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229 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
what are the three types of nerve fibers that constitute the cranial nerves?
sensory, motor, and parasympathetic
what is the effector organ for cranial nerve 3 (occulomotor)?
smooth muscle of eyes
what is the function of the cranial nerve 3 (occulomotor)?
contract sphincter papillae of iris (pupils contract) and contract muscles of ciliary body (lens budge)
what is the effector organ of cranial nerve 7 (facial)?
nasal, lacrimal, sublingual, and submandibular glands of head
what is the function of cranial nerve 7 (facial)?
stimulate secretions
what is the effector organ of cranial nerve 9 (glossopharyngeal)?
parotid and other glands anterior to ear
what is the function of cranial nerve 9 (glossopharyngeal)?
stimulate secretions


what is the effector organ of 90% of all preganglionic fibers?
cardiac plexus, pulmonary plexus, oesophageal plexus, and abdomina plexus
slow heart rate
cardiac plexus
constrict bronchi and stimulate mucus secretions
pulmonary plexus
increase motility, relax sphincters and increase flow of digestive juices
oesophageal plexus and abdomina plexus
length of fibers in parasympathetic: _________ preganglionic and _________ postganglionic
long; short
there are _______ cranial nerves in humans
12
what is the function of cranial nerve I (olfactory)
smell
what is the function of cranial nerve 2 (optic)?
vision
what is the function of cranial nerve IV (trochlear)?
eye muscles (superior oblique)
what is the function of cranial nerve V (trigeminal) (V1 (ophthalmic), V2 (maxillary), and V3 (mandibular)?
general sensory and chewing muscles
what is the function of cranial nerve VI (abducens)?
eye muscles (lateral rectus)
what is the function of cranial nerve VII (facial)
taste and facial muscles
what is the function of cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear)?
hearing/balance and sensitivity setting
what is the function of cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal)?
taste and tongue/pharynx
what is the function of cranial nerve X (vagus)?
taste and visceral
what is the function of cranial nerve XI (accessory)?
neck
what is the function of cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal)?
tongue
which cranial nerves are in parasympathetic?
cranial nerve III, VII, IX, and X
cranial nerve I - site of exit from cranium and site of exit at effector region
cribiform plate
cranial nerve II - site of exit from cranium and site of exit at effector region
optic canal of orbit
cranial nerve III - site of exit from cranium and site of exit at effector region
superior orbital fissure
cranial nerve IV - site of exit from cranium and site of exit at effector region
superior orbital fissure
cranial nerve V1 - site of exit from cranium
superior orbital fissure
cranial nerve V1 - site of exit at effector region
supraorbital foramen
cranial nerve V2 - site of exit from cranium
foramen rotundum
cranial nerve V2 - site of exit at effector region
infraorbital foramen
cranial nerve V3 - site of exit from cranium
foramen ovale
cranial nerve V3 - site of exit at effector region
mental foramen
cranial nerve VI - site of exit from cranium and site of exit at effector region
superior orbital fissure
cranial nerve VII - site of exit from cranium
internal acoustic meatus
cranial nerve VII - site of exit at effector region
stylomastoid foramen
cranial nerve VIII - site of exit from cranium and site of exit at effector region
internal acoustic meatus
cranial nerve IX - site of exit from cranium and site of exit at effector region
jugular foramen
cranial nerve X - site of exit from cranium and site of exit at effector region
jugular foramen


cranial nerve XI - site of exit from cranium and site of exit at effector region
jugular foramen
cranial nerve XII - site of exit from cranium and site of exit at effector region
hypoglossal canal
is the function of the olfactory nerve sensory, motor, or parasympathetic?
purely sensory


is the function of the optic nerve sensory, motor, or parasympathetic?
purely sensory




is the function of the oculomotor nerve sensory, motor, or parasympathetic?
primarily motor
is the function of the trochlear nerve sensory, motor, or parasympathetic?
primarily motor


is the function of the trigeminal nerve sensory, motor, or parasympathetic?
mixed; sensory and motor
is the function of the abducens nerve sensory, motor, or parasympathetic?
motor
is the function of the facial nerve sensory, motor, or parasympathetic?
mixed; motor, parasympathetic, and sensory
is the function of the vestibulocochlear nerve sensory, motor, or parasympathetic?
purely sensory


is the function of the glossopharyngeal nerve sensory, motor, or parasympathetic?
mixed; motor, sensory, and parasympathetic
is the function of the vagus nerve sensory, motor, or parasympathetic?
mixed; motor, sensory, and parasympathetic


is the function of the accessory nerve sensory, motor, or parasympathetic?
mixed but primarily motor in function


is the function of the olfactory nerve sensory, motor, or parasympathetic?
mixed but primarily motor in function
how many branches does the trigeminal (V) nerve have?
three; V1 (ophthalmic) V2 (maxillary) and V3 (mandibular)
how many branches does the facial (VII) nerve have?
six; temporal, zygomatic, buccal, mandibular, cervical, and poster auricular
elevates eye and turns it laterally
inferior oblique
cranial nerve that supplies the inferior oblique
oculomotor
adducting eyes
superior rectus, middle rectus, and inferior rectus
cranial nerve supplying superior, middle, and inferior rectus
oculomotor
abducting eyes
lateral rectus
cranial nerve supplying the lateral rectus
abducens nerve
depress and medially rotate eye
superior oblique
what cranial nerve supplies the superior oblique
trochlear nerve
retracts and elects eyelid
levator palpebrae superioris
which cranial nerve supplies the levator palpebral superioris?
oculomotor
the taste buds are innervated by which three cranial nerves?
facial nerve, glossopharyngeal nerve, and vagus nerve
anterior 2/3rd tongue
facial nerve
posterior ⅓ tongue
glossopharyngeal nerve


epiglottis
vagus nerve
the nerve responsible for balance and hearing
vestibulocochlear
rapid movement/quivering of the eyeballs
nystagmus
which nerves have parasympathetic fibers?
oculomotor, facial, glossopharyngeal, and vagus

monitors the external environment; outside the body

exteroreceptors

monitors stretch receptors (in walls of hollow organs) inside the body

interoreceptors

monitors internal environment (body movement and position; inside the body (esp. musculoskeletal)

propriaceptors

general senses (free nerve endings and simple encapsulated nerve endings) (muscle, skin)

simple receptors

serve the special senses (vision, hearing, smell, and taste)

complex receptors

which tracts are motor?

lateral and anterior corticospinal tracts; rubrospinal tract

which tracts are sensory?

lateral and ventral spinothalamic tract

function of the frontal lobe

motor, prob. solving, memory, language, judgement, seocial

function of the temporal lobe

auditory perception

function of the insula

assists in motor function

function of parietal lobe

sensation and perception

function of occipital lobe

visual processing center

impulses traveling from the body's sensory receptors are located in ___________

postcentral gyri

responsible for conscious or voluntary movement

precentral gyri

houses a meningeal branch for V3

foramina spinosum

the route of the internal carotid artery

carotid canal + foramen lacerum

_____ pathways tend to have more neurons than _________

sensory; motor

"crossing over"

decussation

intrinsic reflexes; rapid and predictable; generally a motor response to stimulus; involunatry; component: spinal reflex

inborn reflex arc

practice; reptition; components: far more complex (higher brain centers)

learned reflex arcs

what are the 5 components of a reflex

1. receptor


2. sensory neuron


3. integration center


4. motor neuron


5. effector organ

1 synapse

monosynaptic reflex

more than 1 synapse

polysynaptic reflex

activating skeletal muscle

somatic reflex

activating viscera

autonomic reflex

cause muscle contraction in response to increase in muscle length; usually monosynaptic; ipsilateral

stretch reflex

modified muscle cell; associated with sensory nerves; sensitive to stretch

muscle spindle

purely polysynaptic; all about muscle movement in response to tension

golgi tendon reflex

what happens during golgi tendon reflex?

antagonistic muscle excited; contracting muscle inhibited

stim. by gentle cutaneous action; shows function of upper motor pathways and cord-level reflexes

superficial reflexes

what are the conn. tissue elements of a peripheral nerve

epineurium, perineurium, and endoneurium

in CNS and ganglia of PNS; transmit messages from one part of body to another

neuron

in CNS; support cell; control chemical environment

astrocyte

in CNS; phagocytes

microglia

in CNS; produce cerebral spinal fluid

ependymal

in CNS; myelinated the extension of neurons

oligodendrocytes

in PNS; cover nerve cell bodies; control of sympathetic ganglia

satellite

in PNS; myelinated the extenions of neurons

schwann cell

which nerves are purely sensory

dorsal

which nerves are purely motor

ventral

which nerves are mixed sensory and motor

spinal nerves

how many cervical nerves are there?

8

region where the spinal cord terminates (L1-L2)

conus medularris

collection of spinal nerves passing through inferior end of vertebral canal

cauda equinae

fibrous extension of the pia mater; gives longitudinal support to spinal cord

filum terminale

what are the three plexuses?

cervical, brachial, and lumbosacral

the thoracolumbar region as _____ preganglionic and _____ postganglionic fibers

short; long

nerves involved to stimulate sweat; constrict BV; hair on end

T1-L3

nerves involved to contract radial muscles of iris (dilate pupil); decrease salivary secretions; innervate SM of eyelid

T1-T4

nerves involved in cardiac plexus (inc. hr) and pulm. plexus (dilate bronchioles)

T1-T6

nerves involved in general inhibition; release glucagon from liver

T5-T10

nerves involved in inhibitory for rest of digestive tract; vasoconstriction and uterine contraction

T5-L2

nerves involved in secreting adrenaline and noradrenaline

T6-L2

ascending pathways are

sensory

descending pathways are

motor

what are the steps of regeneration of a neuron if in PNS?

1. after crushed, 2 ends seal themselves off


2. cleaning (phagocytes phagocytize debris)


3.formation of complete schwann cell sheath


4. finish

is there regeneration if damage to the CNS neurons? and why?

NO; b/c oligodendrocytes have growth inhibiting proteins and astrocytes make scar tissue

function of medial melniscal pathway

fine touch (light/tough discrimination)

function of lateral spinothalamic pathway

coarse touch, pain, temperature, sensation, and "sensations" (odd things)

function of dorsal spinocerebellar pathway

noticing muscle/tendon stretch

function of lateral corticospinal pathway (motor)

fast and fine skilled movement

function of central corticospinal pathway (motor)

fast and fine skilled movement

function of rubospinal tract

balance and posture; coarse movement and head and neck to follow eye movement; muscle tone and distal limb musculature

virus that targets your central horn; paralyzed

poliomyeitis

targets ventral horn and pyramidal tracts (fine control issues_

lou gehrigs disease

when intraocular pressure reaches dangerously high levels the retina and optic nerve are compressed

glaucoma

lens becomes increasingly hard and opaque; cause vision to become hazy or entirely obstructed

cataract

a fault in the development of one or more cones

color blindness

retina pulls away from layer of blood vessels

detachment of retina

eyeball too short; focal point before the focal plane

myopic

eyeball too long; focal point after the focal place

hyperopic

which lens corrects a myopic eye

concave; bends light in opp. direction

which lens corrects a hyperopic eye

convex lens; bends light in

optic nerve lesion

blind in one eye, but can still see from left and right

optic chiasm severed

will lose peripheral vision; only can see whats right in front of you

optic tract severed

can only see from one side

photoreceptor region; very sensitive to light; dim light/peripheral vision; visual pigment = grey

rods

bright lights; low sensitivity; high acquit; color vision; high resolution; cannot see good in dim light

cones

absorb blue

cone 1

absorb green

cone 2

absorb red

cone 3

can focus in order to see fine detail; only cones

fovea centralis

normal state for eyes; all muscles are relaxed

distance vision

requires efforts; eye has to make adjustments; accommodation of lens, constriction of pupils, and convergence of eyeballs

near vision

longevity of a nerve cell

100 years

cannot undergo nuclear division

amitotic

biosynthetic part of a neuron; makes a lot of stuff

soma

cluster of soma called ______ in CNS

nucleus

cluster of soma called ________ in PNS

ganglion

bundles of processes called _______ in CNS

tracts

bundles of processes called ________ in PNS

nerves

what do axons rely on for proteins

soma

most abundant neurons in body; motor neurons and interneurons; makes ap; has multiple processes

mutipolar neuron

one dendrite and one axon; rarest neurons; special senses, vision auditory, olfactory; may not make AP (only one)

bipolar neuron

mainly in PNS; dorsal root ganglion; sensory; makes AP

unipolar

only holds chemically gated ion channels

receptive region

gen. and transmitting AP; voltage gated ion channels

conducting region

neurotransmitters; only voltage gated Ca2+ ion channels

secretory region

supportive cells

neuroglia

myelinated nerve fibers

white matter

soma + unmyelinated nerve fibers

grey matter

in spinal cord....


grey matter _______ and white matter _______

inside; outside


in brain....


grey matter ________ and white matter _______

inside

meninges of spinal cord extend to _______

S2

end of spinal cord at _____

L2/L3

what is the epidural space filled with

fat and network of veins

what is the order of layers in a histology slide of the retina?

pigment cell, photoreceptor cell, bipolar cell, ganglionic cell

sensing chemicals; chemicals must be dissolved in a fluid; fluid source near by

chemoreception

physical/nutritional support on smell diagram

sustentacular cells

which series of cation channels open up once odorant binds to membrane of cilium?

Na+ and Ca2+

if open Na+ channels in olfactory....

depolarization (graded pot.)

if open Ca2+ channels in olfactory.....

adaptation (getting used to smell)

which type of epithelium is the taste diagram

stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium

complete adaptation of taste buds is.....

1-2 min



taste transduction: moving of Na+ ions

salt

taste transduction: acidic (H+) trigger opening of channels

sour

G proteins and opening of Ca2+ ion channels

sweet, bitter, umami

glutamate (beefy/tangy taste of cheese)

umami

alkaloids (caffeine/morphine)

biter

metal ions (NaCl)

salty

____% of taste is really smell, thermoreceptors, mechanoreceptors, and nociceptors

80

lack of functioning olfaction; results from head injuries, nasal cavity inflammations, and aging

anosmia

macula is horizontal; hairs are vertical when upright; respond to acc. in the horizontal place and tilting of head; will bend if move in horiz. plane

utricle

macula is in vertical plane; hairs are horizontal when upright; will bend if move in vertical place; adapt quickly; respond more to changes in velocity

saccula

where are macula found?

in walls of utricle and saccula

where are crista ampullares located?

base of each semicircular canal in expanded region called an ampulla

how many pairs of chromosomes do humans have

23

unit of dna

chromosome

chromosome that has replicated itself

sister chromatids

pair of chromosomes that are similar but not identical

homologs

homolog of sister chromosomes

tetrad

has all 46 chromosomes

diploid

has half the chromosomes (1 of each homolog)

haploid

nuclear division (fission) that produces 2 identical cells

mitosis

nuclear division that produces 4 haploid cells; takes twice as long

meiosis

explain mitosis

interphase: when chromosome replicates itself into 2 sister chromatids


prophase I: tetrads form; nuclear envelope disintegrates


metaphase I: tetrads align


anaphase I: sister chromatids ripped apart


telophase I: formation of 2 cells (diploids)

explain meiosis

interphase: when chromosome replicates itself into 2 sister chromatids


prophase I: tetrads form; nuclear envelope disintegrates


metaphase I: homologs align


anaphase I: homologs ripped apart


telophase I: 2 non identical cells


prophase II: nuclear envelope disintegrates


metaphase II: chromosomes align


anaphase II: chromatids are split


telophase II: 4 haploid cells



lipid enzymes that make semen white

serous

uterine stage days 4-14; ova are in follicles; straight glands and helical arteries and thickening of functional later

follicular stage

after ovulation (5 min); days 15-28; uterus is thickening in preparation for implantation; thickening functional layer (a lot); secrete glycogen and produces tortuous vascular glands

luteal stage

decimation of endometrium (cells die); sporadic constriction of helical arteries; any peripheral cells will die; blood wash out dead cells; leads to thinning of functional layer

menstrual stage

located in tubule periphery; stem cell line

spermatogonia

above spermatogonia; larger than spermatogonia

primary spermatocytes

closest to lumen; lighter; undergone meiosis II

spermatids

above primary spermatocytes; undergone meiosis I

secondary spermatocytes

in lumen; "tails"

spermatozoa

2 oocytes and 2 diff sperm

non identical twins

1 oocyte and 1 sperm split

identical twins

produces ATCH, TSH, GH, FSH, and PRL

adenohypophysis (anterior pituitary)

produces oxytocin and ADH

neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary)

produces thyroid hormone and triiodothyronine

thyroid

produces parathyroid hormone; on posterior surface of thyroid gland


parathyroid

produces insulin and glucagon; in pancreas

islets of langerhans

produces corticosteroids; on top of kidneys

adrenal cortex

produces epinephrine and norepinephrine; on top of kidneys

adrenal medulla