some counties?
A. mercury from dental amalgam can cause neurological problems
B. mercury from dental amalgam is teratogen
C. mercury from amalgam scraps is an environmental pollutant
D. mercury in the elemental from released from dental amalgam is very toxic
C.
69. adhesion to etched enamel depends primary upon all the following except?
A. large surface are of etched enamel
B. formation of covalent bonds between the resin and the hydroxiapetite crystals on the surface
C. close adaptation of the resin to the enamel surface
D. high surface energy of the etched enamel which promotes high surface energy
E. penetration of resin into the structure around and in the enamel rods.
B.
70. How is saliva important in limiting or reducing the potential for caries?
A. dissolves the plaque
B . increases the Ph of saliva
C. removes of washes away bacteria
D. dilutes the sugar content in the mouth
B.
71. The parallel arrangement of enamel rods as they approach the outer surface of the enamel creates a structure that
A. has the highest hardness of the surface
B. directs cracks along the rods into the surface
C. has the highest wear resistant
D. has the highest elastic moduleus
E. all of the above
E.
75. under trituration of dental amalgams results in all of the following except?
a. low concentration of gamma two phase
b a dry crumbly mass difficult to remain in an amalgam carrier
c. voids in the condensed mass
d. lack of adaptation to preparation walls
e. slow setting and difficult to condense
A.
76. The decay pattern of class I will have the base of the V at the enamel surface. The decay pattern of class III will have of the V at the enamel surface

a. the first state is true: the 2nd is false
b. 1st is false: 2nd true
c. both true
d. both false
a.
77. u are preparing a maxillary molar for an ideal Class V restoration that will have all margins finished on enamel. The axial depth for this preparation will be:
a. 1 mm both occlusion/ incisally and gingivally
b. 1mm occlusal/ incisally, 1.5mm gingivally
c. 1.5 both occlusal/incisally and gingivally
d. 1.5 mm occlusal/ incusally, 1mm gingivally
d.
78. what instruments must u always have out when examining a patient.
a. tweezers and mirror
b. mirror and explorer
c. tweezers, mirror and explorer
d. college pliers, mirror and explorer
d.
79. how long should the acid be in contact with tooth structure prior to rinsing off?
a. 1 minute
b. 1/2 of a min
c. ¼ of a min
d. 1/60 of a min
c.
80. in a class V composite preparation that is entirely on enamel, which of the following statements is/ are true?
1. bevel the apical portion
2. bevel the occlusal portion
3. the bevel should be at a 45 degree angle
4. bevel the mesial and distal portions
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 1 and 4
e. All of the choices.
e.
81. as OL preparation of tooth #3 is an ex of a
a. class 1 simple cavity
b. class 1 compound cavity
c. class II compound cavity
d. class II simple cavity
b.
82. non carious loss of tooth structure includes all of the following except?
A. abrasion
B. erosion
C. cavitation
D. abfraction
C.
83. when checking the occlusion with articulating paper on tooth #30, a high spot in observed on the amalgam in the central fossa. Which cusp is prematurely hitting the amalgam?
A. mesiobuccal cusp 3
B. distal cusp 3
C. distolingual cusp 3
D. mesiobuccal cusp 4
E. mesiolingual cusp 3
E.
84. in a contemporary class II amalgam, how would u treat the proximal box?
1. break facial contact
2. break gingival contact
3. not break lingual contact
4 place retention groves
5. plane unsupported rods gingivally
a. 1,2 and 3
b 2, 3, 4, and 5
c. 1, 2, 4 and 5
d 4 only
b.
85. decussating of enamel rods bundles in human teeth provide a structure
a. that limits cracks from DEJ to the enamel surface
b. to fill space with limited number of ameloblasts
c that limits cracks from the surface from reaching the dej
d that limits cracks to being parallel to the incisal/ occlusal plane
e. that limits cracks from the dej to the enamel surface and that limits cracks to being parallel to the incisal/ occlusal plane
e.
86. which of the following is / are components of retention.
a. at least 1-1.3 mm axial depth
b. at least 2 mm of amalgam
c. parallel walls in proximal box
d. a and c
e. b and c
c.
87. undercuts are placed in some cavity preparations as a means for mechanical retention. When indicated are placed, undercuts must always be placed:
1. ½ mm from dentin-enamel junction
2. in dentin
3. in enamel
4. at the dentin-enamel junction
A 1 and 2
B 1 and 4
C 2 only
D 2 and 4
E 1 and 4
A
88. what areas of a class II prep provide a portion of the resistance form?
a. axial wall
b. rounded axial-pulpal line angle
c. pulpal floor
d. axial wall and pulpal floor
e. rounded axial-pulpal line angle and pulpal floor.
e.
89. what is the most frequent cause of xerostomia
a. hereditary factors
b. diet
c. drugs
d. systemic disease
e. trauma
c.
90. the facial and lingual walls of the proximal box of a class II amalgam prep
1. diverge towards the gingival margin
2. are planned
3. are strictly internal walls
4. are parallel
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4
E. 2 and 4
D.
91. the pulpal wall is perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth. The axial wall is parallel to the long axis of the tooth.
a. both statements are false
b. both are true
c. 1st true, 2nd false
d. 1st false, 2 nd true
b.
93. in long term clinical studies of dental amalgam, what formulations provide the best clinical results with regard to longevity and reduced margin fracture?
a. low copper alloys with low gamma two phase compositions
b. high copper alloys without zinc
c. low cupper alloys with zinc and high gamma two phase compositions
d. high copper alloys with zinc
e. low copper alloys with palladium
D.
94. on x-rays u observe decay on the D surface of #3 that has penetrated into dentin. During the prep of DO on this tooth u do not see the decay. What did u not do?
a. extend the prep further gingivally
b. extend the prep further pulpally
c. extend the prep further axially
d. break contact facially and lingually
a.
95. what is the primary reason for the condensation of triturated dental amalgam in a prep?
a. reduce mercury to alloy ration and eliminate the gamma phase
b. eliminate internal voids in the amalgam which reduce strength and leads to bulk fracture?
c. Eliminate copper from the final set mass?
d. Provide a seal at cavity walls and margin
d.
96. what is the most common long term reason for failure of amalgam restoration?
a. 2nd caries
b. bulk fracture
c. amalgam expansion and tooth fracture
d. margin breakdown resulting in ditched margins
b.
97. u are about to prep tooth 30 for an MO restoration. After placing a rubber dam, what is the next step?
a. placing a wedge to get separation
b. placing a matrix band between on tooth 29 and 30
c. prep 30
d. anesthesia
b.
98. the beveling of the axio- pulpal line angle is a feature of what step of cavity prep?
a. outline form
b. resistance form
c. retention form
d. margination
b.
99. u place an MO amalgam restoration on #14. at one year u take a new radiograph and discover recurrent decay at the gingival margin. The probable cause is not properly competing with step of cavity prep?
a. outline form
b. resistance form
c. retension form
d. access form
e. margination
e.
100. what is the reason for removing unsupported enamel in amalgam prep?
a. aesthetics
b. to break contact with the adjacent tooth
c. tp prevent recurrent decay
d. one of the seven steps of cavity preps.
c.
What are the elements of amalgam?
Ag, Sn, Cu, and Zn + Hg
What are the components of amalgam?
It's a mix of allow (Ag-Sn) and Hg
What does silver do with amalgam?
increases the mechanical resistance and and delay shiny appearance loss and corrosion
What does tin do in amalgam?
reduces the expansion, facilitates amalgamation, reduces hardening time
What does copper do with amalgam?
increases the hardness and the mechanical resistance of the amalgam
What does zinc do with amalgam?
Antioxidant; expansion
What are the 3 classifications of amalgams based on composition?
1. Traditional
2. High Copper Content
3. High copper content (single composition)
4. without Zinc
Traditional Low Copper
Ag 65%
Sn 29%
Cu 6%
Zn 2%
Traditional low copper amalgam setting reaction
Ag3Sn + Hg -->
(gamma)

Ag2Hg3 + Sn7/8Hg
(gamma 1) (Gamma 2)

+ Ag3Sn
(gamma)
What is a problem with traditional low copper amalgam?
1. Problem is Gamma 2 Phase, which is corrosion prone
2. Expansion results from Hg release and re-reaction with γ phase
3. Has margin breakdown
4. Lower Strength
The High copper content (admixed alloy) has how much copper?
9-20%
The high copper content (admixed alloy) has 2 reactions, what are they?
First reaction:

Ag3Sn + AgCu + Hg -->
(gamma)

Ag2Hg3 + Sn7/8Hg
(gamma 1) (Gamma 2)

+ Ag3Sn + AgCu
(gamma)

Second reaction:

Sn7/8Hg + AgCu
(gamma 2)

-->

CuSn5 + Ag2Hg3
(eta) (gamma 1)
In high copper (single composition) is there a gamma 2 phase?
No
high copper (single composition) amalgam reaction
Ag3Sn + Cu3Sn + Hg
(Gamma) (epsilon)

-->

Ag2Hg3 + Cu6Sn5 +
(Gamma 1) (eta)

Ag3Sn + Cu3Sn
(Gamma) (epsilon)
What are the high copper (single composition) alloy particles?
Ag, Sn, and Cu

alloy particles + Hg = AgHg + CuSn +non reactive particles
What is good about not having zinc in amalgams?
it's without late expansion
What is bad about not having zinc in amalgams?
more brittle, less plastic, and more corrosion prone.
Why does zinc cause late expansion in amalgam?
Moisture contamination Zinc + water leads to zinc oxide and may have late expansion and cause dental cracks because of the pressure.
Excess mercury causes? and a lack of mercury causes?
1. a decrease in the physical and mechanical properties
2. an increase causes porosity, rough, dry, and irregular surface
The necessity to remove excess Hg is only in what phase?
condensing phase
What particles need less Hg?
spheroidal particles
Trituration capsules
§Trituration capsules contain alloy powder
§Hg in compartment
§Activated before or during mixing
§Pestle
Proper Trituration
§Adequate plasticity for
§Pick-up in amalgam carrier
§Adaptation to cavity walls
§Minimal voids in mass a7er condensation
§Adequate working time
§3-4 minutes from start of trituration
NEVER PUSH THE WORKING TIME – MAKE ANOTHER MIX FOR LARGE RESTORATIONS !!!
Under Trituration
§Dry crumbly mix
§Difficult to pick-up and condense
§Strength reduced with voids during condensation
§Slow setting (usually)
Overtrituration
Shiny plastic mass that clings to pestle or in trituration capsule
§Difficult to condense = too plastic
§Sets rapidly
What amalgam do we use at NYUCD?
Valiant PhD – XT (extended working time)

§Dispersed phase alloy = combination of lathe fillings and spheres §Hg:Alloy Ratio 0.94:1
§Working (condensation) time = 4 min
What is the Recommended trituration time for Valiant PhD-XT with ProMix amalgamator?
single 7-9 seconds
Double 9-10 seconds
What factors influence dimensional alterations of amalgam?
1. Hg/fillings proportion
2. Condensation pressure
3. Milling time
Miller’s Acid Decalcification Theory of Dental Caries
Step 1: Mixed bacteria resident in the mouth produce acid from fermentable
carbohydrate

Step 2: The acid produced dissolves tooth mineral to initiate and sustain cavity producing process
Dental Embryology
Enamel Crystals begin to be deposited at the DEJ secreted by the ameloblast from the DEJ to the tooth surface in ribbon like enamel crystals.

Enamel crystals are laid down by the Tomes’ process. The enamel crystals mature to hydroxyapetite and is laid down in “rod” format in the shape of a “C” axis parallel to each other.

What is the critical enamel pH?
Critical plaque pH= 5.5
below= demineralization- mineral loss above= remineralization- mineral gain
Caries is a dissolution process!
What is the critical dentin pH?
6.2
Treatment alternatives when treating a dental carious lesion.
Plaque Control-remove the etiology Remineralize/Fluoride Therapy
Class V treat with minimally invasive prep Slot Preparation/Sealant
Conventional Class II Preparation
How does tooth form?
Teeth are created from four or five enamel organs depositing enamel independently.
The independent cusps coalesce in the formation of the “groove”.
Some grooves are well coalesced,
some are partially coalesced some are wide open!
What are the treatment choices with groove caries?
Do nothing and observe
Sealant
Minimal invasive occlussal composite and sealant
Full groove composite Full groove amalgam
Maxillary Arch is a Parabolic from?
canine to canine
Canine to MB of 1st molar is a straight line in?
maxillary arch.
DB of Max 1st molar to 3rd molar is a?
straight line.
Mandibular arch is smaller than the maxillary arch and the central grooves of the posteriors are in a?
straight line.
Horizontal =
overlap
Vertical =
overbite
Overjet =
Horizontal Overbite – both facial of upper teeth and lingual of lower teeth.
Overbite =
vertical overlap – refers to anterior teeth. Facial of maxillary teeth.
Maxillary arch is
convex and the mandibular arch is concave.
Curve of Wilson is
the mediolateral compensating curve.
Anterior-posterior compensating curve is
the Curve of Spee.
Proximal contact areas do what?
protect gingival papilla stabilizes the dental arches reduces susceptibility to caries and prevents food impaction.
The ideal position and height of lingual cusps of Mandibular 1st molar accommodates?
working movement.
Why do we have marginal ridges?
To deflect the food away from the interproximal areas. The height of contour on the facial and lingual is used to deflect food away from the gum.
Missing tooth can cause?
Mesial and distal drifting of the teeth that were proximal to it and it can also allow for super-eruption.
Incisal 2/3 are vertical when you set denture teeth and in the natural dentition and generally when we talk about inclination it is with respect to the?
root.
If the crown inclines facial then the root inclines to the?
lingual.
If the crown inclines to the mesial then the root inclines to the?
distal.
From the view of the sagittal plane
the axial crown inclination of anterior teeth inclines?, Facially and the roots lingually.
Maxillary central incisors have the greatest inclination facially followed by?
max. lateral incisors, and mandibular incisors.
All teeth tilt facially with their roots lingual except?
The mandibular 2nd premolars and mandibular molars.
What teeth are called the straightest teeth in the mouth?
Premolars
All teeth tilt mesially except?
maxillary central incisors and mandibular central and lateral incisors.
The maxillary canines have the greatest?
mesial tilt.
All mandibular and maxillary teeth have a distal root inclination except?
Maxillary central incisors.
Mandibular Posterior teeth roots are inclined
FACIALLY, with their crowns inclined LINGUALLY
Maxillary posterior teeth roots are inclined
LINGUALLY, with their crowns inclined FACIALLY.
Centric occlusion=CO=
maximum intercuspal position. Habitual position and acquired position.
Outer table is facial to?
facial cusps
Inner table is between?
the cusps
Outer table is lingual to?
lingual cusps
The inner occlusal table is basically for which cusps?
the supporting cusps and the outer occlusal table is basically for the guiding cusps.
In the intercuspal position which anterior tooth has potential of contacting both anterior and posterior antagonists?
Maxillary canine and Mandibular 1st premolar is the other tooth, but it is a posterior tooth.
All teeth have two antagonists except?
Maxillary 3rd molars and mandibular central incisors.
Mandibular teeth are located ½ cusp
anterior of maxillary teeth.
The two classification of cusps are?
supporting and guiding.
The side shift of the mandible is known as?
BENNETT movement.
The nonworking condyle moves?
Downward FWD and medial.
The upper compartment of TMJ is?
that space between the disc and the articular fossa and eminence.
When viewed from the occlusal the arrangement of the teeth are
parabolic.
When viewed from the occlusal the 4 posterior teeth in the mandibular arch are aligned in a
straight line.
The thickest section of the articular disc when seen in the sagittal plane is the
posterior border.
The occlusal table of a posterior tooth makes up _____________of the total facio lingual dimension.
55-65%
Anterior guidance plays the greatest role in discluding the posterior teeth in?
latero-protrusive.
Ligaments associated with TMJ serve to?
protect surrounding and supporting tissues from damage.
Centric relation is a what position?
ligament guided position.
The physiological rest position is established when the mastication muscles are in?
tonic equilibrium
The overjet and overbite provide some degree of protection for?
lips cheeks and tongue.
The principle muscles that retrude the mandible are the?
posterior fibers of the temporalis.
The temporomandibular ligament limits the extent of?
jaw opening
The temporomandibular ligament initiates?
translation of the condyle down the articular eminence.
Bennett movement occurs during the earliest stage of?
lateral movement.
Lateral pterygoid muscles are primarily responsible for?
protrusive movement.
The curve of spee is?
the anterior posterior curvature of the occlusal surfaces as seen in a facial view.
The right lateral pterygoid is the prime mover in?
effecting a left working movement.
TMJ has 2 what?
synovial cavities.
The condyle on the working side generally rotates about a vertical axis and translates?
laterally
The BENNETT MOVEMENT is the bodily shift of the mandible toward the?
working condyle.
The TMJ is protected by?
synovial fluid fibrocartilage ligament suspension and masticatory muscles.
The disk of the TMJ is moved fwd principally?
by the lateral pterygoid.
Physiological rest position is a?
muscle guide position.
Teeth are in contact in intercuspal position during?
NON masticatory swallowing.
Contraction of the lateral pterygoid produces?
fwd movement of the condyle from the articular fossa.
The physiological rest position is also known as?
Postural Position.
In Posselt’s envelope of motion maximum intercuspal position is the most?
superior point.
The glenoid fossa is a depression in the temporal bone just anterior to?
the auditory canal.
The lateral pterygoid muscle is NOT an elevator of?
the mandible.
Usual overjet is how man mm?
2-4mm.
Physiological rest position occurs when the mastication muscles are in?
tonic equilibrium.
When the mandible moves from CO to edge to edge the condyles move?
FWD and downward.
Working side =
laterotrusive → latero-protrusive
Non working side =
mediotrusive/balancing
Protrusive movement is for?
biting.
Retrusive movement is for?
non-functional movement.
If arrow is on the maxilla →
mandible is moving in that direction.
If arrow is on the mandible →
mandible is moving in opposite direction
Lateral movement of the mandible =
mandibular lateral translation
2 synovial cavities are separated by?
fibrocartilage
Condyle articulates with the mandibular fossa by?
zygoma in front of the ear.
Clenching causes sensitivity near the?
ear.
If condyle is in front of articular eminence you can’t close the jaw. You need what to put it back in place?
downward motion to put it back in place
Angle class I malocclusion:
could be crowded and with an overbite/overjet.
Class II malocclusion
the upper teeth are forward of normal occlusion.
Class III malocclusion
the lower teeth are forward normal occlusion.
Centric occlusion is maximum?
intercuspation.
Centric relation is the most posterior position of the mandible relative to the maxilla with the mandible retruded maximally. It’s a what relationship?
bone to bone relationship.
Humans chew in a vertical-occlusal motion. We don’t operate solely on hinge axis b/c we can translate one side fwd while the other is?
retruded.
Teeth contact less than what % while chewing?
50% while chewing.