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280 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Min taxiway width for a 180 |
81' |
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Min flight crew O2 for dispatch |
1000 psi |
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Min quantities for engine oil |
Mx station: 9 quarts Non MX station: 7 quarts |
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Min hydraulic quantities |
7 quarts/system |
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What does Thunderstorm ON light do? |
Overrides individual lighting controls to illuminate instrument and control panel floodlights full bright |
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What does EMER LT switch do? |
ON: activates emergency battery packs to illuminate emergency lights |
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EXT ON (landing light) |
Extends landing light with lamp on |
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Which lights are inhibited during ground ops? |
Strobes |
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MTOW |
121,000 |
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MLW |
110,000 |
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MTW |
122,000 |
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MZFW |
100,500 |
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Max lateral fuel imbalance? |
1500 lbs |
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Preflight for center fuel pumps? |
Prior to engine start, when center pump fuel will be used, center tank pumps must be individually checked |
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Limit on using speed brakes when flaps are extended |
Not with flaps >20 |
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What does PASS OXY MASK switch do? |
Opens all compartment doors, O2 masks will free fall. Do not hold eject for >5 seconds |
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How many emergency exits? |
9 |
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How many emergency exit doors? |
7 |
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When is the AVIONICS COOLING switch operative? |
In flight only |
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If the primary avionics cooling fan fails, what happens? |
Backup fan comes on automatically |
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What does the AVIONICS COOLING switch do when moved to OVRD? |
Venturi valve commanded open and Venturi airflow cools the radios |
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What does RAM AIR switch do when ON? |
Ram air valve commanded open allowing ram air to enter the air conditioning ducts |
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Can we use the RAM AIR switch to ventilate the aircraft on the ground? |
NO |
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What does the PACK SHUTDOWN switch do in OVRD? |
Overrides the auto pack shutdown for an engine failure OR when packs are selected off in FMC |
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When is the auto pack shutdown feature disarmed? |
Above 3000 agl |
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Will a pack auto shutdown if a high supply duct temp is sensed? |
YES- cannot be overridden w PACK SHUTDOWN switch |
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What position must the FLOW switch be in for takeoff? |
NORM |
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What does the ISOL switch do in AUTO? |
Isolation valve controlled by pneumatic systems controller, allows auto crossfeed of L and R pneumatic systems during single bleed ops w a/I ON |
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Where are cabin altitude and rate displayed? |
AIR SD page and Secondary Engine SD synoptic |
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What does the Instrument Panel Flow Indicator tell us when ON? |
On ground, w ac off, indicates instrument panel cooling fan airflow |
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What does Instrument Panel Flow Indicator tell us when OFF? |
On ground, w ac off, indicates absence of airflow and cooling fan failure |
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When do the indications of the Instrument Panel Flow indicator apply? |
Only during ground and flight ops w both ac packs off |
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During ground ops, w 1 pack selected AUTO, is the instrument cooling fan operating? |
YES |
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During ground ops w BOTH packs selected to AUTO, is the instrument panel cooling fan operating? |
NO- cooling provided by aircraft ac system |
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When both pilots leave the cockpit with the APU running, what needs to be done? |
1 ac pack should be selected OFF, as to preclude possible DU overheats in the instance of an inadvertent APU shutdown |
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In flight, when will the instrument cooling fan operate? |
BOTH ac packs must be OFF |
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Is the ball indicator on the Instrument Panel Flow Indicator designed to measure flow from the packs? |
NO |
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What does the Gasper Booster Fan do when ON? |
Provides supplemental ventilation w or w/o packs operating |
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What does the Gasper Boost Fan switch do when ON with packs running? |
Increases cold air ventilation thru the eyeball outlets |
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When do we see the SELECT light illuminate on the CABIN PRESS control panel? |
Failure of both cabin pressure controllers |
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What happens when we push MANUAL on the CABIN PRESS control panel? |
-MANUAL illuminates and the cabin pressurization system operates in manual mode -Also used to alternate control between cabin PCs (auto 1 and auto 2) |
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What does MANUAL LDG ALT switch do? |
Used to set landing altitude when FMA data is not available |
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What is the procedure for a Packs OFF Takeoff? |
-TO/APPR key---- push -PACKS----- line select ON to OFF (Verify PACKS ALL OFF on EAD) |
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On a Packs OFF Takeoff, when will the packs be shutoff and when do they come back? |
Throttle advance, come back at 3000 agl |
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How is the FW cargo compt heated? |
Electrically |
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How is Aft cargo compt heated? |
Cabin exhaust air |
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Where are live animals to be transported? |
FW cargo compt, forward of the cargo door |
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PODS |
Pneumatic Overheat Detection System |
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When is PODS tested? |
Automatically when the engine fire test is performed |
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What does PODS do? |
Detects overheat conditions in tail compt and along wing and tail a/I manifolds- closes respective a/I valves automatically when it senses failure |
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Icing conditions |
OAT is 6 or below (10 or below in flight) AND: -visible moisture (clouds, rain etc fog when <1 mi vis) present -3 or < temp/dew pt spread -ice, snow, slush, standing H20 present on ramp, taxiway or rw |
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What is the engine run up requirement? |
Run engines to min of 40% N1 for approximately 10 seconds at intervals no >60 min |
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What is a standing takeoff? |
Accomplished by holding the brakes, while in position on RW, until engines have stabilized at or above 50% N1 before starting the takeoff roll |
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What does the AIR DATA Heat push button do? |
When dark, means all heater circuits for pitots, rudder limiters, stall probes, static ports and RAT probes are energized. |
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Which probe heat is inhibited during ground ops? |
RAT probe heat |
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When does the Wing Ice Detection system work |
On the ground only; inhibited during takeoff, landing and in flight |
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Are we allowed to takeoff with the "WING ICE DETECTED" alert displayed? |
NO |
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Which pilot windshields are electrically anti-iced and de-fogged? |
L, C and R pilot windshields |
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Are the clear view windows anti-iced? Anti-fogged? |
No anti-ice but they ARE anti-fogged |
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Which control surfaces are anti-iced with engine bleed air? |
Wing slats and horizontal stab leading edge (from either or both engines) |
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Which engine components are anti-iced |
Respective engine nose cowl |
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Are engine anti-ice systems independent of the airfoil anti-ice systems? |
YES |
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What happens when we pull the altitude select knob? |
Airplane will climb or descend directly to selected altitude (AT's will go to climb thrust or idle descent as required) |
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What happens when we push the altitude select knob? |
Airplane will hold current altitude |
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What does PROF switch do? |
-Engages FMS vertical guidance -in flight, can also be used to engage AT system |
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How can FMS speed be edited? |
By pre-selecting an FCP speed and immediately pushing the FMS SPD switch. |
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Can edited FMS speeds be cleared? |
No- only modified |
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How is FMS speed disengaged? |
-Pushing or pulling the IAS/MACH select knob OR -engaging GA |
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What happens when you push the FMS SPD switch? |
Selects the armed FMS speed, speed window dashes out and FMS speed changes from white to magenta |
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What happens when we PULL the IAS/MACH knob? |
Hold speed selected in the window |
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What happens when we PUSH the IAS/MACH knob? |
Will maintain current speed and window displays that speed |
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What is required to arm the APPR/LAND mode? |
A tuned ILS |
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What does the AUTOFLIGHT switch do? |
Engages ATS and 1 AP. After AP engagement, each push alternates between AP 1 and AP 2 |
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What happens when we push the AFS OVRD switches? |
Allows emergency disconnect of respective AP, AT and Yaw damper |
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When is Mach trim provided? |
Only when AP is NOT engaged |
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What does Mach trim do? |
Stabilizer automatically moves to compensate for pitch force caused by Mach number |
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What does the Bank Angle Limit Selector vary with? |
Speed |
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Can the Bank Angle Limiter override FMS bank angle limits? |
NO |
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What happens when we PULL the HDG/TRK Selector knob? |
Aircraft captures and follows selected heading or track in the display window |
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What happens when we PUSH the HDG/TRK selector knob? |
Aircraft rolls out and maintains current heading or track. The window will display this heading or track |
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When will we see an amber ATS OFF message? |
If a condition exists that precludes ATS re-engagement |
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What happens when we hit the GA switches? |
-FDs to GA (even if off) -AP (if on) follows FD -ATS goes to GA thrust limits -parallel rudder active -bank limited to 10 -ref spd, PITCH and GA on FMA -windshear guidance comes on if warning is active |
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With the ATS OFF, are we assured speed protection? |
YES- maintains a speed above stall and below max |
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Does VERT SPD have priority over ATS? |
YES- if excessive VS is commanded, possible to exceed aircraft speed limitations |
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What happens when an excessive VS climb is commanded? |
At Vmin, VS disengages and changes to level change mode. Pitch controls speed and window changes to CLB thrust |
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What happens when we get a selcal? |
Respective mic switch on the ACP illuminates in conjunction w a chime |
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What does the IDENT switch on the ACP do when we push it once? Twice? |
-Selects voice and coded ID of Nav1/Nav2 receivers (ON illuminated) -push again and selects only voice ID of Nav1/Nav2 receivers (switch is dark) |
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How do we deactivate the 02 mask microphone? |
Close the storage box doors and push the TEST/RESET button |
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What does pushing the COMM TEST button temporarily disable? |
Squelch |
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How do we call the cabin? |
ATTND CALL switchlight |
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How do we sound the mechanic call horn? |
MECH CALL switch light |
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What does the MAINT INTPH ON switch light do? |
Push switch light to activate all service inter phone jacks throughout the airplane |
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Do flight deck PA announcements take priority over the cabin crew announcements? |
YES |
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What does SERVICE interphone allow for? |
Communications between the various service and maintenance locations around the aircraft, the cockpit and FA stations |
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What does the FLIGHT interphone provide? |
Communications between the flight crew and at the external power panel and avionics compartment |
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What system does the SELCAL interface with? |
VHF |
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How long of a record does the CVR make and preserve? |
2 hours |
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How can the CVR be erased? |
On the ground, parking brake set, Push the ERASE button |
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What happens to communications when operating a GEN L OFF (and left AC and DC busses Amber) OR Complete Loss of AC Power? |
NO FA chime exists; CABIN INTERPHONE must be selected ON |
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With battery switch OFF, what is battery connected to? |
Battery direct bus |
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With battery switch ON, what is battery connected to? |
Battery direct bus AND DC transfer bus |
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When and how can we test EMER PWR? |
On ground w both engines shut down, move switch from OFF to ARM |
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When in ARM, when does the EMER PWR supply emergency power? |
Automatically when power loss in the EMER AC or DC bus is detected |
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If external power is available and both pilots leave the flight deck, what should be done? |
EMER PWR selector to OFF |
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What happens when EMER PWR is ON? |
Battery supplies power for AC EMER bus (thru a static inverter) and DC EMER bus |
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Which buses are powered by EMER power? And for how long? |
Battery direct bus DC Transfer bus Emergency AC bus (inverter) Emergency DC bus 60 min |
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What happens when the BUS TIE switches are in AUTO? |
Generator bus to Tie bus connection is controlled automatically to meet power requirements |
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What happens when we move the DC BUS TIE to OPEN? |
Opens all 3 DC bus tie relays |
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What does the L/R GEN switch do? |
OFF- disconnects the generator from its respective bus ON- allows operating generator to supply power to its respective bus |
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What is happening with the APU Power switch ON? |
Allows APU generator to supply power to the tie bus |
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What does EXT power switch do in ON position? |
Connects EXT PWR to tie bus |
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When may we still see a break in power (despite the NBPT)? |
During transfer from APU to an external source OR if a supplying generator experiences unexpected loss of power |
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What does a green EXT PWR AVAIL mean? |
EXT power connected and within limits |
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Thrust rating of BR 715s? |
21,000 lbs |
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Engine starter duty cycle |
-3 start attempts -15 seconds between each -after, allow 15 min of starter cooling |
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Requirements for engine auto-start |
-IGNITION switch- AUTO -ENG START switch- Pulled -FUEL switch- ON |
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Does auto-start provide TGT protection? |
Yes- no fuel introduction unless TGT is below 150C |
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Does auto-start automatically motor the engine for 30 seconds before introducing fuel? |
Yes |
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What would cause an auto-abort? |
-hung start -3 min starter duty time exceeded -hot start (700C) -fuel ON condition not met (TGT >150C) -loss of valid N2 input -certain EEC channel failures |
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Can we auto-start in flight? |
NO |
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Engine warmup/cool down times |
Sitting >2 hours, 3 min warmup 3 min cool down (ENGINE COOL alert) |
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Approximate STD engine indications after stabilized start: |
EPR- 1.0 N1- 20% TGT- 400 N2- 60% FF- 700 Oil press- 45 |
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3 main components of FADEC |
Throttle Throttle module EEC |
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When is EEC auto relight armed? |
Engine start to shutdown |
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What causes automatic activation of BOTH ignition systems? |
Combustor instability Significant water/ice ingestion Flameout |
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How do we select emergency thrust? |
By pushing the thrust levers thru the mechanical gate |
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What is thrust management based on in emergency thrust? |
N1 (no longer EPR) |
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What will happen to ATS when on emergency thrust? |
ATS disconnects automatically |
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What is MAXIMUM power? |
Thrust limit achieved at the forward throttle gate |
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When landing one engine inop, how long will the reverser on the inop engine deploy for? |
Permitted to deploy for 30 seconds after nose wheel compression |
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When do we see the amber U/L displayed on the EAD? |
When reversers are out of stowed position |
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When will we see red REV? What happens automatically? |
Uncommanded reverser deployment in flight EEC will automatically reduce thrust on affected engine to idle |
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What is emergency reverse power? |
Pulling reverse thrust levers thru the mechanical gate- can cause damage, call mx |
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When would we see Amber REV where EPR should appear on the EAD? |
When using emergency reverse power |
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What does ENG EXCEEDANCE RESET switch do? |
Resets any exceedence on the EPR, N1, TGT, and N2 primary engine synoptic displays |
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APU starter motor duty cucle |
Limited to 3 consecutive starts Then wait 30 min |
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How is APU fuel normally supplied |
Right tank |
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Can L or C fuel tanks supply APU? |
YES |
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What could be a problem when using C fuel tanks to fuel the APU? |
When quantity is <800 lbs, using C fuel pumps can force air into APU fuel line and cause APU flameout or prevent start |
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How long is APU bleed air inhibited after start? |
2 min |
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How do we verify APU shutdown? |
Absence of APU information block on SD ENG display (about 1 min) |
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Shutting down APU with no external power: |
BATT switch and EMER PWR selector must remain ON until shutdown is complete |
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Shutting down APU WITH external power connected: |
EXT Power or the GROUND SERVICE ELEC PWR switch (along w BATT switch and EMER PWR selector) must remain ON til shutdown is complete |
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What and why is the delay for APU shutdown? |
NBPT- 17 seconds |
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When is APU shutdown delay bypassed? |
When APU FIRE CONT toggle is moved to OFF & AGENT ARM position OR -If ground APU toggle is moved to shutoff OR -If an APU Fire is detected |
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When does the APU auto shutdown on the ground? |
-When conditions are present that could damage the APU -APU AUTO SHUTDOWN alert is displayed |
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What indications will be missing when conducting a FIRE WARNING test using BATTERY POWER only? |
FO's MASTER WARNING light will not illuminate and the cyan PODS TEST PASS alert will not be displayed.
After all busses powered redo the TEST |
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Indications of Engine Fire: |
-MASTER WARNING lights flash -Aural/vocal warning sound -L/R ENG FIRE handle illuminates -FUEL switch light illuminates -ENGINE L/R FIRE alert on EAD |
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Indications of APU Fire: |
-MASTER WARNING lights flash -APU automatically shuts down -Aura/vocal warnings sound -APU FIRE alert displayed on EAD -FIRE light on external APU ground control panel illuminates |
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Indications of a CARGO SMOKE or FIRE: |
-MASTER WARNING lights flash -MASTER CAUTION lights illuminate -Aural/vocal warnings sound -CARGO SMOKE FWD (AFT) level 3 alert on EAD and AIR SD -"Land at nearest suitable" displayed on consequence page -DISCHARGE CARGO AGENT on EAD and AIR SD -AIR SD will display red triangles -AFT/FWD CARGO SMOKE -AGENT DISCH switchlight will flash PUSH |
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Will the second bottle blow automatically in the event of a cargo fire? |
No- approximately 6 min after first bottle is blown, an alert will direct crew to discharge second bottle- which does so at a much slower rate (around 2 hours) |
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What are the red triangles displayed on the AIR synoptic? |
Cargo smoke detectors |
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Cockpit indications of a lav fire: |
-MASTER CAUTION lights illuminate -LAVATORY SMOKE alert on EAD -Hi-Lo chime in PA |
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How many independent detector loops constitute the engine fire detection system? |
2 |
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Can we dispatch with just one fire loop operative? |
Yes |
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What does AGENT 1/2 LOW indicate? |
Respective agent has been discharged |
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What does the FAULT TEST button on the Fire panel do? |
Mx use only |
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Engine fire handle light illuminates means? |
Associated engine fire is detected or test is in progress |
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What happens when you PULL the ENG FIRE handle? |
Closes associated engine FUEL and HYD SOVs -Trips GEN OFF -Silences aural/vocal warnings |
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What happens when you move the APU SHUT OFF switch to SHUT OFF? |
-Shuts down APU -Arms the extinguishers |
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What happens when you move APU FIRE CONT switch to OFF & AGENT ARM? |
-Immediately shuts down APU -Arms the fire extinguishers |
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When would a AFT/FWD CARGO SMOKE AGENT DISCH switch light flash Amber? |
-fire/smoke detected in cargo compt -pushing the switchlight discharges the agent and changes light to steady Amber -PUSH light extinguishes, LOW light illuminates |
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After establishing electrical power, how long is the Cargo Smoke Test disabled for? |
6 min |
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How many containers does the engine and APU fire extinguishing system contain? |
2- separate discharge heads and lines to each engine and APU |
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How long can the cargo fire system suppress a fire for? |
Approximately 80 min |
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What kind of detectors are used in the cargo fire detection system? |
Photoelectric |
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Is the cargo fire detection system single or dual loop? |
Dual |
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How many halon bottles are used in the cargo fire detection system? |
2- connected to both FW and aft cmpts |
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How many modes of rudder operation are there? |
2- powered and manual |
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What HYD system usually powers the rudder? |
R HYD system |
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When do the rudder control tabs unlock? |
If R HYD system px is too low OR Manual mode is selected |
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What moves the rudder in manual mode? |
Rudder pedals move control tabs; aerodynamic forces on control tabs move rudder |
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What are the 2 positions of the secondary rudder limiting system? |
Restricted and unrestricted; also operates as a function of speed |
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If we push the throttles up with the speed brakes extended, what happens? |
Handle remains in position, but speed brakes automatically retract |
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What are the flap detents? |
0, 13, 18, 25, 40 |
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Where are flap/slat position displayed? |
Configuration SD and PFD |
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How many slat sections? Move as a unit? |
5 YES |
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Can either HYD system operate the slats? |
YES |
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Where is stab trim displayed? |
Configuration SD and Secondary engine synoptic |
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Does the AP use primary or alternate trim? |
Alternate- slower rate (Located on pedestal) |
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Will moving a single primary stab trim switch produce stab movement? |
No |
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When do we get a stab movement warning horn? |
-Any time the stab moves >1 degree. Continues to sound once per degree of stab movement -Also a voice warning sounds -Inhibited on ground |
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What happens when the STABILIZER TRIM switch is pushed OFF? |
Amber OFF. Electrical power to brake is removed, setting the brake to prevent stab movement |
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What positions the elevators for pitch control? |
Control tabs mechanically connected to control columns. Incorporate a variable load feel mechanism |
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What do the geared tabs on the elevator do? |
Provide aerodynamic assistance in moving elevators; deflected as elevators move |
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What happens if the control column jams? |
An override mechanism on the torque tube allows each column to operate pitch independently after force is applied to the free column |
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What powers the elevator augmentation system? |
L HYD system, backed up w an accumulator |
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How are spoilers powered? |
Electrically controlled (SECU) and hydraulically powered |
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What do aircraft spoilers do? |
-roll augmentation -inflight speed brakes -decrease lift and increase drag for RTO or landing |
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When do spoilers extend a proportionate amount on the downward wing? |
>5 degrees of control wheel deflection |
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How are ailerons trimmed? |
A trim tab outboard of the control tab on each aileron |
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What happens if either control wheel jams? |
Linked by a torque tube and an override mechanism; roll control possible by overriding jammed component |
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When armed, when do spoilers operate? |
For RTO: reverse thrust For landing: main wheel spin up or ground shift signal from nose gear |
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Can the stick pusher be manually overridden? |
Yes by pulling aft on the control column |
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How do we test stick pusher system? |
Automatically done on power up; no crew action |
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When does forward pressure stop once the pusher has been activated? |
-angle of attack is reduced below shaker onset -gravity force is sufficiently reduced OR -STICK PUSHER- PUSH TO INHIBIT switch light is pushed |
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Color Logic Review for the DUs |
Red- warning, flight envelope and systems limits Amber- cautions and abnormal sources Brown- Earth White- Scales and figures Green- engaged modes Blue- sky Cyan- advisory or status Magenta- ILS deviation pointer/flight bars |
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What happens when you push the minimums knob on the EIS control panel? |
-Resets PFD DH alert -Silences aural warning |
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Which VIA provides data for DUs 1-3? Can one VIA provide data for all? |
VIA 1 and YES |
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How can we turn DUs off? |
Rotating the respective knob fully counterclockwise thru a detent |
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What happens when we turn all 6 BRT knobs fully counterclockwise? |
All 6 DUs default to full brightness |
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What does the ND switch on the SDCP do? |
With 1 or more DUs inop, it causes the existing SD to become a ND |
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What does the Airspeed trend give us? |
Airspeed to be achieved in 10 seconds |
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What does it mean when airspeed is boxed and red? Boxed and Amber? |
Boxed and Red: speed below Vss or above Vmo Boxed and Amber: speed below Vmin or above Vmax |
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What does a solid magenta circle on the altitude scale mean? Open magenta? |
Solid: FMS constraint- FMS engaged Open: crew has intervened in FMS profile OR FMS altitude beyond that set in FCP |
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What is full scale deflection on the VNAV path? |
1000' |
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What will power the ISIS if electrical power is lost? |
Airplane battery |
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What gives us a flashing NAV OFF light on the IRS control panel? |
-no present position within 5-10 min init -present position fails comparison test w either stored or calculated present position |
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What powers ADIRU 1? |
EMER AC Bus, backed up by aircraft battery |
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What powers ADIRU 2? |
R AC Bus, backed up by independent battery for at least 30 min |
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Does the FMS position update before takeoff? |
Yes upon throttle advancement to the runway threshold |
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How long is normal alignment for the IRUs? Fast realign? |
10 min 3 min |
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Where is the standby mag compass located? |
Above and behind FO seat, mirrors on glare shield permit viewing |
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How many hours does FDR record? |
25 |
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When is FDR operative? |
Parking brake released and either fuel switch is on |
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How many MCDUs do we have? |
2 |
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Can the active FMS database be changed after engine start? |
NO |
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When will FMS speed and PROF auto-engage when selected on the ground prior to takeoff? |
400' agl |
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When will the FMS NAV auto-engage if NAV is selected on ground prior to takeoff? |
100' agl |
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When do we switch from CLB1 to CLB setting? |
When sustained climb rate decreases to <1000' fpm |
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How do we init the MCDUs? |
IRU selectors- NAV FPLAN INIT pg- enter FROM/TO 1R FPLAN INIT pg- "initialize IRS" 4R |
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When will the FMS speed start a speed reduction to 245k? |
During descent, between 12,000 and 10,000' |
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How many GPS? |
2 |
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How many DME? |
2 |
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How many VOR systems? |
2 |
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Do we ever enter ballast fuel (unusable fuel) into the MCDU? |
NO- already incorporated into AWABS loading/performance calculations |
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What does the FUEL QTY A/B button do? |
Selects alternate channel of the fuel quantity gauging system |
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When do we push the FUEL SYS TEST button? |
Never- Mx function |
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What is the main function(s) of the START PUMP? |
DC start pump (located in R Main Tank) provides fuel px for: -APU start or engine start when AC power not available |
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What does FUEL USED RESET button do? |
Resets fuel used digits on fuel synoptic page |
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L/R Fuel tank qty. |
9300 |
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C Fuel Tank qty |
6000 |
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How many pumps per fuel tank |
Per main: 2 AC boost pumps (parallel) Center: 2 identical pumps (in series) |
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Why do we cycle excess warmed fuel thru the fuel system and return it to the inboard cooled corner of the main tanks? |
Warms the fuel in the tank and retards wing ice formation due to cooled fuel |
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How do we cross feed fuel? |
When valve is opened and boost pumps on the receiving side are turned off |
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Where are the L/R Main fuel tanks vented to? |
Center tank |
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Where is the C Fuel Tank vented to? |
Wingtip vent boxes |
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How is APU supplied fuel? |
Normally from right main tank; BUT if C tank contains fuel and its pumps are on, C tank will supply APU |
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APU fuel usage for ground ops: |
350 lbs/hr |
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What are the 2 purposes of the AUX hydraulic switch (/the electrically driven aux pump)? |
-Back up right EDP -Pressurize the hydraulic systems on the ground when engines are NOT running |
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Can the AUX HYD pump operate all right system components if we lose R EDP or R Engine? |
YES |
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What does the HYD CONT RUDDER switch do? |
Allows selection of manual rudder |
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What do we need to think about before testing the HYD system or to turn on AUX or TRANS pumps? |
Coordinate w ground personnel etc to ensure area is clear (Alternate procedure exists) |
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What happens if we have electrical failure on the HYD EDPs? |
EDP Pump defaults to ON when electrical power is removed |
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Items controlled by L HYD system: |
Inboard spoilers L Reverser Elevator augmentation system |
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Items controlled by R HYD system: |
Outboard spoilers Rudder R Reverser Landing gear |
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Items controlled by both HYD systems: |
Slats Flaps Rudder limiter Nosewheel steering Brakes
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What does a red/green gear indication on the configuration SD indicate? |
Disagreement in position OR ANNUN LT TEST switch has been pressed |
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When will the gear horn sound? Can it be silenced? |
-Gear not down and locked w flaps in landing position (NO) -Gear not down and locked, throttles retarded, speed <210k, altitude <1200' (YES) |
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What is a normal brake temp differential after landing? |
Up to 60C on same gear |
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How do we set the parking brake? |
Push brake pedals and lift PARK BRAKE knob, release pedals (PARK BRAKE SET on EAD) |
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Turn capabilities of Nose gear steering wheel? |
Up to 82 degrees |
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Turning capabilities of rudder? |
Up to 17 degrees |
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After emergency landing gear lever is raised, nose wheel steering limited to: |
Turn deflection to the left |
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If we lose both/either hydraulic systems, will the brakes work? |
Yes- each system has an accumulator to provide brake px to stop the plane |
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When is anti skid system tested? |
Automatically when power is applied |
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When is anti skid system disabled? |
Automatically at low taxi speed |
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Where is ground shift sensing system located and what does it do? |
Aircraft nose gear, signals various systems that airplane is on ground/in flight |
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How do we override a failed ground shift sensor? |
Pushing the gear handle release switch and raising the gear |
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What happens when we raise the Emergency Gear Extension Lever? |
R HYD system is isolated from the landing gear |
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What does ANTISKID OFF light indicate? |
System is selected off |
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When do we get a takeoff warning? |
Brakes (pkg brake set) Flaps (disagree w FMS) Slats (not in TO) Spoilers (not stowed) Stabilizer (not in green) Rudder trim (not centered) |
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How many levels of EIS alerting are there? |
4: 0, 1, 2 and 3 |
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What does PWS give us and when is it active? |
-Detects microburst hazards during takeoff and landing -Automatic when in flight and below 2300' |
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Will we automatically get PWS alerts on the ground? |
No- radar must be ON |
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When are cockpit aural alerts generated w PWS? |
Below 1200' and a microburst detected |
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That are the 3 levels of windshear alerts? |
Warning, caution, advisory |
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Windshear Warning Alert during takeoff: |
-Inhibited from 100k to 50' agl -max range: 3 mi -red alerts and aural |
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Windshear Caution Alert: |
-inhibited below 50' agl -max range: 3 mi -amber alerts and aural |
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Windshear Warning Alert on Landing: |
-inhibited below 50' agl -max range: 1.5 mi -red alerts and aural |
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Windshear Advisory Alert: |
-for events outside warning and caution areas -max range: 5 mi -WINDSHEAR icon on ND |
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When are Reactive Windshear warnings available? |
From 80k- 1500' agl -aural -Amber: increasing performance -Red: decreasing performance |
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When are Level 3 Alerts inhibited? |
From V1-400' agl (No longer than 25 seconds) |
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When are Level 2/1 Alerts inhibited? |
Throttle advance, 80k, OR V1-20k Released at 400'RA, after 25 seconds OR above 1000' AFE |
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When are Level 0 Alerts inhibited? |
Not inhibited |
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What does the GND PROX WARN switch do in FLAP OVRD mode? |
Inhibits warning when landing with less than normal flaps |
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When is the EGPWS effective? |
Below 2500' |
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What is a TA? |
Depicted by Amber circles, "Traffic, traffic", no corrective action required |
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What is an RA? |
Depicted by a red square on ND, Aural climb/descent commands, imminent collision threat |
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How are RA corrective commands shown on the vertical speed display? |
By a green fly-to zone or by red forbidden zones |
