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118 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Maximum number of passenger seats? |
180 |
|
Upper and lower G limits for clean configuration? |
-1 g to +2.5 g |
|
Upper and lower G limits for slats and flaps extended |
0 g to +2 g |
|
Upper and lower G limits for slats extended and flaps retracted? |
0 g to +2 g |
|
Maximum taxi weight? (kgs or lbs) |
73,900 kg (162,921 lb) |
|
Maximum take off weight? (kgs or lbs) |
73,500 kg (162,039 lb) |
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Maximum landing weight? (kgs or lbs) |
64,500 kg (142,198 lb) |
|
Maximum zero fuel weight? (kgs or lbs) |
61,000 kg (134,481 lb) |
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Minimum weight? (kgs or lbs) |
37,230 kg (82,079 lb) |
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Runway slope limitation? |
± 2° |
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Maximum Runway altitude? |
9,200 ft |
|
Nominal runway width? (meters) |
45 m |
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Maximum demonstrated crosswind? |
38 kt (gust included) |
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Maximum tailwind for takeoff? |
15 kts |
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Maximum tailwind for landing? |
15 kts |
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If landing with a 15 kt tailwind, what is the only flap configuration permitted? |
Flaps full |
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Maximum tailwind for automatic landing and rolllout? |
10 kt |
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Maximum wind for passenger door operation? |
65 kt |
|
Maximum wind for cargo door operation?
Also, cargo door must be closed, before the wind speed exceeds ___ kt. |
40 kt (or 50 kt, if the aircraft nose is oriented into the wind, or the cargo door is on the leeward side)
Cargo door must be closed, before the wind speed exceeds 65 kt. |
|
Maximum crosswind on a damp or wet (3 mm or less of water)? |
38 kt |
|
Maximum crosswind on a runway with 3 mm or less of slush, dry snow, or wet snow? |
29 kt |
|
Maximum crosswind on a runway with frost or compacted snow (OAT below -15°C)? |
29 kt |
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Maximum crosswind when runway is "slippery when wet", compacted snow (OAT above -15°C), or more than 3 mm of dry snow or wet snow? |
25 kt |
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Maximum crosswind when runway has more than 3 mm of water or slush? |
20 kt |
|
Maximum crosswind when runway has ice (cold & dry)? |
15 kt |
|
Takeoff is not recommended on: 1. Wet ice 2. Water on top of compacted snow 3. Dry snow or wet snow over ice
(Not a question) |
(No answer) |
|
If alternate law or direct law is active, full ailerons and rudder application should be confined to speeds below _______? (What V speed) |
Va |
|
If alternate or direct law is active, maneuvers involving angle of attack near stall should be confined to speeds below _______? (What V speed) |
Va |
|
Max speed for Flaps 1? |
230 kt |
|
Max speed for Flaps 1 + F? |
215 kt |
|
Max speed for Flaps 2? |
200 kt |
|
Max speed for Flaps 3? |
185 kt |
|
Max speed for Flaps FULL? |
177 kt |
|
VLE? (kt and mach) |
280 kt / M .67 |
|
VLO extention? (kt) |
250 kt |
|
VLO retraction |
220 kt |
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Maximum altitude at which the landing gear may be extended? |
25,000 ft |
|
Maximum tire speed? |
195 kt |
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Maximum windshield wiper use? |
230 kt |
|
Maximum cockpit window open speed? |
200 kt |
|
Maximum taxi speed? |
When the taxi weight is higher than 76,000 kg, do not exceed taxi speed of 20 kt during a turn. |
|
Maximum differential pressure to open ram air inlet? |
1 PSI |
|
Max airflow supplied by the ground cart? (kg/s) |
Airflow supplied by the ground cart shall not exceed 1.2 kg/s |
|
What happens if you accidently use conditioned air from the packs and a LP ground unit simultaneously? |
Chattering of the non return valves |
|
Why isn't it ok to use a HP ground unit when the APU is supplying bleed air? |
It will cause damages in the bleed system. |
|
(Cabin Pressure) Maximum positive differential pressure? |
8.6 PSI |
|
(Cabin Pressure) Maximum negative differential pressure? |
-1 PSI |
|
Minimum height for use of autopilot on takeoff with SRS mode? |
100 ft AGL |
|
FMGS interal logic prevents autopilot from engaging after takeoff within ___ seconds. |
5 seconds |
|
Minimum height for use of autopilot in straight-in non precision approach? |
Applicable minimum |
|
Minimum height for use of autopilot in circling approach |
Applicable circling minimums - 100 ft. |
|
Minimum height for use of autopilot in ILS approach when CAT2 or CAT3 is NOT displayed on the FMA |
160 ft AGL |
|
Minimum height for use of autopilot in a PAR approach |
250 ft AGL |
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Minimum height for engagement of AP or FD in event of a go around |
100 ft AGL |
|
Minimum height for use of autopilot in general flight phases |
500 ft AGL |
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Minimum DH for ILS CAT II |
100 ft AGL |
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If the flight crew performs an automatic CAT II approach without autoland, the AP must be disengaged no later than ____ ft AGL. |
80 ft AGL |
|
Minimum DH for ILS CAT III Fail Passive? |
50 ft |
|
A/THR must be used in selected or managed speed in ILS CAT __________. |
ILS CAT III Fail Passive and ILS CAT II Fail Operational |
|
Alert height for ILS CAT III Fail Operational |
100 ft |
|
Minimum decision height for CAT III (Dual) with a DH |
20 ft |
|
Minimum RVR for CAT III (Dual) WITHOUT a DH |
75 m |
|
CAT II and CAT III fail passive autoland are only approved if config _______ is used and engine-out procedures are completed before reaching ______ ft in approach. |
CAT II and CAT III fail passive autoland are only approved if config FULL is used and engine out procedures are completed before reaching 1,000 ft in approach. |
|
Maximum ATC reported HWD, TWD, and XWD for CAT II and CAT III automatic approach landing and roll out. |
HWD - 30 kt TWD - 10 kt XWD - 20 kt (As reported by ATC)
If tower reports a surface wind beyond these limits, only CAT I automatic apporach without autoland can be performed |
|
CAT II and CAT III autoland are approved in two configurations. CONF ___ and CONF ___. |
CONF 3 and CONF FULL |
|
Maximum continuous load per generator |
100 % (90 KVA) |
|
Maximum continuous load per TR |
200 A |
|
Max operating altitude with slats and/or flaps extended is ________. |
20,000 ft |
|
Normal hydraulic operating pressure is ______PSI ± ____ |
3,000 PSI ± 200 |
|
Maximum brake temperature for takeoff? |
300 °C |
|
If the tire damage is suspected after landing or rejected takeoff, what is required before taxiing? |
Inspection of tires is required |
|
If one tire is deflated on one or more gears, what is the limitation to continue taxiing? |
Maximum of three deflated tires.
Speed in turns are limited to 7 kts. |
|
If two tires are deflated on the same main gear (the other main gear tires not being deflated), speed should be limited to ____ kt and nose wheel steering angle limited to _____ °. |
3 kts and nose wheel steering angle limited to 30° |
|
Using the handwheels, the nosewheel steering angle is limited to ____°. |
75° |
|
The nosewheel steering angle for towing and pushback is ____ °. |
95° |
|
When both PFDs are lost, which ISIS function must not be used? |
ISIS bugs function |
|
What is required to operate the APU if the LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM advisory is displayed? |
The APU may be started and operated, however maintenance action is required within next 10 h of APU operation. |
|
What are the APU starter limits? |
After 3 starter motor duty cycles, wait 60 minutes before attempting 3 more cycles. |
|
What is the APU Maximum N (ECAM display)? |
107 % |
|
Maximum APU EGT? |
675 °C |
|
Maximum EGT to start APU below 35,000 ft? |
1,090 °C |
|
Maximum EGT to start APU above 35,000 ft? |
1,120 °C |
|
Maximum TOGA time limit and EGT limit in normal situations? |
5 minute maximum and 950 °C |
|
Maximum TOGA time limit and EGT limit in case of engine failure? |
10 minute maximum and 950 °C |
|
Maximum EGT for MCT? |
915°C |
|
Maximum EGT for engine starting? |
725 °C |
|
Maximum continuous oil temperature? |
140 °C |
|
Maximum transient oil temperature? |
155 °C for 15 mins |
|
Minimum starting oil temperature? |
-40 °C |
|
Minimum oil temperature fore take off? |
-10 °C |
|
N1 max? |
104 % |
|
N2 max? |
105 % |
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Regular engine starting limits? |
Maximum 2 mins in a cycle. Maximum 4 cycles every 15 mins. Minimum of 20 second rest between cycles. |
|
Is it permitted to use reverse to back up the aircraft? |
No |
|
Maximum reverse should not be used below what speed? |
70 kt |
|
Idle reverse use is permitted until what speed? |
Until the aircraft stops. 0 kt |
|
For reduced thrust takeoffs, thrust reduction must not exceed _____ % of the full rated takeoff thrust. |
25 % |
|
T MAX FLEX is ISA + ____ °C |
ISA + 53 °C |
|
The assumed temperature for a flex takeoff cannot be less than _________. |
The current OAT |
|
Is takeoff at reduced thrust permitted on contaminated runways? |
No |
|
What is the length of the A320 (meters)?
|
37.57m
|
|
What is the length of the A321 (meters)?
|
44.5m
|
|
What is the height of the A320? (meters and feet)
|
12.14m or 39'10"
|
|
What is the distance between the two sets of main landing gears? (meters)
|
7.59m
|
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What is the height of the engine above the ground? (meters and feet)
|
0.56m and 1'9"
|
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What is the wingspan of the A320? (meters and feet)
|
34.1m or 111'10"
|
|
What is the minimum pavement width required for a 180° turn? (meters)
|
22.9m
|
|
What is far back from the nosewheel are the main landing gears? (meters)
|
12.64m
|
|
What is the minimum arc of the nosewheel? (meters)
|
13.81m
|
|
What is the minimum arc of the aircraft nose? (meters)
|
18.3m
|
|
What is the minimum arc of the wingtip? (meters)
|
21.91m
|
|
Max Diving Speed? |
380 kt (0.89M) |
|
Max speed in Alternate Law? |
320 kt (0.77M) |
|
Max speed in Direct Law? |
320 kt (0.77M) |
|
Maximum N speed of the APU? |
106% (107% on the APU ECAM page) |
|
What is the maximum altitude to operate the APU? |
FL410 |
|
G forces for descent mode / OP descent are limited to how many Gs? |
0.1 G |
|
G forces for expedite mode are limited to how many Gs? |
0.15 G |