Adult Echo Reg 1

Front 1

Which fetal cardiac shunt usually closes first after birth

Back 1

Ductus arteriosus

Front 2

Back 2

.

Front 3

Back 3

.

Front 4

4. During embryological development of the heart, six pairs of aortic arches form and atrophy or evolve into different structures. Which one formed the aortic Arch?

Back 4

The 4th Left

Front 5

1b. What portion of the aorta is located from the Isthmus of to the diaphragm

Back 5

Descending thoracic aorta.

Front 6

2b. Which of the following right ventricular wall segments is seen on a sub costal 4 Chamber View?

Back 6

Inferior wall segments

Front 7

3b. Which of the aortic valve leaflet is closest to the interatrial septum?

Back 7

Non coronary cusp

Front 8

4b. The aortic valve normally opens blank seen on an EKG

Back 8

Approximately 30 - 35 ms after the completion of the QRS wave

Front 9

1c. Which lab values are most important for a physician to review prior to scheduling a pericardiocentesis

Back 9

PT & INR

Used to assess the coagulability or clot-ability of the blood.

Front 10

2c. Systemic blood pressure taken before a treadmill stress echo should be obtained with the patient in the

Back 10

Supine and standing positions

Front 11

3c. Carnitine deficiency is associated with:

Back 11

Dilated cardiomyopathy

Front 12

4c. The pulmonary capillary wedge pressure evaluated on a right heart catheterization should represent the pressure in the blank

Back 12

Left atrium

Front 13

1d. What is a potential cause for the abnormal swelling appearance in the contrast

Back 13

• High mechanical index settings

Front 14

2d. Which ultrasound technique has the highest temporal resolution

Back 14

• M-mode

Front 15

3d. All velocity and time interval measurement should be measured at a sweep speed of blank or greater

Back 15

• 100 mm/s

Front 16

4d. The thickness of the interventricular septum will be best visualized when:

Back 16

• US beam is perpendicular to the long axis of the septum

Front 17

1e. Which calculation is used to evaluate the effects of a vsd on the pulmonary and systemic flow

Back 17

• Qp/Qs

Front 18

2e. If the PISA radius for the mitral regurgitation is 1.0 CM. What should you do next to assess the level of Mr present?

Back 18

• PW Doppler the pulmonary vein

Front 19

3e. The proper placement of the emerald cursor or assessment of the EF% in the long axis view is:

Back 19

• between the papillary muscle head and the mitral leaflet tips

Front 20

4e. The left atrium volume measurement is performed during what portion of the cardiac cycle

Back 20

• end systole

Front 21

1f. Which of the following describes an apical View that is suboptimal

Back 21

• the LV Apex is rounded

Front 22

2f. Why is the apical 4 chamber view preferred for the Doppler evaluation of the mitral valve?

Back 22

• PW player is most accurate when the sample can be obtained with the incident and beam at a zero degree angle to the flow

Front 23

3f. What is the most reliable method for diagnosing cardiac tamponade

Back 23

• Doppler evaluation of mitral inflow velocities during normal respiration

Front 24

4f. What abnormality is demonstrated using saline contrast while performing in PLAX view of the heart

Back 24

• persistent left SVC

Front 25

1g. What usually causes a slow, gradual onset of MR?

Back 25

• Rheumatic fever

Front 26

2g. A 62 year old female presents with dyspnea and htn. The echo demonstrates a tricuspid regurgitation jet with a peak velocity of 3.2 meters per second and a right ventricular free wall measures 0.7 CM. What is the most likely diagnosis for these findings

Back 26

• pulmonary hypertension

Front 27

3g. Diastolic flow reversal in the hepatic veins, diminished s velocity and prominent a wave on a pulmonary venous tracing, with a mitral either a ratio of 1. And 9 correlates with which pathology

Back 27

• constrictive pericarditis

Front 28

4g. SWA performing an echo you note that there is apical displacement of one or more tricuspid leaflets for the Chinese Crested and newest is in the normal position. Which of the following describes the findings?

Back 28

• ebstein's anomaly

Front 29

1h. Which of the following parts of the complete atrioventricular septal defect associated with trisomy 21?

Back 29

• ostium primum defects

Trisomy 21 = down syndrome

Front 30

2h. A patient with a history of rheumatic fever presents with an early diastolic snap heard and a rumbling diastolic murmur what is the most likely finding on the echocardiogram for this patient?

Back 30

• mitral stenosis loud S1 snap

Front 31

3h. All of the following carry a higher risk for developing coronary artery disease

Back 31

• steroid therapy, IDDM, htn

Front 32

4h. Flattening of the ventricular septum is not an expected finding with

Back 32

• 3 mm muscular vsd

Front 33

1i. Mitral stenosis will blank the pressure halftime of the flow across the valve

Back 33

• an increase in

Front 34

2i.

Back 34

•

Front 35

3i. A patient presents for an Echo due to a recent diagnosis of renal cell carcinoma. What cardiovascular structure should be closely evaluated for changes related to the recent diagnosis?

Back 35

• IVC

Front 36

4i. Aortic dissection originates in the proximal ascending aorta and is confined to that portion of the aorta. What Debakey classification

Back 36

• DeBakey type 2

Front 37

1j. Tachycardia, dyspnea, orthopnea, and lower extremity edema are clinical findings that are most suggestive of:

Back 37

• dilated cardiomyopathy

Front 38

2j. What heart sound is associated with tricuspid stenosis

Back 38

• opening snap

due to limitations in valve Motion in diastole

Front 39

3j. How does restrictive cardiomyopathy affect pulmonary venous

Back 39

• blunted systolic velocity and increase diastolic velocity

Front 40

4j. Asking a patient with constrictive pericarditis to take in a deep breath will cause:

Back 40

• a decrease of the mitral a velocity >25%