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231 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
function of the alimentary canal
processes and transports the products of digestion
function of the accessory organs of digestion
manufacture & secrete endocrine & exocrine enzymes



(secretions that are essential to the breakdown, digestion, and absorption of nutrients.)

accessory organs of digestion
located outside the GI tract
Secretion of saliva into the mouth;Initiation of carbohydrate digestion...Happens in the ?????
Salivary glands

Manufactures bile...


Happens in the ?????

Liver
Release of bile into the duodenum to aid in fat digestion....Happens in the ?????
Gallbladder
Release of pancreatic juice into the duodenum, to digest proteins, carbohydrates, and fats
Pancreas
Chewing of food; Initial digestion of carbohydrates ....Happens in the ?????
Mouth
Transport of food into stomach; secretion of mucus....Happens in the ?????
Esophagus
Churning of food, secretion of gastric juices; action of enzyme pepsin; Initiation of protein digestion....Happens in the ?????
Stomach
Final digestion of nutrients into end products; Absorption of nutrients.....Happens in the ?????
Small intestine
Elimination of Waste ....Happens in the ?????
Large intestine
function of teeth
break down food into pieces that can be swallowed & digested easily; Mastication (chewing)

Hindrance of the chewing function caused by
*decay

*infection of the teeth or gums


*malocclusion (improper positioning and faulty contact of the teeth)


*missing teeth


(can interfere with this phase of the digestive process.)

What is a decrease in saliva production called?
Xerostomia
Xerostomia
This may be caused by medications : prescriptions or OTC, or less often by an autoimmune condition called Sjogren's disease:
mastication
chewing
Missing teeth can:
*Alter the bite - that is, how the teeth come together (occlusion).

*Malocclusion - eventually leads to jaw pain, called temporomandibular joint disease *Bolting - Inadequate chewing of food. *Digestive disturbances - Like gastritis and constipation; and the loss of nutrient value of food may result.


*Cosmetic Concerns - the patient may express this with their tooth loss.

how the teeth come together
occlusion
Malocclusion - eventually leads to jaw pain, called
temporomandibular joint disease
Inadequate chewing of food
Bolting
4 main causes of missing permanent teeth
*(Most Common) dental decay (adults w/ periodontal disease)

*age/dental injury


*Congenitally missing


* rare inherited or systemic diseases.

Third molars are also known as __________ ___________.
wisdom teeth
When do third molars develop and when do they erupt?
begin to develop between the ages of 8 and 10 years and usually erupt between the ages of 17 & 21
How does dental decay first appear?
Appears as white spots on the tooth surface.
How does dental caries occur?
Occurs when the many cavity-causing bacteria in the mouth break down the sugars found in foods, converting them into acid plaque.
eroding of calcium in the tooth's enamel is called:
demineralization
can contribute to the breakdown of tooth enamel and erosion of the teeth and gums
purging due to bulimia
When decay advances into the pulp of a tooth, what procedure might have to be performed?
root canal
causes of discolored teeth
1) age [slight yellow teeth]

2) dead tooth [gray teeth]


3) smoking [brown teeth] 4) Medication (tetracyclines) taken in large quantities as a child. [defective/discolored enamel]


5) Beverages like red wine, coffee, tea, and food like blueberries. [teeth colored to whatever item is ingested]


6) antibacterial mouthwash (chlorhexidine)


7) Severe attacks of pertussis (whooping cough) and measles [discolored patches on teeth]


8) Excessive amounts of fluoride [white/brown teeth]

pertussis
whooping cough
What is gingivitis?
inflammation and swelling of the gums.
periodontitis (periodontal disease)
If gingivitis is not treated, it may lead to what?
The signs and symptoms of periodonitis
*The pockets that form between the teeth and the gums on gingivitis gradually deepen, exposing the root.


*Plaque develops there, causing unpleasant tastes in mouth and offensive breath (halitosis).


*


As it progresses, teeth more sensitive to temperature & painful to chew.




*Abscesses can form, teeth become loose and may fall out.

__________ is destructive gum and bone disease around one or more of the teeth.
periodontitis (periodontal disease)
halitosis
offensive (bad) breath
It is the end result of gingivitis that was treated too late or not at all
Periodontitis
(periodontal disease) is AKA:
( Periodontitis )
How do dentists determine the stage of periodontal disease?
measures the depth of the pockets and obtains radiographic films



( They reveal the condition of the underlying bone, and this knowledge aids the dentist in deciding how to treat the disease.)

Tumors grow slowly over several years, do not metastasize & are not life threatening.
Benign Tumors
These Tumors are generally not painful until they reach advanced stages.
Malignant tumors
Malocclusion is called:
faulty bite
causes of malocclusions
*Family hx. (inherited)

*early loss of primary teeth


*thumb or finger sucking - cause orthopedic (skeletal changes) & crowding.


*Deviated septae


*enlarged tonsils


*allergies.

signs and symptoms of TMJ
*Decreased jaw movement

*clicking sounds during chewing


*severe pain, or aching around the ears and jaw joints-made worse by chewing.


*Can be unilateral but usually bilateral, one side more painful.


*H/As


*dizziness


*pressure


*tinnitus


*sinus pain


*draining sensation in one or both ears

The grinding of teeth emanating from the central pattern generator in the brain.
bruxism
tooth abscess
Pus-filled sac that develops in the tissue surrounding the base of the root.
definitive treatment for an abscessed tooth
Antibiotic therapy is prescribed to relieve pain and acute swelling, Root canal, Restorative procedures, may need an apicectomy or extraction of the tooth.
incision into the gum and removes the bone that covers the tip of the root and the infected tissue
apicectomy
2 types of mouth ulcers and what is their cause
1) aphthous ulcers ..occur during stress or illness

2) traumatic ulcers.. hot food, rough denture, toothbrush.

hot food, rough denture, toothbrush..causes what kind of ulcer?
traumatic ulcers
This type of ulcer, occurs during stress or illness
aphthous ulcers
herpes simplex
contagious, recurrent viral infection that affects the skin and mucous membranes.
Herpes simplex virus type 1
also known as cold sores or fever blisters.
What is another name for herpes simplex?
cold sores
The tingling and numbness around the mouth that precedes herpes simplex is called ____________.
prodrome
Candidiasis of the oral mucosa, involving the mouth, tongue, palate, and gums.
thrush
fungus that causes thrush
Candida albicans
2 medications to treat thrush
* Nystatin - (Swished/Swallowed);(antifungal suspension)

* Fluconazole (Diflucan) - (Oral Tablet);(antifungal)

AKA 'trench mouth' [Formerly called acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis] is a common infection affecting the gums and the anchoring structure of the teeth AND is a rare, painful ulceration and disease of the gums, particularly between the teeth, sometimes called Vincent's Angina.
What is necrotizing periodontal disease?
necrotizing periodontal disease
AKA 'trench mouth' [Formerly called acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis]
Associated with Vincent's Angina
necrotizing periodontal disease
What are the symptoms of necrotizing periodontal disease?
painful, red, swollen gums with ulcers that bleed, ulcers may appear grayish, metallic taste, & bad breath w/ fever & enlarged lymph nodes.



( Is a rare, painful ulceration and disease of the gums, particularly between the teeth, sometimes called Vincent' Angina. )

____________ is hyperkeratosis or epidermal thickening of the buccal mucosa, palate, or lower lip.
Leukoplakia
What is the treatment for leukoplakia?
Finding and eliminating the source of the irritation.



(A rough tooth or denture may be smoothed, and giving up smoking.)

More than 90% of oral cancers are __________ cell carcinomas and the other 10% are _________.
Squamous, Adenocarcinomas
What is the most common location of oral cancer?
The Lip
Where is oral cancer usually diagnosed?
Dentist's Office
Treatment for oral cancer depends on the ___________.
stage
_________ is a coordinated, wavelike muscular motion that forces food along the alimentary canal.
Peristalsis
GERD
Refers to clinical manifestations of regurgitation of stomach & duodenal contents into the esophagus, frequently occurring at night.



(Mild episodes may be described as heartburn by the patient.)

treatments for GERD
1) Elevating the head of the bed about 6".

2) Light evening meal 4 hours before bedtime (nothing 3hrs. before bedtime)


3) Using antacids


4) Weight loss (if obese)


5) No Smoking or Alcohol


6) When the above fail: Systemic Medical Management is initiated -with H2-receptor antagonist (ranitidine or famotidine) or a proton pump inhibitor (Omeprazole, Lansoprazole, Rabeprazole, Esomeprazole)


7) May need antireflux surgery

esophageal varices
Are dilated submucosal veins that develop in patients with underlying portal hypertension and may result in serious upper GI bleeding.

(Dilated/Twisted/Enlarged Superficial Veins).

Varices may produce no symptoms until:
Rupture, causing massive hemorrhage.
Esophagel varices is a common complication of what disease?
cirrhosis of the liver
In order to control and prevent reoccurrence of bleeding from esophageal varices, what 2 procedures might be done.



What procedure might be done if these procedures don't work?

1) Replace the blood volume and maintaining the fluid and electrolyte balance to restore homeostasis.

2) To control and prevent reoccurrence of bleeding include endoscopic sclerotherapy and ligation of bleeding varices.




IF THOSE DON'T WORK:


1) Emergency portal decompression may be considered

main symptom of esophagitis
burning in the chest (heartburn)-may be like a heart attack.
most common cause of esophagitis
Reflux of the acid contents of the stomach resulting from a defect of the lower esophageal sphincter.
hiccup

Involuntary Spasmodic contractions of the diaphragm, In which the beginning of inspiration is suddenly checked by the closure of the glottis.

indigestion

vague abdominal discomfort after meals

heartburn

sensation of retrosternal warmth or burning occurring in waves & tending to rise upward toward the neck.

nausea

an unpleasant sensation in the epigastrium

vomiting

the forcible expulsion of contents from the stomach, out the mouth

colic

acute visceral pain caused by spasm, torsion, or obstruction of a hollow organ

flatulence

presence of excessive amounts of gas or air in the stomach or intestines

diarrhea

abnormal frequent passing of loose stool

constipation

condition of infrequent bowel evacuation

fecal incontinence

an inability to control defecation

The esophagus is lined for the most of its length with squamous epithelium, which can give rise to _________ ________ ____________.
squamous cell carcinoma
The columnar epithelium near the esophagogastric junction may develop _______________.
adenocarcinoma
What are some risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus?
cigarette smoking, alcohol, betel nut chewing, drinking of very hot beverages (>65'F), eating N-nitroso compounds(pickled veggies), hx. of head & neck cancer, Underlying esophageal diseases such as achalasia, caustic strictures.
The major risk factor for adenocarcinoma of the esophagus is ________ _________.
Barrett's esophagus & chronic GERD
Accurate ________ is critical in selecting a treatment method for esophageal cancer.
staging
What is Barrett's esophagus?
It is a protective metaplastic change and is one of the most severe consequences of chronic GERD that is the replacement of the normal stratified squamous epithelium of the distal esophagus with abnormal columnar epithelium.
When the protective mucous membrane of the stomach or upper intestinal tract breaks down, the lining is prone to ______________.
ulceration
The most common peptic ulcer is the _____________ ulcer.
duodenal
A crucial causal factor of peptic ulcers is _________ __________ infection.
Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori)
What is the second most common form of gastric ulcers caused from?
Use of NSAID's
_______ is an inflammation of the lining of the stomach.
Gastritis
The main cause of gastritis is inflammation associated with ________ _________.
H. pylori
What vitamin deficiency can result in gastritis?
A Vitamin B12 deficiency called pernicious anemia
The patient with early carcinoma of the stomach is frequently asymptomatic.
True
What country has the highest incidence of gastric cancer?
Japan
What is the most common physical finding in gastric cancer?
palpable abdominal mass
What is the appendix?
a narrow pouch about 31/2 inches long that extends from the first part of the large intestine (cecum).
The known function of the appendix is to aid in digestion.
False
A significant diagnostic indicator for appendicitis is maximal tenderness of the abdomen at ___________ __________.
McBurney's point
hat happens if appendicitis is left untreated?
necrosis and rupture which can result in peritonitis
What is a hiatal hernia?
Is a defect in the diaphragm that permits a segment of the stomach to slide into the thoracic cavity.
An __________ _________ is the condition in which an organ protrudes through an abnormal opening in the abdominal wall.
Abdominal Hernia
What is a common site for a hernia?
Inguinal Canal
What does it mean if a hernia is trapped or strangulated?
That the blood flow to the herniated organ or bowel has been stopped, and gangrene, a serious condition, can set in.
An inguinal hernia can be detected in a male by performing what maneuver?
Valsalva's Maneuver
What are some treatments for hernias?
The patient may wear a device called a Truss; Herniorrhaphy is Tx. of choice.
__________ __________ or regional enteritis is a chronic, relapsing inflammatory disorder of the alimentary canal in which all layers of the bowel wall are edematous and inflamed.
Crohn's Disease
In Crohn's disease, any portion of the GI tract from the _________ to the ________ can be affected.
mouth, anus
What are the goals for treatment of Crohn's disease?
To treat the acute disease flare-ups and to maintain remission.
What is ulcerative colitis?
Is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) affecting the mucosa & submucosa of the rectum & colon. (Inflammation of the rectum/colon with ulcer)
Inflammation of the lining of the stomach is called ___________.
Gastritis
is a general term for acute inflammation of the lining of the stomach and intestines.
Gastoenteritis
Ingestion of disease-causing bacteria or parasites from contaminated food or water, but intestinal influenza is usually the result of a virus..
What is the etiology of "traveler's diarrhea?
Intestinal obstruction is _____________ or __________ blockage of the intestines.
mechanical, functional
volvulus
A twisting of the bowel on itself.
intussusception
In which the bowel telescopes into itself.
_________ is a condition in which outpouches of he mucosa penetrate weak points in the muscular layer of the large intestine.
Diverticulosis
Explain the etiology of diverticulosis.
Causes unclear.. a diet that contains inadequate roughage and excessive amounts of highly refined foods contribute to this condition.
Lack of roughage produces small-caliber, drier stools, which fail to distend the bowel lumen. The small volume stool causes higher intraluminal pressure during peristalsis and defecation, which in turn contributes to the small herniations or pouches through the mucosa of the muscular wall of the intestine.
etiology of diverticulosis
What causes diverticulitis?
Is an infection of one or more diverticula.(When fecal matter becomes trapped in one or more diverticula, inflammation & infection ensue.)
Colorectal cancer is the _________most common site of cancer incidence in both men and women and the _________ most common cause of cancer death for each sex.
third, third
More than _____% of colon cancer cases occur after the age of 50.
90%
What is the precursor lesion of colorectal cancer?
Adenomatous polyps of the colon
Name the screening tests for colorectal cancer.
FOBT w/ a double-contrast barium enema, or a colonoscopy.
What staging system is used for colorectal cancer?
TNM (Tumor, Node, Matastasis) Classification System proposed by the American Joint Committee on Cancer.
What are the most common sites for distant metastasis of colorectal cancer?
liver and lungs
________________ _____________ is acute inflammation with a plaquelike adhesion or necrotic debris and mucus adhered to the damaged superficial mucosa of the small and large intestines.
Pseudomembranous Enterocolitis
______________ ___________ often is related to the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics and to the bacterial infection ____________ ______________.
Pseudomembranous Enterocolitis, Clostridium Difficile
What is short-bowel syndrome?
The small bowel fails to absorb nutrients because of inadequate absorptive surface;it is the result of an insufficient amount of functioning small bowel to absorb the nutrients, fluid, vitamins, and minerals that the body needs.
What is irritable bowel syndrome?
A functional bowel disorder characterized by chronic abdominal pain or discomfort, bloating, and erraticdysfunction of bowel habits.
True 0r False



The exact cause of irritable bowel syndrome is unknown, but there is a cure for it.

False
signs and symptoms of peritonitis
With infection/irritation, the peritoneum becomes hyperemic (excessive blood) & edematous as fluid fills in the peritoneal space. Inflammatory process of peritonitis can cause abscesses & adhesions in theabdominal cavity.Abdominal pain, n/v, weakness, & profuse sweating. Abdominal pain may be so severe the pt. may prefer not to move. A clinician finds fever, a tender & distended abdomen, & possibly a paralytic ileus. Exam ofabdomen reveals tenderness to direct touch and rebound (or percussion)-indicating peritoneal inflammation.In a fulminating case of peritonitis, the bacteria or bacterial endotoxins enter the circulation, leading tosepticemia, shock, and death.
___________ are varicose dilations of a vein in the anal canal or the anorectal area.
Hemorrhoids
Internal hemorrhoids
When they are within the rectum above the junction of skin and rectal mucosa, theseswollen and twisted varicosities.
External hemorrhoids
Varicosities lower in the anal area covered by the skin.
cirrhosis of the liver
Is a chronic degenerative disease that is irreversible.
It brings slow deterioration of the liver, resulting in the replacement of normal liver cells w/hard, fibrous scar tissue, known as hobnail liver.
cirrhosis of the liver
True 0r False



Cirrhosis of the liver is twice as common in men as in women.

True
In cirrhosis of the liver, what is the appearance of the skin?
It is jaundiced & dry w/ pruritus. Small, red spidery marks (spider nevi) may appear on the face & body.
What is the most common cause of cirrhosis of the liver?
Chronic Alcoholism
Hepatitis A moves through the __________ route, while hepatitis B and C are ______________.
fecal-oral, blood-borne
True 0r False



Hepatitis A is the only viral hepatitis causing spiking fevers.

True
What is the etiology of hepatitis B?
Is transmitted primarily through percutaneous & perimucosal routes. Mode of transmission: blood, semen, vaginal secretions, & saliva. Many infections result from sexual contact or blood exchange from sharing contaminated needles. HC providers are at higher risk of infection (accidental contaminated puncture/scratch).
Which viral hepatitis are health care workers most susceptible to?
HBV (Hepatitis B Virus)
Which viral hepatitis is the most common blood-borne infection in the U. S.
HCV (Hepatitis C Virus)
Hepatitis B is the most important etiologic factor in ____________ __________ worldwide.
hepatocellular carcinoma
False
True 0r False



Primary liver cancer is more common that secondary liver cancer.

What is the treatment of choice for hepatocellular carcinoma.
Surgical resection (partial hepatectomy) of the liver.
Hepatocellular carcinoma usually arises in what setting?
chronic liver disease



(Patient's living in high-incidence regions and those with higher AFP levels often have a worse prognosis.)


Gingivitis that is not treated may lead to:
periodonitis
Pain and limitation of the movement of the jaw with tinnitus as a result of inflammation of the temporomandibular joints is characteristic of:
TMJ syndrome
Oral thrush, a fungal infection that produces sore patches in the mouth and throat, may be the result of:
prolonged antibiotic therapy
The treatment of oral leukoplakia is:
finding or correcting the source of irritation.
The treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) includes
a light evening meal four hours before bedtime and elevation of the bed about 6 inches the use of H2-receptor antagonist or proton pump inhibitor.

True OR False




Barrett's esophagus is a severe consequence of GERD.

TRUE

The diagnostic evaluation for peptic ulcers might include:
*endoscopy and biopsy of the lesion.



*patient history.




*upper GI barium series and the study of gastric contents and stool for evidence of bleeding.

Agents that may damage the gastric lining and cause gastritis include:
*medications, poisons, alcohol, and infectious diseases.



*mechanical injury.




*allergic reaction or irritation from foods.

The causal factor(s) of peptic ulcers is(are):
*Helicobacter pylori infection.


*NSAIDs.




*stress.

The most common peptic ulcer is the:
duodenal ulcer.
False
True OR False



Pain is usually the initial symptom of gastric cancer.

The primary treatment of gastric cancer may include:
gastric resection usually followed by chemotherapy.
Abdominal discomfort with maximum tenderness of the abdomen at McBurney's point, nausea, vomiting, fever, diarrhea, or constipation are clinical signs of:
appendicitis
Hiatal hernia can be caused by:
a weakness that develops in the diaphragm
A fairly common chronic inflammatory disease of the alimentary canal involving all layers of the bowel, which causes chronic diarrhea, is:
Crohn's disease
The causes of pancreatitis include:
*alcoholism, trauma, and infection.


*biliary tract disease, structural anomalies, and drugs.

Crohn's disease is a chronic, relapsing inflammatory disorder of the alimentary canal:
in which all layers of he bowel are edematous and inflamed.
"Traveler's diarrhea," a common syndrome of gastroenteritis, is usually caused by:
ingestion of food or water contaminated with bacteria.
Intestinal obstruction can be:
*mechanical.


*functional.




*partial or complete.

Mechanical obstruction of the bowel can result from:
neoplasm, fecal impaction, volvulus, or intussusception.
A condition in which out-pouches of the mucosa penetrate weak points in the muscular layer of the large intestine is called:
diverticulosis
The earliest signs of colorectal cancer are:
often vague and nonspecific.
The third most common site of cancer incidence in both men and women and the third most common cause of cancer death for each is due to:
colorectal cancer.
CA 19-9 levels above 37 units/ml suggest the presence of:
pancreas cancer.
Pseudomembranous enterocolitis is related to:
use of broad spectrum antibiotics.
A key feature of irritable bowel syndrome is
a change of bowel habits with predominant diarrhea or constipation.
Inflammation, infection, or irritation of the large serous membrane that lines the abdominal cavity and folds over the visceral organs is called:
peritonitis.
Is true about cirrhosis of the liver...
It is twice as common in men then women.
Cancer of the liver is:
usually a secondary cancer.
Is NOT true of Hepatitis A..
blood-borne
True or False



Health care workers exposed to body fluids are a risk for hepatitis B.

True
Is true about hepatiits C..
It is considered a widespread epidemic.

False

True or False



The most common bloodborne infection in the United States is hepatitis A.

The liver is responsible for:
manufacture of bile
Which of the following is an accessory organ of digestion?
gallbladder
____________ is a common condition in which there is an abnormal presence of calculi or gallstones that form in the bile.
Cholelithiasis (Gallstones)
Describe the pain of cholelithiasis.
May be asymptomatic until the bile ducts become obstructed by the stones. Colicky Pain, or biliary colic (sudden severe waves of pain in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen that may radiate to the back; "gripping or stabbing pain")., signals the obstruction of the cystic duct or the common bile duct by one or more stones. The pain is in the epigastric region or the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, often radiating to the right upper back in the area of the scapula.
What are gallstones made of?
Insoluble cholesterol and bile salts
What test is highly accurate in diagnosing cholelithiasis?
The clinical picture and ultrasonography
What procedure for cholelithiasis has a shortened hospital stay and recovery time?
laparoscopic cholecystectomy
What is cholecystitis?
Is an acute or chronic inflammation of the gallbladder, usually associated with obstruction of the cystic duct.
What is the etiology of most cholecystitis?
An obstruction of the biliary duct caused by gallstones; trauma or other insult to the gallbladder, including infection, occasionally is the cause.
signs and symptoms of acute pancreatitis
The pancreas becomes inflamed, edematous, hemorrhagic, and necrotic. Patient has a sudden onset of severe abdominal pain, which radiates to the back, along with nausea & vomiting. Epigastric abdominal pain is often made worse by walking & lying supine & better by sitting & leaning forward. The patient is acutely ill, diaphoretic, and tachycardic & experiences shallow, rapid respirations. Blood pressure falls, & the temperature rises. Tender abdomen, decreased bowel sounds, mild jaundice, many local and systemic complications like pancreatic abscess, necrotizing pancreatitis, and pneumonia.
What is often the cause of pancreatitis in a nonalcoholic individual?
Gallstones
What serum blood levels are elevated in pancreatitis?
Serum amylase and lipase
True or False



In emergency treatment of acute pancreatitis, the patient is put on a liquid diet.

False
Where does cancer of the pancreas usually originate?
In the head of the pancreas
Cancer of he pancreas is the __________ leading cause of cancer related death in the U.S.
fourth
Why is cancer of the pancreas so difficult to detect?
Because of the retroperitoneal location of the pancreas. It is inaccessible to palpation and insensitive to many diagnostic techniques.
What lab test is a serum tumor marker for pancreatic cancer?
CA 19-9 (Levels above 37 units/ml suggest cancer)
2 syndromes of protein-energy malnutrition and describe each
*Kwashiorkor, caused by a deficiency of protein in the presence of adequate energy, is typically seen in weaning infants at the birth of a sibling in areas where food containing protein is insufficiently abundant.



*Marasmus (extreme malnutrition and emaciation), caused by combined protein and energy deficiency , is most commonly seen where adequate quantities of food are not available.

Kwashiorkor syndrome of protein-energy malnutrition
caused by a deficiency of protein in the presence of adequate energy, is typically seen in weaning infants at the birth of a sibling in areas where food containing protein is insufficiently abundant.
Marasmus (extreme malnutrition and emaciation), syndrome of protein-energy malnutrition
caused by combined protein and energy deficiency , is most commonly seen where adequate quantities of food are not available.
How is malnutrition treated?
Based on the underlying cause. Nutritional supplements and replacement begin with appropriate oral and intravenous necessitate feedings through a nasogastric tube. Tx may entail a combination of dietary modifications, including appropriate supplements of proteins, vitamins, and minerals. Diarrhea and infections are controlled with medications. Surgery may be indicated when lesions of the GI tract cause the malnutrition. Patient's with eating disorders require special counseling with medical tx. The poor & elderly may require community services that make good nutrition available on a daily basis
Vitamin A

Irritability, Loss of Hair, Anorexic enlargement of the liver, and spleen, jaundice, skin changes, psychiatric disorders

Vitamin C

Nausea, Diarrhea, Acidification of Urine

Vitamin D

Calcification of soft tissue, poor appetite, weakness, kidney damage, excessive thirst, Urination and mental changes

Vitamin E

May interfere with the blood-clotting action of Vitamin K

Vitamin K

Toxicity is uncommon; Rapid infusion causes dyspnea, flushing, cardiovascular complications

What is the formula for calculating the body mass index?
The formula is weight-adjusted for height. For instance, the calculation is weight in pounds, divided by (height in inches)2, times 703. A number greater than 25.0 defines overweight, and a BMI of 30.0 or higher is obesity.
What is malabsorption syndrome?
Refers to a group of disorders in which intestinal absorption of dietary nutrients is impaired.
Defective mucosal cells in the small intestine; diseased pancreas/blocked pancreatic duct; Reduced secretion of bile from hepatic disease or bile duct obstruction; Metabolic or endocrine disorders, such as hyperparathyroidism and diabetes mellitus; Severe parasitic and worm infestations.
What is the etiology of malabsorption syndrome?
celiac disease
Is a disease of the small intestine that is characterized by malabsorption, gluten intolerance, and damage to the lining of the intestine.
another name for celiac disease
Celiac Sprue (Gluten Enteropathy)
dermatitis herpetiformis
a characteristic skin rash consisting of pruritic papulovesicles over the extensor surfaces of the extremities and over the trunk, scalp, and neck
etiology of celiac disease
Either a toxic or immunologic reaction to a component of gluten. Is also linked to genetic factors because the occurrence is higher in siblings. Females are affected twice as often as males.
three criteria that must be met to diagnose celiac disease
1) positive serologic testing



2) a biopsy of the small intestine showing changes or destruction in the mucosal lining.




3) Improvement while on a gluten-free diet

treatment for celiac disease
Patient must strictly adhere to a lifelong gluten-free diet; eliminating gluten allows the bowel to heal and reverses malabsorption. If the patient doesn't improve while on a diet, it is usually due to noncompliance with a strict gluten-free diet. For a resistance form of celiac disease known as refractory sprue, corticosteriod drugs may be used. Consult with a dietician. Examination on a regular basis since these patients' are more prone to cancer and abdominal lymphoma later in life.
Describe food poisoning?
Is an illness resulting from eating food that contains bacterial toxins and viral, chemical, or toxic substances
How long do the symptoms of food poisoning last?
They usually disappear within 24-48 hours. In extreme cases, the patient becomes disabled, and the situation becomes life threatening.
anorexia nervosa
An eating disorder, is linked to a psychological disturbance in which hunger is denied by self-imposed starvation, resulting from a distorted body image and a compulsion to be thin.
the typical anorectic patient
An adolescent female patient who is meticulous, is a high achiever, and refuses food intake; she is preoccupied with obesity and obsessed with her weight. Although she continues weight loss, she doesn't believe anything is wrong. Pt. may have thinning hair and poor wound healing, amenorrhea, cold intolerance, constipation, bloating, or abdominal distress, hyperactive, exercises a great deal, hypotensive, bradycardic, hypothermic, feelings of sadness, insomnia, withdrawal from friends & family..Bulimia sometimes occurs simultaneously.
bulimia
Is a behavioral disorder characterized by recurring episodes of binge eating followed by self-induced vomiting or purging, usually is secret.
etiology of motion sickness
Results from a disturbance in the sense of balance. The fluid in the semicircular canals of the ears becomes dislocated because of the motion. In addition, excessive stimulation of the vestibular apparatus in the inner ear is caused by the repetitive acceleration and deceleration and by angular and linear motion.
Name medications used to treat motion sickness.
Dramamine (Dimenhydinate)Transderm-Scop (Scopolamine)