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280 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Min taxiway width for a 180


Min flight crew O2 for dispatch

1000 psi

Min quantities for engine oil

Mx station: 9 quarts

Non MX station: 7 quarts

Min hydraulic quantities

7 quarts/system

What does Thunderstorm ON light do?

Overrides individual lighting controls to illuminate instrument and control panel floodlights full bright

What does EMER LT switch do?

ON: activates emergency battery packs to illuminate emergency lights

EXT ON (landing light)

Extends landing light with lamp on

Which lights are inhibited during ground ops?










Max lateral fuel imbalance?

1500 lbs

Preflight for center fuel pumps?

Prior to engine start, when center pump fuel will be used, center tank pumps must be individually checked

Limit on using speed brakes when flaps are extended

Not with flaps >20

What does PASS OXY MASK switch do?

Opens all compartment doors, O2 masks will free fall. Do not hold eject for >5 seconds

How many emergency exits?


How many emergency exit doors?


When is the AVIONICS COOLING switch operative?

In flight only

If the primary avionics cooling fan fails, what happens?

Backup fan comes on automatically

What does the AVIONICS COOLING switch do when moved to OVRD?

Venturi valve commanded open and Venturi airflow cools the radios

What does RAM AIR switch do when ON?

Ram air valve commanded open allowing ram air to enter the air conditioning ducts

Can we use the RAM AIR switch to ventilate the aircraft on the ground?


What does the PACK SHUTDOWN switch do in OVRD?

Overrides the auto pack shutdown for an engine failure OR when packs are selected off in FMC

When is the auto pack shutdown feature disarmed?

Above 3000 agl

Will a pack auto shutdown if a high supply duct temp is sensed?

YES- cannot be overridden w PACK SHUTDOWN switch

What position must the FLOW switch be in for takeoff?


What does the ISOL switch do in AUTO?

Isolation valve controlled by pneumatic systems controller, allows auto crossfeed of L and R pneumatic systems during single bleed ops w a/I ON

Where are cabin altitude and rate displayed?

AIR SD page and Secondary Engine SD synoptic

What does the Instrument Panel Flow Indicator tell us when ON?

On ground, w ac off, indicates instrument panel cooling fan airflow

What does Instrument Panel Flow Indicator tell us when OFF?

On ground, w ac off, indicates absence of airflow and cooling fan failure

When do the indications of the Instrument Panel Flow indicator apply?

Only during ground and flight ops w both ac packs off

During ground ops, w 1 pack selected AUTO, is the instrument cooling fan operating?


During ground ops w BOTH packs selected to AUTO, is the instrument panel cooling fan operating?

NO- cooling provided by aircraft ac system

When both pilots leave the cockpit with the APU running, what needs to be done?

1 ac pack should be selected OFF, as to preclude possible DU overheats in the instance of an inadvertent APU shutdown

In flight, when will the instrument cooling fan operate?

BOTH ac packs must be OFF

Is the ball indicator on the Instrument Panel Flow Indicator designed to measure flow from the packs?


What does the Gasper Booster Fan do when ON?

Provides supplemental ventilation w or w/o packs operating

What does the Gasper Boost Fan switch do when ON with packs running?

Increases cold air ventilation thru the eyeball outlets

When do we see the SELECT light illuminate on the CABIN PRESS control panel?

Failure of both cabin pressure controllers

What happens when we push MANUAL on the CABIN PRESS control panel?

-MANUAL illuminates and the cabin pressurization system operates in manual mode

-Also used to alternate control between cabin PCs (auto 1 and auto 2)

What does MANUAL LDG ALT switch do?

Used to set landing altitude when FMA data is not available

What is the procedure for a Packs OFF Takeoff?

-TO/APPR key---- push

-PACKS----- line select ON to OFF


On a Packs OFF Takeoff, when will the packs be shutoff and when do they come back?

Throttle advance, come back at 3000 agl

How is the FW cargo compt heated?


How is Aft cargo compt heated?

Cabin exhaust air

Where are live animals to be transported?

FW cargo compt, forward of the cargo door


Pneumatic Overheat Detection System

When is PODS tested?

Automatically when the engine fire test is performed

What does PODS do?

Detects overheat conditions in tail compt and along wing and tail a/I manifolds- closes respective a/I valves automatically when it senses failure

Icing conditions

OAT is 6 or below (10 or below in flight) AND:

-visible moisture (clouds, rain etc fog when <1 mi vis) present

-3 or < temp/dew pt spread

-ice, snow, slush, standing H20 present on ramp, taxiway or rw

What is the engine run up requirement?

Run engines to min of 40% N1 for approximately 10 seconds at intervals no >60 min

What is a standing takeoff?

Accomplished by holding the brakes, while in position on RW, until engines have stabilized at or above 50% N1 before starting the takeoff roll

What does the AIR DATA Heat push button do?

When dark, means all heater circuits for pitots, rudder limiters, stall probes, static ports and RAT probes are energized.

Which probe heat is inhibited during ground ops?

RAT probe heat

When does the Wing Ice Detection system work

On the ground only; inhibited during takeoff, landing and in flight

Are we allowed to takeoff with the "WING ICE DETECTED" alert displayed?


Which pilot windshields are electrically anti-iced and de-fogged?

L, C and R pilot windshields

Are the clear view windows anti-iced? Anti-fogged?

No anti-ice but they ARE anti-fogged

Which control surfaces are anti-iced with engine bleed air?

Wing slats and horizontal stab leading edge (from either or both engines)

Which engine components are anti-iced

Respective engine nose cowl

Are engine anti-ice systems independent of the airfoil anti-ice systems?


What happens when we pull the altitude select knob?

Airplane will climb or descend directly to selected altitude (AT's will go to climb thrust or idle descent as required)

What happens when we push the altitude select knob?

Airplane will hold current altitude

What does PROF switch do?

-Engages FMS vertical guidance

-in flight, can also be used to engage AT system

How can FMS speed be edited?

By pre-selecting an FCP speed and immediately pushing the FMS SPD switch.

Can edited FMS speeds be cleared?

No- only modified

How is FMS speed disengaged?

-Pushing or pulling the IAS/MACH select knob OR

-engaging GA

What happens when you push the FMS SPD switch?

Selects the armed FMS speed, speed window dashes out and FMS speed changes from white to magenta

What happens when we PULL the IAS/MACH knob?

Hold speed selected in the window

What happens when we PUSH the IAS/MACH knob?

Will maintain current speed and window displays that speed

What is required to arm the APPR/LAND mode?

A tuned ILS

What does the AUTOFLIGHT switch do?

Engages ATS and 1 AP. After AP engagement, each push alternates between AP 1 and AP 2

What happens when we push the AFS OVRD switches?

Allows emergency disconnect of respective AP, AT and Yaw damper

When is Mach trim provided?

Only when AP is NOT engaged

What does Mach trim do?

Stabilizer automatically moves to compensate for pitch force caused by Mach number

What does the Bank Angle Limit Selector vary with?


Can the Bank Angle Limiter override FMS bank angle limits?


What happens when we PULL the HDG/TRK Selector knob?

Aircraft captures and follows selected heading or track in the display window

What happens when we PUSH the HDG/TRK selector knob?

Aircraft rolls out and maintains current heading or track. The window will display this heading or track

When will we see an amber ATS OFF message?

If a condition exists that precludes ATS re-engagement

What happens when we hit the GA switches?

-FDs to GA (even if off)

-AP (if on) follows FD

-ATS goes to GA thrust limits

-parallel rudder active

-bank limited to 10

-ref spd, PITCH and GA on FMA

-windshear guidance comes on if warning is active

With the ATS OFF, are we assured speed protection?

YES- maintains a speed above stall and below max

Does VERT SPD have priority over ATS?

YES- if excessive VS is commanded, possible to exceed aircraft speed limitations

What happens when an excessive VS climb is commanded?

At Vmin, VS disengages and changes to level change mode. Pitch controls speed and window changes to CLB thrust

What happens when we get a selcal?

Respective mic switch on the ACP illuminates in conjunction w a chime

What does the IDENT switch on the ACP do when we push it once? Twice?

-Selects voice and coded ID of Nav1/Nav2 receivers (ON illuminated)

-push again and selects only voice ID of Nav1/Nav2 receivers (switch is dark)

How do we deactivate the 02 mask microphone?

Close the storage box doors and push the TEST/RESET button

What does pushing the COMM TEST button temporarily disable?


How do we call the cabin?

ATTND CALL switchlight

How do we sound the mechanic call horn?

MECH CALL switch light

What does the MAINT INTPH ON switch light do?

Push switch light to activate all service inter phone jacks throughout the airplane

Do flight deck PA announcements take priority over the cabin crew announcements?


What does SERVICE interphone allow for?

Communications between the various service and maintenance locations around the aircraft, the cockpit and FA stations

What does the FLIGHT interphone provide?

Communications between the flight crew and at the external power panel and avionics compartment

What system does the SELCAL interface with?


How long of a record does the CVR make and preserve?

2 hours

How can the CVR be erased?

On the ground, parking brake set, Push the ERASE button

What happens to communications when operating a GEN L OFF (and left AC and DC busses Amber) OR Complete Loss of AC Power?

NO FA chime exists; CABIN INTERPHONE must be selected ON

With battery switch OFF, what is battery connected to?

Battery direct bus

With battery switch ON, what is battery connected to?

Battery direct bus AND

DC transfer bus

When and how can we test EMER PWR?

On ground w both engines shut down, move switch from OFF to ARM

When in ARM, when does the EMER PWR supply emergency power?

Automatically when power loss in the EMER AC or DC bus is detected

If external power is available and both pilots leave the flight deck, what should be done?

EMER PWR selector to OFF

What happens when EMER PWR is ON?

Battery supplies power for AC EMER bus (thru a static inverter) and DC EMER bus

Which buses are powered by EMER power? And for how long?

Battery direct bus

DC Transfer bus

Emergency AC bus (inverter)

Emergency DC bus

60 min

What happens when the BUS TIE switches are in AUTO?

Generator bus to Tie bus connection is controlled automatically to meet power requirements

What happens when we move the DC BUS TIE to OPEN?

Opens all 3 DC bus tie relays

What does the L/R GEN switch do?

OFF- disconnects the generator from its respective bus

ON- allows operating generator to supply power to its respective bus

What is happening with the APU Power switch ON?

Allows APU generator to supply power to the tie bus

What does EXT power switch do in ON position?

Connects EXT PWR to tie bus

When may we still see a break in power (despite the NBPT)?

During transfer from APU to an external source OR if a supplying generator experiences unexpected loss of power

What does a green EXT PWR AVAIL mean?

EXT power connected and within limits

Thrust rating of BR 715s?

21,000 lbs

Engine starter duty cycle

-3 start attempts

-15 seconds between each

-after, allow 15 min of starter cooling

Requirements for engine auto-start


-ENG START switch- Pulled

-FUEL switch- ON

Does auto-start provide TGT protection?

Yes- no fuel introduction unless TGT is below 150C

Does auto-start automatically motor the engine for 30 seconds before introducing fuel?


What would cause an auto-abort?

-hung start

-3 min starter duty time exceeded

-hot start (700C)

-fuel ON condition not met (TGT >150C)

-loss of valid N2 input

-certain EEC channel failures

Can we auto-start in flight?


Engine warmup/cool down times

Sitting >2 hours, 3 min warmup

3 min cool down (ENGINE COOL alert)

Approximate STD engine indications after stabilized start:

EPR- 1.0

N1- 20%

TGT- 400

N2- 60%

FF- 700

Oil press- 45

3 main components of FADEC


Throttle module


When is EEC auto relight armed?

Engine start to shutdown

What causes automatic activation of BOTH ignition systems?

Combustor instability

Significant water/ice ingestion


How do we select emergency thrust?

By pushing the thrust levers thru the mechanical gate

What is thrust management based on in emergency thrust?

N1 (no longer EPR)

What will happen to ATS when on emergency thrust?

ATS disconnects automatically

What is MAXIMUM power?

Thrust limit achieved at the forward throttle gate

When landing one engine inop, how long will the reverser on the inop engine deploy for?

Permitted to deploy for 30 seconds after nose wheel compression

When do we see the amber U/L displayed on the EAD?

When reversers are out of stowed position

When will we see red REV? What happens automatically?

Uncommanded reverser deployment in flight

EEC will automatically reduce thrust on affected engine to idle

What is emergency reverse power?

Pulling reverse thrust levers thru the mechanical gate- can cause damage, call mx

When would we see Amber REV where EPR should appear on the EAD?

When using emergency reverse power

What does ENG EXCEEDANCE RESET switch do?

Resets any exceedence on the EPR, N1, TGT, and N2 primary engine synoptic displays

APU starter motor duty cucle

Limited to 3 consecutive starts

Then wait 30 min

How is APU fuel normally supplied

Right tank

Can L or C fuel tanks supply APU?


What could be a problem when using C fuel tanks to fuel the APU?

When quantity is <800 lbs, using C fuel pumps can force air into APU fuel line and cause APU flameout or prevent start

How long is APU bleed air inhibited after start?

2 min

How do we verify APU shutdown?

Absence of APU information block on SD ENG display (about 1 min)

Shutting down APU with no external power:

BATT switch and EMER PWR selector must remain ON until shutdown is complete

Shutting down APU WITH external power connected:

EXT Power or the GROUND SERVICE ELEC PWR switch (along w BATT switch and EMER PWR selector) must remain ON til shutdown is complete

What and why is the delay for APU shutdown?

NBPT- 17 seconds

When is APU shutdown delay bypassed?

When APU FIRE CONT toggle is moved to OFF & AGENT ARM position OR

-If ground APU toggle is moved to shutoff OR

-If an APU Fire is detected

When does the APU auto shutdown on the ground?

-When conditions are present that could damage the APU

-APU AUTO SHUTDOWN alert is displayed

What indications will be missing when conducting a FIRE WARNING test using BATTERY POWER only?

FO's MASTER WARNING light will not illuminate and the cyan PODS TEST PASS alert will not be displayed.

After all busses powered redo the TEST

Indications of Engine Fire:

-MASTER WARNING lights flash

-Aural/vocal warning sound

-L/R ENG FIRE handle illuminates

-FUEL switch light illuminates


Indications of APU Fire:

-MASTER WARNING lights flash

-APU automatically shuts down

-Aura/vocal warnings sound

-APU FIRE alert displayed on EAD

-FIRE light on external APU ground control panel illuminates

Indications of a CARGO SMOKE or FIRE:

-MASTER WARNING lights flash

-MASTER CAUTION lights illuminate

-Aural/vocal warnings sound

-CARGO SMOKE FWD (AFT) level 3 alert on EAD and AIR SD

-"Land at nearest suitable" displayed on consequence page


-AIR SD will display red triangles


-AGENT DISCH switchlight will flash PUSH

Will the second bottle blow automatically in the event of a cargo fire?

No- approximately 6 min after first bottle is blown, an alert will direct crew to discharge second bottle- which does so at a much slower rate (around 2 hours)

What are the red triangles displayed on the AIR synoptic?

Cargo smoke detectors

Cockpit indications of a lav fire:

-MASTER CAUTION lights illuminate


-Hi-Lo chime in PA

How many independent detector loops constitute the engine fire detection system?


Can we dispatch with just one fire loop operative?


What does AGENT 1/2 LOW indicate?

Respective agent has been discharged

What does the FAULT TEST button on the Fire panel do?

Mx use only

Engine fire handle light illuminates means?

Associated engine fire is detected or test is in progress

What happens when you PULL the ENG FIRE handle?

Closes associated engine FUEL and HYD SOVs

-Trips GEN OFF

-Silences aural/vocal warnings

What happens when you move the APU SHUT OFF switch to SHUT OFF?

-Shuts down APU

-Arms the extinguishers

What happens when you move APU FIRE CONT switch to OFF & AGENT ARM?

-Immediately shuts down APU

-Arms the fire extinguishers

When would a AFT/FWD CARGO SMOKE AGENT DISCH switch light flash Amber?

-fire/smoke detected in cargo compt

-pushing the switchlight discharges the agent and changes light to steady Amber

-PUSH light extinguishes, LOW light illuminates

After establishing electrical power, how long is the Cargo Smoke Test disabled for?

6 min

How many containers does the engine and APU fire extinguishing system contain?

2- separate discharge heads and lines to each engine and APU

How long can the cargo fire system suppress a fire for?

Approximately 80 min

What kind of detectors are used in the cargo fire detection system?


Is the cargo fire detection system single or dual loop?


How many halon bottles are used in the cargo fire detection system?

2- connected to both FW and aft cmpts

How many modes of rudder operation are there?

2- powered and manual

What HYD system usually powers the rudder?

R HYD system

When do the rudder control tabs unlock?

If R HYD system px is too low OR

Manual mode is selected

What moves the rudder in manual mode?

Rudder pedals move control tabs; aerodynamic forces on control tabs move rudder

What are the 2 positions of the secondary rudder limiting system?

Restricted and unrestricted; also operates as a function of speed

If we push the throttles up with the speed brakes extended, what happens?

Handle remains in position, but speed brakes automatically retract

What are the flap detents?

0, 13, 18, 25, 40

Where are flap/slat position displayed?

Configuration SD and


How many slat sections? Move as a unit?



Can either HYD system operate the slats?


Where is stab trim displayed?

Configuration SD and Secondary engine synoptic

Does the AP use primary or alternate trim?

Alternate- slower rate

(Located on pedestal)

Will moving a single primary stab trim switch produce stab movement?


When do we get a stab movement warning horn?

-Any time the stab moves >1 degree. Continues to sound once per degree of stab movement

-Also a voice warning sounds

-Inhibited on ground

What happens when the STABILIZER TRIM switch is pushed OFF?

Amber OFF. Electrical power to brake is removed, setting the brake to prevent stab movement

What positions the elevators for pitch control?

Control tabs mechanically connected to control columns.

Incorporate a variable load feel mechanism

What do the geared tabs on the elevator do?

Provide aerodynamic assistance in moving elevators; deflected as elevators move

What happens if the control column jams?

An override mechanism on the torque tube allows each column to operate pitch independently after force is applied to the free column

What powers the elevator augmentation system?

L HYD system, backed up w an accumulator

How are spoilers powered?

Electrically controlled (SECU) and hydraulically powered

What do aircraft spoilers do?

-roll augmentation

-inflight speed brakes

-decrease lift and increase drag for RTO or landing

When do spoilers extend a proportionate amount on the downward wing?

>5 degrees of control wheel deflection

How are ailerons trimmed?

A trim tab outboard of the control tab on each aileron

What happens if either control wheel jams?

Linked by a torque tube and an override mechanism; roll control possible by overriding jammed component

When armed, when do spoilers operate?

For RTO: reverse thrust

For landing: main wheel spin up or ground shift signal from nose gear

Can the stick pusher be manually overridden?

Yes by pulling aft on the control column

How do we test stick pusher system?

Automatically done on power up; no crew action

When does forward pressure stop once the pusher has been activated?

-angle of attack is reduced below shaker onset

-gravity force is sufficiently reduced OR

-STICK PUSHER- PUSH TO INHIBIT switch light is pushed

Color Logic Review for the DUs

Red- warning, flight envelope and systems limits

Amber- cautions and abnormal sources

Brown- Earth

White- Scales and figures

Green- engaged modes

Blue- sky

Cyan- advisory or status

Magenta- ILS deviation pointer/flight bars

What happens when you push the minimums knob on the EIS control panel?

-Resets PFD DH alert

-Silences aural warning

Which VIA provides data for DUs 1-3? Can one VIA provide data for all?

VIA 1 and YES

How can we turn DUs off?

Rotating the respective knob fully counterclockwise thru a detent

What happens when we turn all 6 BRT knobs fully counterclockwise?

All 6 DUs default to full brightness

What does the ND switch on the SDCP do?

With 1 or more DUs inop, it causes the existing SD to become a ND

What does the Airspeed trend give us?

Airspeed to be achieved in 10 seconds

What does it mean when airspeed is boxed and red? Boxed and Amber?

Boxed and Red: speed below Vss or above Vmo

Boxed and Amber: speed below Vmin or above Vmax

What does a solid magenta circle on the altitude scale mean? Open magenta?

Solid: FMS constraint- FMS engaged

Open: crew has intervened in FMS profile OR FMS altitude beyond that set in FCP

What is full scale deflection on the VNAV path?


What will power the ISIS if electrical power is lost?

Airplane battery

What gives us a flashing NAV OFF light on the IRS control panel?

-no present position within 5-10 min init

-present position fails comparison test w either stored or calculated present position

What powers ADIRU 1?

EMER AC Bus, backed up by aircraft battery

What powers ADIRU 2?

R AC Bus, backed up by independent battery for at least 30 min

Does the FMS position update before takeoff?

Yes upon throttle advancement to the runway threshold

How long is normal alignment for the IRUs? Fast realign?

10 min

3 min

Where is the standby mag compass located?

Above and behind FO seat, mirrors on glare shield permit viewing

How many hours does FDR record?


When is FDR operative?

Parking brake released and either fuel switch is on

How many MCDUs do we have?


Can the active FMS database be changed after engine start?


When will FMS speed and PROF auto-engage when selected on the ground prior to takeoff?

400' agl

When will the FMS NAV auto-engage if NAV is selected on ground prior to takeoff?

100' agl

When do we switch from CLB1 to CLB setting?

When sustained climb rate decreases to <1000' fpm

How do we init the MCDUs?

IRU selectors- NAV


FPLAN INIT pg- "initialize IRS" 4R

When will the FMS speed start a speed reduction to 245k?

During descent, between 12,000 and 10,000'

How many GPS?


How many DME?


How many VOR systems?


Do we ever enter ballast fuel (unusable fuel) into the MCDU?

NO- already incorporated into AWABS loading/performance calculations

What does the FUEL QTY A/B button do?

Selects alternate channel of the fuel quantity gauging system

When do we push the FUEL SYS TEST button?

Never- Mx function

What is the main function(s) of the START PUMP?

DC start pump (located in R Main Tank) provides fuel px for:

-APU start or engine start when AC power not available

What does FUEL USED RESET button do?

Resets fuel used digits on fuel synoptic page

L/R Fuel tank qty.


C Fuel Tank qty


How many pumps per fuel tank

Per main: 2 AC boost pumps (parallel)

Center: 2 identical pumps (in series)

Why do we cycle excess warmed fuel thru the fuel system and return it to the inboard cooled corner of the main tanks?

Warms the fuel in the tank and retards wing ice formation due to cooled fuel

How do we cross feed fuel?

When valve is opened and boost pumps on the receiving side are turned off

Where are the L/R Main fuel tanks vented to?

Center tank

Where is the C Fuel Tank vented to?

Wingtip vent boxes

How is APU supplied fuel?

Normally from right main tank; BUT if C tank contains fuel and its pumps are on, C tank will supply APU

APU fuel usage for ground ops:

350 lbs/hr

What are the 2 purposes of the AUX hydraulic switch (/the electrically driven aux pump)?

-Back up right EDP

-Pressurize the hydraulic systems on the ground when engines are NOT running

Can the AUX HYD pump operate all right system components if we lose R EDP or R Engine?


What does the HYD CONT RUDDER switch do?

Allows selection of manual rudder

What do we need to think about before testing the HYD system or to turn on AUX or TRANS pumps?

Coordinate w ground personnel etc to ensure area is clear

(Alternate procedure exists)

What happens if we have electrical failure on the HYD EDPs?

EDP Pump defaults to ON when electrical power is removed

Items controlled by L HYD system:

Inboard spoilers

L Reverser

Elevator augmentation system

Items controlled by R HYD system:

Outboard spoilers


R Reverser

Landing gear

Items controlled by both HYD systems:



Rudder limiter

Nosewheel steering


What does a red/green gear indication on the configuration SD indicate?

Disagreement in position OR ANNUN LT TEST switch has been pressed

When will the gear horn sound? Can it be silenced?

-Gear not down and locked w flaps in landing position (NO)

-Gear not down and locked, throttles retarded, speed <210k, altitude <1200' (YES)

What is a normal brake temp differential after landing?

Up to 60C on same gear

How do we set the parking brake?

Push brake pedals and lift PARK BRAKE knob, release pedals


Turn capabilities of Nose gear steering wheel?

Up to 82 degrees

Turning capabilities of rudder?

Up to 17 degrees

After emergency landing gear lever is raised, nose wheel steering limited to:

Turn deflection to the left

If we lose both/either hydraulic systems, will the brakes work?

Yes- each system has an accumulator to provide brake px to stop the plane

When is anti skid system tested?

Automatically when power is applied

When is anti skid system disabled?

Automatically at low taxi speed

Where is ground shift sensing system located and what does it do?

Aircraft nose gear, signals various systems that airplane is on ground/in flight

How do we override a failed ground shift sensor?

Pushing the gear handle release switch and raising the gear

What happens when we raise the Emergency Gear Extension Lever?

R HYD system is isolated from the landing gear

What does ANTISKID OFF light indicate?

System is selected off

When do we get a takeoff warning?

Brakes (pkg brake set)

Flaps (disagree w FMS)

Slats (not in TO)

Spoilers (not stowed)

Stabilizer (not in green)

Rudder trim (not centered)

How many levels of EIS alerting are there?

4: 0, 1, 2 and 3

What does PWS give us and when is it active?

-Detects microburst hazards during takeoff and landing

-Automatic when in flight and below 2300'

Will we automatically get PWS alerts on the ground?

No- radar must be ON

When are cockpit aural alerts generated w PWS?

Below 1200' and a microburst detected

That are the 3 levels of windshear alerts?

Warning, caution, advisory

Windshear Warning Alert during takeoff:

-Inhibited from 100k to 50' agl

-max range: 3 mi

-red alerts and aural

Windshear Caution Alert:

-inhibited below 50' agl

-max range: 3 mi

-amber alerts and aural

Windshear Warning Alert on Landing:

-inhibited below 50' agl

-max range: 1.5 mi

-red alerts and aural

Windshear Advisory Alert:

-for events outside warning and caution areas

-max range: 5 mi


When are Reactive Windshear warnings available?

From 80k- 1500' agl


-Amber: increasing performance

-Red: decreasing performance

When are Level 3 Alerts inhibited?

From V1-400' agl

(No longer than 25 seconds)

When are Level 2/1 Alerts inhibited?

Throttle advance, 80k, OR V1-20k

Released at 400'RA, after 25 seconds OR above 1000' AFE

When are Level 0 Alerts inhibited?

Not inhibited

What does the GND PROX WARN switch do in FLAP OVRD mode?

Inhibits warning when landing with less than normal flaps

When is the EGPWS effective?

Below 2500'

What is a TA?

Depicted by Amber circles, "Traffic, traffic", no corrective action required

What is an RA?

Depicted by a red square on ND, Aural climb/descent commands, imminent collision threat

How are RA corrective commands shown on the vertical speed display?

By a green fly-to zone or by red forbidden zones