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100 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is contraception?
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The intentional prevention of pregnancy during sexual intercourse
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What is birth control?
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The device and/or practice to decrease the risk of conceiving, or bearing, offspring
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What is family planning?
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The conscious decision on when to conceive, or to avoid pregnancy, throughout the reproductive years
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What data is collected regarding a woman's sexual activities and contraceptive knowledge?
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1. Frequency of coitus
2. Number of sexual partners 3. Level of contraceptive involvement 4. Her or her partner's objections to any methods |
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What is the acronym used to provide informed consent regarding contraceptive methods?
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BRAIDED
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What does BRAIDED stand for?
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1. B - Benefits
2. R - Risks 3. A - Alternatives 4. I - Inquiries 5. D - Decisions 6. E - Explanations 7. D - Documentation |
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What factors affect effectiveness of contraceptive method?
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1. Frequency of intercourse
2. Motivation to prevent pregnancy 3. Understanding of how to use the method 4. Adherence to method 5. Provision of short-term or long-term protection 6. Likelihood of pregnancy for the individual woman 7. Consistent use of method |
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What is contraceptive failure?
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The percentage of contraceptive users expected to have an unplanned pregnancy during the first year, even when they use a method consistently and correctly
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What is coitus interruptus?
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Withdrawal of the penis prior to ejaculation
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What is the contraceptive failure rate of coitus interruptus?
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19%
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What is the fertility awareness method?
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Information about the fertility during the menstrual cycle
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What are the phases of the menstrual cycle?
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1. Infertile phase - before ovulation
2. Fertile phase - about 5 to 7 days around the middle of the cycle, including several days before and during ovulation and the day afterward 3. Infertile phase - after ovulation |
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What is the fertile phase?
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About 5 to 7 days around the middle of the cycle, including several days before and during ovulation and the day afterward
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What are the disadvantages of fertility awareness methods (FAMs)?
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1. Adherence to strict record-keeping
2. Unintentional interference from external influences that may alter the woman's core body temperature and vaginal secretions 3. Decreased effectiveness in women with irregular cycles 4. Decreased spontaneity of coitus 5. Attending possibly time-consuming training sessions by qualified instructors |
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What is the contraceptive failure rate of fertility awareness methods (FAMs)?
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25%
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What are the potential pitpalls (disadvantages) of using FAMs?
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1. Restriction on sexual spontaneity
2. Rigorous daily monitoring 3. Required training 4. Risk for pregnancy during prolonged training period 5. Risk of pregnancy high on unsafe days |
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What is the only contraceptive practice acceptable to the Roman Catholic Church?
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Natural Family Planning (NFP)
(also known as Periodic Abstinence) |
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What is periodic abstinence or natural family planning (NFP)?
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Avoidance of intercourse during fertile periods
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What are the signs and symptoms of fertility awareness most commonly used with abstinence?
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1. Menstrual bleeding
2. Cervical mucus 3. Basal body temperature |
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What is the critical period that the human ovum can be fertilized?
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No later than 16 to 24 hours after ovulation
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How is the beginning of the fertile period estimated?
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By subtracting 18 days from the length of the shortest cycle
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How is the end of the fertile period estimated?
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By subtracting 11 days from the length of the longest cycle
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Example:
What is the fertile period of a female whose shortest cycle is 24 days and longest cycle is 30 days? |
(1) 24-18 = 6
(2) 30-11 = 19 Therefore, her fertile period is days 6 through 19. |
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What is the cervical mucus ovulation-detection method?
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The technique of using cervical mucus to determine ovulation period
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When is intercourse considered safe using the ovulation method?
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Beginning the 4th day after the last day of wet, clear, slippery mucus
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What are the advantages of the cervical mucus ovulation-detection method?
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1. To alert the couple to the reestablishment of ovulation while breastfeeding and after discontinuation of oral contraception
2. To note anovulatory cycles at any time and at the commencement of menopause 3. To assist couples in planning pregnancy |
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What is the basal body temperature?
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The lowest body temperature of a healthy person, taken immediately after waking and before getting out of bed
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What is the normal range of the basal body temperature?
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36.2 to 36.3 degrees Celcius
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How is the basal body temperature affected by ovulation?
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In some women, there is a slight decrease in temperature (0.5 degrees Celsius)
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How is the basal body temperature affected after ovulation?
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Increases slightly, about 0.4 to 0.8 degrees Celsius, for 2 to 4 days before menstruation
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How is the fertile period determined using the basal body temperature method?
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The day of first temperature drop or first temperature elevation through 3 consecutive days of elevated temperature
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When should abstinence occur?
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The first day of menstrual bleeding and lasts through 3 consecutive days of sustained temperature
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What factors can cause temperature fluctuations?
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1. Infection
2. Fatigue 3. Less than 3 hours of sleep per night 4. Awakening late 5. Anxiety 6. Jet lag 7. Alcohol 8. Antipyretic medications |
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What is the symptothermal method?
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Combination of the cervical mucus and basal body temperature methods for fertility awareness
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What are the secondary symptoms for fertility awareness in the symptothermal method?
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1. Increased libido
2. Midcycle spotting 3. Mittelschmerz 4. Pelvic fullness or tenderness 5. Vulvar fullness |
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How does the urine predictor test for ovulation?
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Detects the sudden surge of luteinizing hormone (LH) that occurs approximately 12 to 24 hours before ovulation
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What is the TwoDay method of family planning?
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Each day the woman asks herself:
1. Did I note secretion today? 2. Did I note secretion yesterday? |
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What are the results of the TwoDay method?
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1. If the answer to EITHER question is yes, coitus should be avoided or birth control should be used
2. If the answer to BOTH questions is no, then coitus should be safe |
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What contraceptive method has protective measures against the spread of STIs such as HPV or herpes simplex virus?
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Barrier contraceptives (i.e condoms)
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What chemical barrier destroys sperm?
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Spermicides
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What is the most commonly used spermicide?
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Nonoxynol-9 (N-9)
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What is the disadvantage of N-9?
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Frequent use (more than 2 times a day) or use as a lubricant during anal intercourse increases the risks of HIV and lesions
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What is a condom?
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A thin, stretchable sheath that covers the penis before genital, oral, or anal contact and is removed when the penis is withdrawn from the partner's orifice after ejaculation
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What type of condom is recommended for persons with latex allergy?
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Lamb skin condoms
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What are the disadvantages of lamb skin condoms?
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They contain small pores that could allow passage of viruses such as hepatitis B, HSV, and HIV
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What are the advantages of male condoms?
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1. Safe
2. No side effects 3. Readily available 4. Premalignant changes in the cervix can be prevented or ameliorated 5. Method of male nonsurgical contraception |
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What are the disadvantages of male condoms?
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1. Must interrupt lovemaking to apply sheath
2. Sensation may be altered 3. Improper use may lead to sperm spillage can result in pregnancy 4. 15% failure rate |
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What is a diaphragm?
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Shallow, dome-shaped latex or silicone device with a flexible rim that covers the cervix
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What are the types of diaphragms?
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1. Coil spring
2. Arcing spring 3. Wide seal rim |
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What are the disadvantages of the diaphragm?
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1. Reluctance to insert and/or remove
2. Inspection after every use 3. Refitted for any 20% weight fluctuation 4. May cause toxic shock syndrome |
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What are the signs and symptoms of toxic shock syndrome?
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1. Sunburn type of rash
2. Diarrhea 3. Dizziness 4. Faintness 5. Weakness 6. Sore throat 7. Aching muscles and joints 8. Sudden high fever 9. Vomiting |
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What is a cervical cap?
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Similar to a diaphragm, but smaller in size
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What factors prevent women from being good candidates for cervical caps?
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1. Abnormal Pap test results
2. Cannot be fitted properly with existing cap sizes 3. Difficulty with inserting and removing device 4. Hx of toxic shock syndrome (TSS) 5. Vaginal or cervical infections 6. Allergy to latex or spermicides |
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What is the failure rate of cervical caps?
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16%
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How do combination oral contraceptive pills work?
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Suppresses hypothalamus and anterior pituitary from secreting FSH and LH, therefore follicles do not mature, and ovulation is inhibited
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What are monophasic pills?
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Combination oral contraceptive pills that provide FIXED dosages of estrogen and progestin
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What are multiphasic pills?
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Combination oral contraceptive pills that provide VARYING dosages of estrogen and progestin
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What must be done to increase the effectiveness of combination oral contraceptive pills?
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Take the pill at the same time every day
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What are the advantages of combination oral contraceptive pills?
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1. Decreased menstrual blood loss
2. Decreased iron-deficiency anemia 3. Regulation of menorrhagia and irregular cycles 4. Reduced incidence of dysmenorrhea and PMS 5. Protection against endometrial cancer and ovarian cancer 6. Reduce incidence of benign breast disease 7. Improve acne 8. Protect against ovarian cysts and salpingitis 9. Decrease risk of ectopic pregnancy |
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What are the disadvantages of combination oral contraceptive pills?
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1. Stroke
2. Myocardial infarction 3. Thromboembolism 4. HTN 5. Gallbladder disease 6. Liver tumors |
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What are the signs of potential complications with combination oral contraceptive pills?
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ACHES:
1. A = abdominal pain 2. C = chest pain or SOB 3. H = headaches 4. E = eye problems 5. S = severe leg pain |
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How do progestin-only methods impair fertility?
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1. Inhibit ovulation
2. Thickening and decreasing amount of cervical mucus 3. Thinning the endometrium 4. Altering cilia in the uterine tubes |
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What precaution should be taken regarding progestin-only methods?
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DO NOT massage the injection site because the action can hasten the absorption and shorten the period of effectiveness
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What are the advantages of progestin-only methods?
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1. Higher effectiveness than COCs
2. Long-lasting effects 3. Only 4 injections per year 4. Lactation not affected |
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What are the disadvantages of progestin-only methods?
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1. Decreased bone mineral density
2. Weight gain 3. Lipid changes 4. Increased risk of venous thrombosis or thromboembolism 5. Irregular vaginal spotting 6. Decreased libido 7. Breast changes |
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What is Implanon?
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A single-rod implant that releases progestin to impair fertility
(no longer available in U.S.) |
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What are the advantages of Implanon?
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1. Effective for up to 3 years
2. Prevent ovulatory cycles and thicken cervical mucus 3. Reversible 4. Does not affect spontaneity of coitus |
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What are the disadvantages of Implanon?
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1. Irregular menstrual bleeding
2. Headaches 3. Nervousness 4. Nausea 5. Skin changes 6. Vertigo |
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What is Plan B?
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An emergency contraceptive that prevents unintended pregnancy
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What must patients be taught regarding Plan B?
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1. Not effective if already pregnant
2. Must be taken with 120 hours of unprotected sex to be effective |
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What is an intrauterine device (IUD)?
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A small, T-shaped device with bendable arms for insertion through the cervix
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What are the disadvantages of the IUD?
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1. Increased risk of pelvic inflammatory disease
2. Unintentional expulsion of device 3. Infection 4. Possible uterine perforation |
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What are the signs of potential complications regarding IUD?
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PAINS:
1. P = period late or abnormal 2. A = abdominal pain 3. I = infection 4. N = not feeling well, fever, chills 5. S = string missing, shorter or longer |
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What is sterilization?
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Surgical procedures intended to render the person infertile
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What is a vasectomy?
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The sealing, tying, or cutting of the man's vas deferens so that sperm cannot travel from the testes to the penis
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What is the main difference between female sterilization and male sterilization?
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Female sterilization is NOT reversible, but male sterilization may be
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What is induced abortion?
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The purposeful interruption of a pregnancy before 20 weeks gestation
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A woman has chosen the calendar method of conception control. During the assessment process, it is most important that the nurse:
a. Obtain a history of menstrual cycle lengths for the past 6 to 12 months b. Determine the client’s weight gain and loss pattern for the previous year c. Examine skin pigmentation and hair texture for hormonal changes d. Explore the client’s previous experiences with conception control |
ANS: A
The calendar method of conception control is based on the number of days in each cycle, counting from the first day of menses. The fertile period is determined after the lengths of menstrual cycles have been accurately recorded for 6 months. Weight gain or loss may be partly related to hormonal fluctuations, but it has no bearing on use of the calendar method. Integumentary changes may be related to hormonal changes, but they are not indicators for use of the calendar method. Exploring previous experiences with conception control may demonstrate client understanding and compliancy, but it is not the most important aspect to assess for discussion of the calendar method. |
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A married couple is discussing alternatives for pregnancy prevention and has asked about fertility awareness methods (FAMs). The nurse’s most appropriate reply is:
a. “They’re not very effective, and it’s very likely you’ll get pregnant.” b. “They can be effective for many couples, but they require motivation.” c. “These methods have a few advantages and several health risks.” d. “You would be much safer going on the pill and not having to worry.” |
ANS: B
FAMs are effective with proper vigilance about ovulatory changes in the body and with adherence to coitus intervals. Fertility awareness methods are effective if used correctly by a woman with a regular menstrual cycle. The typical failure rate for all FAMs is 25% during the first year of use. FAMs have no associated health risks. The use of birth control has associated health risks. In addition, taking a pill daily requires compliance on the client’s part. |
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A woman who has a seizure disorder and takes barbiturates and phenytoin sodium daily asks the nurse about the pill as a contraceptive choice. The nurse’s most appropriate response would be:
a. “This is a highly effective method, but it has some side effects.” b. “Your current medications will reduce the effectiveness of the pill.” c. “The pill will reduce the effectiveness of your seizure medication.” d. “This is a good choice for a woman of your age and personal history.” |
ANS: B
Because the liver metabolizes oral contraceptives, their effectiveness is reduced when they are taken simultaneously with anticonvulsants. Stating that the pill is an effective birth control method with side effects is a true statement, but it is not the most appropriate response. The anticonvulsant reduces the effectiveness of the pill, not the other way around. Stating that the pill is a good choice for a woman of her age and personal history does not teach the client that the effectiveness of the pill may be reduced because of her anticonvulsant therapy. |
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A woman who has just undergone a first-trimester abortion will be using oral contraceptives. To protect against pregnancy, she should be advised to:
a. Avoid sexual contact for at least 10 days after starting the pill b. Use condoms and foam for the first few weeks as backup c. Use another method of contraception for 1 week after starting the pill d. Begin sexual relations once vaginal bleeding has ended |
ANS: C
If contraceptives are to be started within 3 weeks after an abortion, another method of contraception should be used throughout the first week to avoid the risk of pregnancy. If contraceptives are to be started within 3 weeks after an abortion, another method of contraception should be used throughout the first week to avoid the risk of pregnancy. Additional forms of contraception should be used for 1 week after starting on oral contraceptives. If contraceptives are to be started within 3 weeks after an abortion, another method of contraception should be used throughout the first week to avoid the risk of pregnancy. |
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Injectable progestins (DMPA, Depo-Provera) are a good contraceptive choice for women who:
a. Want menstrual regularity and predictability b. Have a history of thrombotic problems or breast cancer c. Have difficulty remembering to take oral contraceptives daily d. Are homeless or mobile and rarely receive health care |
ANS: C
Advantages of DMPA include a contraceptive effectiveness comparable to that of combined oral contraceptives with the requirement of only four injections a year. Disadvantages of injectable progestins are prolonged amenorrhea and uterine bleeding. Use of injectable progestin carries an increased risk of venous thrombosis and thromboembolism. To be effective, DMPA injections must be administered every 11 to 13 weeks. Access to health care is necessary to prevent pregnancy or potential complications. |
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A woman currently uses a diaphragm and spermicide for contraception. She asks the nurse what the major differences are between the cervical cap and diaphragm. The nurse’s most appropriate response is:
a. “No spermicide is used with the cervical cap, so it’s less messy.” b. “The diaphragm can be left in place longer after intercourse.” c. “Repeated intercourse with the diaphragm is more convenient.” d. “The cervical cap can safely be used for repeated acts of intercourse without adding more spermicide later.” |
ANS: D
The cervical cap can be inserted hours before sexual intercourse without the need for additional spermicide later. No additional spermicide is required for repeated acts of intercourse. Spermicide should be used inside the cap as an additional chemical barrier. The cervical cap should remain in place for 6 hours after the last act of intercourse. Repeated intercourse with the cervical cap is more convenient because no additional spermicide is needed. |
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Postcoital contraception with Ovral:
a. Requires that the first dose be taken within 120 hours of unprotected intercourse b. Requires that the woman take second and third doses at 24 and 36 hours after the first dose c. Has an effectiveness rate in preventing pregnancy of approximately 50% d. Is commonly associated with the side effect of menorrhagia |
ANS: A
Emergency contraception is used within 120 hours of unprotected intercourse to prevent pregnancy. The first dose of an emergency contraception should be taken within 120 hours after coitus. Postcoital use of Ovral is 74% to 90% effective at preventing pregnancy. The common side effect of postcoital contraception is nausea. |
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An unmarried young woman describes her sex life as “active” and involving “many” partners. She wants a contraceptive method that is reliable and does not interfere with sex. She requests an intrauterine device (IUD). The nurse’s most appropriate response is:
a. “The IUD does not interfere with sex.” b. “The risk of pelvic inflammatory disease will be higher for you.” c. “The IUD will protect you from sexually transmitted infections.” d. “Pregnancy rates are high with the IUDs.” |
ANS: B
Disadvantages of IUDs include an increased risk of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) in the first 20 days after insertion, as well as the risks of bacterial vaginosis and uterine perforation. The IUD offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs) or the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Because this woman has multiple sex partners, she is at higher risk of developing an STI. The IUD does not protect against infection, as does a barrier method. Stating that an IUD does not interfere with sex may be correct, it is not the most appropriate response. The IUD offers no protection from STIs. The typical failure rate of the IUD ranges from 0.8% to 2%. |
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A woman is 16 weeks pregnant and has elected to terminate her pregnancy. The nurse knows that the most common technique used for medical termination of a pregnancy in the second trimester is:
a. Administration of prostaglandins b. Instillation of hypertonic saline into the uterine cavity c. IV administration of Pitocin d. Vacuum aspiration |
ANS: A
The most common technique for medical termination of a pregnancy in the second trimester is administration of prostaglandins. Hypertonic solutions injected directly into the uterus account for less than 1% of all abortions because other methods are safer and easier to use. IV administration of Pitocin is used to induce labor in a woman with a third-trimester fetal demise. Vacuum aspiration is used for abortions in the first trimester. |
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A woman will be taking oral contraceptives using a 28-day pack. The nurse should advise this woman to protect against pregnancy by:
a. Limiting sexual contact for one cycle after starting the pill b. Using condoms and foam instead of the pill for as long as she takes an antibiotic c. Taking one pill at the same time every day d. Throwing away the pack and using a backup method if she misses two pills during week 1 of her cycle |
ANS: C
To maintain adequate hormone levels for contraception and to enhance compliance, clients should take oral contraceptives at the same time each day. If contraceptives are to be started at any time other than during normal menses or within 3 weeks after birth or abortion, another method of contraception should be used through the first week to prevent the risk of pregnancy. Taken exactly as directed, oral contraceptives prevent ovulation, and pregnancy cannot occur. No strong pharmacokinetic evidence indicates a link between the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics and altered hormonal levels in oral contraceptive users. If the client misses two pills during week 1, she should take two pills a day for 2 days and finish the package and use a backup method the next 7 consecutive days. |
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A woman had unprotected intercourse 36 hours ago and is concerned that she may become pregnant because it is her “fertile” time. She asks the nurse about emergency contraception. The nurse would tell her that:
a. It is too late; she needed to begin treatment within 24 hours after intercourse b. Preven, an emergency contraceptive method, is 98% effective at preventing pregnancy c. An over-the-counter antiemetic can be taken 1 hour before each contraceptive dose to prevent nausea and vomiting d. The most effective approach is to use a progestin-only preparation |
ANS: C
To minimize the side effect of nausea that occurs with high doses of estrogen and progestin, the woman can take an over-the-counter antiemetic 1 hour before each dose. Emergency contraception is used within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse to prevent pregnancy. Postcoital contraceptive use is 74% to 90% effective at preventing pregnancy. Oral emergency contraceptive regimens may include progestin-only and estrogen-progestin pills. Women with contraindications to estrogen use should use progestin-only pills |
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Although reported in small numbers, toxic shock syndrome can occur with the use of a diaphragm. If a client is interested in this form of conception control, the nurse should teach the woman how to reduce her risk of TSS. The nurse might say:
a. “You should always remove your diaphragm 6 to 8 hours after intercourse. Don’t use the diaphragm during menses, and watch for danger signs of TSS, including a sudden onset of fever over 38.4º C, hypotension, and a rash.” b. “You should remove your diaphragm right after intercourse to prevent TSS.” c. “It’s okay to use your diaphragm during your menstrual cycle. Just be sure to wash it thoroughly first to prevent TSS.” d. “Make sure you don’t leave your diaphragm in for longer than 24 hours, or you may get TSS.” |
ANS: A
The nurse should instruct the client on proper use and removal of the diaphragm, and include the danger signs of TSS. The diaphragm must remain against the cervix for 6 to 8 hours to prevent pregnancy, but it should not remain in place longer than 8 hours to avoid the risk of TSS. The diaphragm should not be used during menses. The diaphragm needs to remain against the cervix for 6 to 8 hours to prevent pregnancy, but it should not remain in place longer than 8 hours to avoid the risk of TSS. |
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The conscious decision on when to conceive or avoid pregnancy throughout the reproductive years is called:
a. Family planning b. Birth control c. Contraception d. Assisted reproductive therapy |
ANS: A
Family planning is the process of deciding when and if to have children. Birth control is the device and/or practice used to reduce the risk of conceiving or bearing children. Contraception is the intentional prevention of pregnancy during sexual intercourse. Assisted reproductive therapy is one of several possible treatments for infertility. |
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In the acronym BRAIDED, which letter is used to identify the key components of informed consent that the nurse must document?
a. B stands for “babies.” b. R stands for “reproduction.” c. A stands for “alternatives.” d. I stands for “ineffective.” |
ANS: C
A stands for alternatives, or information about other viable methods. B stands for benefits, or information about advantages and success rates. R stands for risks, or information about disadvantages and failure rates. I stands for inquiries, or the opportunity to ask questions |
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What is not a potential pitfall or disadvantage of the fertility awareness methods (FAMs)?
a. Adherence to strict record keeping b. Alterations in the menstrual flow pattern with chemicals and hormones c. Decreased effectiveness in women with irregular cycles d. Time-consuming training sessions |
ANS: B
The absence of chemicals or hormones to alter the menstrual flow is an advantage. The strict record keeping FAMs require creates a potential risk. FAMs are less effective for women with irregular cycles. FAMs require time-consuming training for effective use. |
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While instructing a couple regarding birth control, the nurse should be aware that the method called natural family planning:
a. Is the same as coitus interruptus, or “pulling out” b. Uses the calendar method to align the woman’s cycle with the natural phases of the moon c. Is the only contraceptive practice acceptable to the Roman Catholic Church d. Relies on barrier methods during fertility phases |
ANS: C
Natural family planning is the only contraceptive practice acceptable to the Roman Catholic Church. “Pulling out” is not the same as periodic abstinence, another name for natural family planning. The phases of the moon are not part of the calendar method or any method. Natural family planning is another name for periodic abstinence, which is the accepted way to pass safely through the fertility phases without relying on chemical or physical barriers. |
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Which contraceptive method has a failure rate of less than 25%?
a. Standard days b. Periodic abstinence c. Postovulation d. Coitus interruptus |
ANS: A
The standard days variation on the calendar method has a failure rate of 12%. The periodic abstinence method has a failure rate of 25% or higher. The standard days variation on the calendar method has a failure rate of 12%. The postovulation method has a failure rate of 25% or higher. The coitus interruptus method has a failure rate of 27% or higher. |
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Which contraceptive method best protects against sexually transmitted infections (STIs) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
a. Periodic abstinence b. Barrier methods c. Hormonal methods d. They all offer about the same protection. |
ANS: B
Barrier methods, such as condoms, best protect against STIs and HIV. Periodic abstinence offers no protection against STIs or HIV. Hormonal methods, such as birth control pills, offer no protection against STIs or HIV. Periodic abstinence and hormonal methods (“the pill”) offer no protection against STIs or HIV. |
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With regard to the noncontraceptive medical effects of combination oral contraceptives (COCs), nurses should be aware that:
a. COCs can cause toxic shock syndrome if the prescription is wrong b. Hormonal withdrawal bleeding usually is a bit more profuse than in normal menstruation and lasts a week c. COCs increase the risk of endometrial and ovarian cancer d. The effectiveness of COCs can be altered by some over-the-counter medications and herbal supplements |
ANS: D
The effectiveness of COCs can be altered by some over-the-counter medications and herbal supplements. Toxic shock syndrome can occur in some diaphragm users, but it is not a consequence of taking oral contraceptive pills. Hormonal withdrawal bleeding usually is lighter than in normal menstruation and lasts a couple of days. Oral contraceptive pills offer protection against the risk of endometrial and ovarian cancers. |
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With regard to the use of intrauterine devices (IUDs), nurses should be aware that:
a. Return to fertility can take several weeks after the device is removed b. IUDs containing copper can provide an emergency contraception option if inserted within a few days of unprotected intercourse c. IUDs offer the same protection against sexually transmitted infections as the diaphragm d. Consent forms are not needed for IUD insertion |
ANS: B
The woman has up to 5 days to insert the IUD after unprotected sex. Return to fertility is immediate after removal of the IUD. IUDs offer no protection for sexually transmitted infections. A consent form is required for insertion, as is a negative pregnancy test. |
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Which statement is the most complete and accurate description of medical abortions?
a. They are performed only for maternal health. b. They can be achieved through surgical procedures or with drugs. c. They are mostly performed in the second trimester. d. They can be either elective or therapeutic. |
ANS: D
Abortions can be either elective (the woman’s choice) or therapeutic (for reasons of maternal or fetal health). Abortions might be performed for maternal health or because of the woman’s choice. Medical abortions are performed through the use of medications (rather than surgical procedures). Medical abortions are usually performed in the first trimester. |
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You (the nurse) are reviewing the educational packet provided to a client about tubal ligation. What is an important fact you should point out? Choose all that apply.
a. “It is highly unlikely that you will become pregnant after the procedure.” b. “This is an effective form of 100% permanent sterilization. You won’t be able to get pregnant.” c. “Sterilization offers some form of protection against sexually transmitted infections.” d. “Sterilization offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections.” e. “Your menstrual cycle will greatly increase after your sterilization.” |
ANS: A, D
A woman is unlikely to become pregnant after tubal ligation. Sterilization offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Tubal ligation is not 100% effective. Tubal ligation does not offer any protection against STIs. Typically, the menstrual cycle remains the same after a tubal ligation. |
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The ________________ _______________ _________________ (LAM) can be a highly effective, temporary method of birth control.
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ANS:
Lactation amenorrhea method This method is more popular in undeveloped countries and traditional societies where breastfeeding is used to prolong pregnancy intervals. Most American women do not establish breastfeeding patterns that provide maximum protection from pregnancy. |
