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195 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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1. (001) Microcomputers are
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usually designed for one particular type of work
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2. (001) Standard systems are those systems that are standardized across more than one
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command
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3. (001) Which system supports the admissions and dispositions functions in the MTF?
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CHCS
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4. (001) Which function is supported by DEERS?
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Medical/dental records tracking betweens MTFs
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7. (002) Hard disk devices are
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standard in most microcomputers
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8. (002) A program or set of programs that manages and directs a computer system is called
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an operating system
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11. (003) A table for holding information similar to an accounting ledger is an electronic
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spreadsheet
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12. (003) A program that stores information in an organized way is called a
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database
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13. (003) All records in a database contain the same
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fields
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14. (003) Pie charts can only chart
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one set of values
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15. (004) What COMPUSEC objective is reached when there is no unexpected downtime due to a virus or sabotage?
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Availability
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16. (004) What COMPUSEC objective is attained when the computer system performs its intended function, free from deliberate or unintentional unauthorized handling of the system?
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Integrity
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17. (004) What COMPUSEC objective is achieved when access to sensitive information is allowed only to those with the proper clearance, authorization, and need-to-know?
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Confidentiality
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18. (004) Who is responsible for ensuring computer users are trained in COMPUSEC awareness and local operating instructions?
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Information systems security officer
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19. (004) When are users provided COMPUSEC training?
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Prior to being granted system access and annually thereafter
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20. (004) Who represents the CSSO at locations the CSSO cannot effectively monitor users or system activities?
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Workgroup manager
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21. (005) Information needing protection from public interest is marked
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For Official Use Only
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22. (005) The purpose of the Privacy Act of 1974
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safeguard personal information from unauthorized use
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23. (005) An individual is allowed access to classified when
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the individual is trustworthy and access is neccessary for performance of duty
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30. (008) The best way to manage correspondance involves sorting, routing, and
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controlling suspenses
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31. (009) An emergency involving military forces caused by natural disasters, terrorists, subversives, or by required military operations is called
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contingency
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32. (009) What is the relocation of forces to a desired area of operation called?
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Employment
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34. (010) What duty is the responsibility of the medical readiness officer/NCO?
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Ensure disaster team training programs are developed and conducted
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35. (011) According to the DOD a unit type code is developed and assigned by whom?
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Joint Chiefs of Staff
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36. (011) What is a standard manpower listing published to identify the manpower tasked to deploy in support of specific UTCs?
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Manpower Force Element Listing
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37. (011) Substitutions shall not exceed what percent of any Air Force AFSC requirement in a single UTC or set of UTCs that collectively make up an operational platform?
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40%
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38. (012) Who has the responsibility of storing and inspecting chemical antidotes?
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Medical Group Commander
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39. (012) Who keeps the MDG commander and squadron commanders informed of the deployment status of unit personnel and equipment subject to deployments?
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UDM
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40. (012) When following the procedures to process individuals for deployment, who will review the deployment records for the members of each UTC being tasked?
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Medical readiness staff
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41. (013) What program requires cross-functional interaction that integrates procedures and standards for planning; logistical requirements; emergency response actions; exercises and evaluations?
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FSTR
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42. (014) Which section of the MCRP provides definitive information as to how, where, when and who performs a particular function?
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Annexes
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43. (014) What triage category and color would be used for a patient in a mild anxiety state?
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Minimal-Green
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44. (014) What triage category and color would be used for a patient with injuries requiring inordinate medical treatment to the detriment or neglect of other patients?
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Expectant-Blue
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45. (014) Who is responsible for the distribution and maintenance of the MCRP?
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Medical readiness officer/NCO
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46. (014) Disaster team checklists should be updated as necessary and reviewed at least
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once a year
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47. (015) What telephone communications system is designed to save lives through the rapid relay of emergency information to specific base agencies?
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Primary crash alarm circuit
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52. (015) An example of a rough grid coordinate is
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2/E
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53. (015) On a grid coordinate of 2.5/E.4, the 2 represents the
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vertical grid line
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54. (016) The two types of official Air Force E-mail are
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organizational and individual
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55. (016) Which type of E-mail must contain a complete signature element clearly indicating who sent the communication?
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Organizational
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56. (017) The success of the global message communications depends on a secure
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writer-to-reader messaging system
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57. (017) What bar provides access to various Microsoft Outlook DMS functions while the user is composing or drafting a message?
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Menu bar
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59. (018) Which areas are sections of the MEDRED-C?
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Status Change, and Employment Status
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60. (018) Unclassified MEDRED-Cs are marked
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For Official Use Only
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62. (018) In what area of the SITREP would you also include deviations and variations from previously reported intentions or plans?
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Operations
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63. (018) The portion of the SITREP that specifically addresses signficant deficiencies that are above the commander's capability to overcome in a timely manner is
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Logistics
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64. (018) What type of information is included in the Personnel area of the SITREP?
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Factors affecting the readiness of forces or units
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65. (018) What is an internal management tool used by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, Unified Commands, and Combat Support Agencies?
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SORTS
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74. (023) "on the outside"
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ecto
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80. (027) "away from the midline"
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lateral
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86. (030) Subcutaneous tissues form
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the innermost layer of skin
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89. (033) Digestion begins in the
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mouth
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92. (034) Air passes through the nose, then, in sequence, it passes through the
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pharynx, larynx, and enters the trachea
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93. (035) Arteries carry blood
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away from the heart
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95. (036) All of the lymph flows into either the thoracic duct or the
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right lymphatic duct
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98. (039) Which glands control body functions by producing hormones?
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Endocrine
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1. (201) Medical personnel must comply with
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Comprehensive Alcohol Abuse Amendments
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2. (201) Which laws take precedence over other directives pertaining to access and release of medical information?
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Drug and alcohol
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3. (202) Which of the following is a valid consent authorizing the release of a dependent husband's medical record information to an insurance company?
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Written consent from the husband
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5. (202) Who reviews and approves requests for release of medical information?
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MDG Commander
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6. (202) What action do you take when an incorrect payment is received from an insurance company for copies of medical records?
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Send the information requested along with a letter to the company specifying the amount owed to the Government
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8. (203) An indvidual's medical record information is not released to medical research or scientific organizations when
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reproducing the information would be a burden or is contrary to existing laws
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10. (204) What information is needed to log on to the CHCS?
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Username, access/verify codes
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12. (204) What two purposes does the user record serve?
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Lets the system know who you are and how you can use the system
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13. (204) What is not an input used for accessing help in CHCS?
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??OLUM
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20. (207) Which CHCS component is composed of timeslots that have been assigned appropriate appointment types, durations and a maximum number of patient slots?
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Schedule
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23. (208) What CHCS option makes it simple for the user to add, delete, and cancel schedule timeslots for specific days within any provider's schedule?
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Maintain/Cancel Schedule option
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26. (209) Where is the Medical Records Tracking label placed on the AF Form 2100 or 2100A?
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Front cover, in the patient id block
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29. (209) What procedure would be used to identify the outpatient record of an individual assigned to the PRP?
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Block the last character of the SSN along the right hand side of the record with red tape or marker
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30. (210) Copies of inpatient care documents are filed in what section of the AF 2100A?
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Section 1
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31. (210) An AF Form 422, Physical Profile, should be filed in what section of the AF From 2100A?
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Section 3
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36. (211) Which statement best describes the outpatient records filing systems?
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Terminal digit, color-coded and blocked filing system
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39. (212) When allowing a patient to hand-carry his or her outpatient record to another MTF, what form is used as a receipt?
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AF Form 1942, Clinical Index
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40. (212) AF Form 1942, Clinical Index is maintained for
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6 months in alpha file
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41. (213) Active duty records are inventoried how often
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at least once a year
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42. (213) When must the inventory of records of active duty personnel assigned to the base be completed?
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31 March of each year
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43. (214) What type of team are active duty members and their beneficiaries assigned to after the mass medical in-processing briefing?
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Primary Care Optimization team
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47. (216) The AF Form 788, Inpatient Record, is filed using which filing system?
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Terminal digit (by sponsor's SSN)
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48. (216) Who prepares AF Form 788 folders for filing inpatient documentation?
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Inpatient records
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49. (217) Final progress notes on SF 509 may be substituted for narrative summaries for all of the following patients except
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patients treated at tactival MTFs
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50. (217) When documenting care in inpatient records, symbols and abbreviations...
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cannot be used when recording the final diagnoses on the AF Form 560
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53. (218) Authority to set up or close down an inpatient record library is granted by the
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AFMSA
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54. (218) An inpatient record of an Air Force SSgt admitted on 28 Dec 98 and dispositioned on 4 Jan 99 (no other inpatient episodes) at a facility with an inpatient records library is
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eligible for retirement 31 Dec 2004
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58. (220) A Secretary of the Air Force designee letter must contain the effective date, period covered and
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determination as to whether the Air Force is providing aeromedical evacuation
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59. (220) When an abused family member applies for Secretary of the Air Force designee status after the sponsor was discharged from the service, the approval authority is the
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MDG Commander
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61. (221) For sponsors on unaccompanied assignments, a family member clearance screening is accomplished by the
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MTF in closest proximity to the family
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66. (223) When a situation cannot be resolved in the near term, a commander may remove an individual from PRP duties by
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permanent decertification
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67. (224) Which agency uses LOD determinations to determine eligibility for physical disability retirement?
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Air Force
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68. (224) Which agency uses LOD determinations to determine eligibilty for disability compensation and hospital benefits?
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VA
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70. (224) Which agency uses LOD determinations to evalutate the eligibility of an AFROTC cadet for compensation for injuries sustained while training?
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Department of Labor
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71. (225) The purpose of what type of LOD and misconduct investigation is to protect the interests of the member being investigated and to ensure Government benefits are awarded justly and according to law?
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Formal
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72. (225) The interim LOD for reserve members is valid
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for no more than 90 days
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73. (225) The responsibilty for identifying cases in which LOD and misconduct determinations are required is the responsibility of the
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MTF
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75. (225) Who may direct a reinvestigation of the final findings of a LOD and Misconduct Investigation when new or significant evidence shows the chance of an error?
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The appointing or higher authority
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76. (226) Who has the authority to retire or seperate members who can no longer perform the duties of their grade because of medical impairment?
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Secretary of the USAF
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80. (228) The PEBLO maintains coordination between the patient, MTF, PEB, and the
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MPF
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83. (230) Who will be reimbursed from MTF operating funds on a monthly basis?
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Managed care support contractor
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84. (231) What process is used to manage and track patient referrals, both internal and external to the MTF?
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Referral management
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85. (231) What should be reviewed every 30 days to ensure MTF capabilities are fully and accurately defined?
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SAL
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86. (232) For which patient would an AF commander at the nearest MTF accept admin responsibility?
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Active duty SSgt admitted to a nearby civilian hospital while on leave status
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87. (232) Register numbers are assigned in numerical sequence
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until the facility is closed down
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88. (232) When is the only occasion a register number may be omitted?
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Never
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90. (223) What is entered in block 8 (Type Case) of AF Form 560 for a patient who is pregnant?
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DIS
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92. (234) A CHCS admission notification letter is generated each time
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an AD patient is admitted to the MTF
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95. (235) Which category of patients requires cards to be placed in the active section of the master index of patients, and how are they filed?
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All patients currently under treatment, alphabetically
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96. (236) When must notification to HQ AF/SGXO be accomplished for AD flag officers admitted to a MFT?
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By 0600 hours EST following admission
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97. (237) The authority and responsibilty for accepting valuables for storage and safekeeping rests with the
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MDG Commander
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99. (237) Which of the following individuals would not be eligible to perform an inventory of patient valuables?
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SrA Hill
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101. (239) A patient is given an incapacitating illness or injury casualty status when the illness or injury
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involves serious disfigurement
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103. (240) Where are the personal effects of a deceased civilian who died in a MTF sent?
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Executor
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104. (241) The activities of the UIRT generally fall under the direct supervision of
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nursing services
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106. (241) Who is responsible for all health record entries regarding the diagnosis or treatment of patients?
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Inpatient records technician
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107. (241) Who cares for and protects the inpatient record while it is maintained on the inpatient unit?
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The UIRT
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108. (242) To monitor patient absences, use
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a patient sign-out register
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109. (242) If convalescent leave is directed, the inpatient record is
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forwarded to the disposition office and filed in the suspense file
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111. (243) What will dictate the clearance process for patients being discharged from you MTF?
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Local policy
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113. (245) What usually accommodates from 50 to 250 patients and receives, shelters, processes and provides care to patients who enter in or leave the AE system?
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ASF
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114. (245) What is generally strategically positioned at or near a flightline, and used to provide quick access to enplaning/deplaning patients involved with AE?
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MASF
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115. (245) What is the largest turbo prop driven cargo aircraft in the AF inventory?
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C-130 Hercules
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116. (245) What aircraft is used as the back up for the C-9 Nightingale during peace time AE?
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C-130 Hercules
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117. (245) What primary aircraft can be used to support both intratheater and intertheater AE missions?
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C-9A Nightingale
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118. (245) What aircraft assists in AE process by providing forward AE?
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UH 60 Q Medevac Black Hawk
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119. (245) What automated information system is currently responsible for combining transporation, logistics and clinical decision support elements into a seamless patient movement information management system?
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TRANSCOM Regulating and Command & Control Evacuaation System (TRACE2ES)
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122. (246) Patients who require emergency aeromedical movement to save life, limb, or to prevent serious complications are categorized as
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urgent
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123. (247) Which aeromedical evacuation squadron does not have geographical responsibilities?
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43 AES
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124. (247) What does the ICAO code written to the left of the red cross on the DD Form 600, Patient's Baggage Tag represent?
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The facility where an AE patient will remain overnight awaiting AE movement to the final destination
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2. (401) What function establishes policy for population-based health care activities within the AFMS and is the spokesperson for medical service population health issues?
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USAF/SG
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3. (401) What function develops programs that support implementation of AFMS policy for population health?
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AFMSA
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4. (401) What function serves as the AFMS's focal point for population health policy implementation?
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PHSD
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5. (401) The function that provides centralized population health program support to medical treatment facility staff, intermediate commands, lead agents, and Air Staff is
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PHSD
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6. (401) What organization provides input on policy revision and new policy development that affect population health?
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Air Force major commands
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7. (401) MDGs ensure
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the organization employs the concepts and principles of population health
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8. (401) Who directs resources, policies, and infrastructure to support the MTF Population Health Group's recommendations?
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MTF executive committee
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9. (401) a primare care element is composed of how many primary care managers and their support staffs?
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3 to 5
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10. (401) Who determines whether injuries or illnesses in AD personnel and AF civilian employees are related to occupation?
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individual PCMs
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14. (401) Who identifies gaps between forecasted needs and facility capability?
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Healthcare integrator
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16. (401) Who handles the active disease and condition management programs, and is a member of the population health working group?
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Ancillary Services
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17. (402) What is the appropiate access-to-care standard for urgent care appointments?
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24 hours
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18. (402) One of the first things you do as part of the appointment booking process is enter
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Appointment booking
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19. (402) The manage access to care tools are available in the CHCS and are also located on the web at the
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TRICARE Operations Center
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24. (402) Which CHCS schedule option allows you to cancel all or part of an existing schedule at the request of the provider or another agency at the MTF?
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Cancellation by Facility
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25. (402) Which CHCS schedule option does not permit you to delete slots with booked appointments?
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Freeze/Release
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27. (403) For medical care and the parental consent, you must be under what age to be considered a child?
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10
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28. (403) The favorable dependency determination must specifically state the individual is eligible for medical care and this eligibility determination is made by the
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MPF
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31. (403) Pregnant females discharged under other than honorable conditions, who must be authorized by a general court-martial authority to apply to the MTF commander for obstetrical care, fall within what program?
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Secretary of the AF Designee
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32. (403) When a divorced spouse is no longer eligible for medical care, that spouse loses eligibility at
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0001 hours on the day after the divorce becomes final
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35. (404) AD family member's not enrolled in TRICARE Prime belong in priority group
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4
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36. (404) When applying the general rules, what priority group includes special provisions applicable to military members who are not on AD, but are entitled to care in the MTF?
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1
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39. (405) Each clinic prepares what type of schedule after every duty day is accounted for by documenting items such as TDYs, meetings, and leave?
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Clinic master
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41. (405) What reports are printed when you access the appropriate option, enter the necessary report, and print parameters?
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On-demand
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42. (406) For preventive health assessment reasons, how often are members records reviewed to ensure all requirements and recommendations have been addressed?
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Annually
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43. (406) The function that ensures the preventive individual medical readiness program is evaluated during ORIs, SAVS, HSIs, and JCAHOs is
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major command SG
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47. (408) MTFs use what two data systems to identify and describe their enrolled population by age, gender, and beneficiary category, and to assess their healthcare needs?
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DOD and AFMS
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48. (408) What non-electronic, folder-style form documenting immunizations is used by all AD, reserve, and guard personnel?
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DD Form 2766, Adult Preventive and Chronic Care Flowsheet
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49. (409) What process for inpatients begins before or on admission and continues after appropriate discharge to include follow-up and evaluation of services provided?
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MTF Discharge and Disposition Planning Process
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52. (410) What publication does every inpatient records teach use to code diagnoses and procedures annotated on a patient's AF Form 560?
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International Classification of Diseases, 9th Edition, Clinical Modification
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57. (410) In the dieseases tabular list, a part of section two provides a supplemental series of codes, which are called
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V-codes
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59. (410) What is located in the disease tabular list and is included as a reference to provide further information about the patient's circumstances, maintain a tumor registry, and aid in classifying new drugs?
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Appendices
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60. (410) Operations are named for a person or multiple persons, and are listed both as main terms in there appropriate alphabetical sequence and also under the main term,
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Operation
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62. (410) Of the two major abbreviations within the International Classification of Diseases, 9th Edition, Clinical Modification, which acronym is the equivalent of "unspecified"?
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Not otherwise specified (NOS)
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63. (410) What marks supplementary words, called nonessential modifiers that may be present in the narrative of a diseases or procedure without affecting the code to which it is assigned?
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Parentheses
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64. (411) How many specific goals accompanied the implementation and utilization of the ambulatory data module?
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5
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65. (411) Information received from the ambulatory data module enchances what system by providing more information on patients being treated?
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Third Party Collections
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66. (412) What is the key to ensure personnel who work with the ambulatory data module accurately reflect the work output of the providers assigned to a particular primary care optimization team?
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Training
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67. (412) What is the biometrics data record for all patient ambulatory treatments, including ambulatory procedure visit and partial hospitalizations?
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Standard Ambulatory Data Record (SADR)
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69. (412) One method commanders use in the formal process of monitoring, measuring, assessing, and improving facility biometrics data quality is the implementation of a
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data quality management program
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70. (412) The four key quality characteristics (KQC) for biometric data include
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timeliness, completeness, accuracy, and comparability
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72. (412) Under the non-direct health program (Non-DHP) owned and operated facilities, what type of funds can be described as money budgeted for base functions other medical?
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Line
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73. (413) Within how many hours of each patient visit should health services managers accomplish data entry of superbills into the ambulatory data module?
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72
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74. (413) Who should you contact for assistance if the MTF coding auditor does not meet the minimum qualifiactions?
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Major Command
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75. (413) Certified professional coding auditors report compliance outcome to the MTF executive committee and AFMSA/GOZ no later than what day of the following month?
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10th
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3. (602) Which Act enabled managed care plans to increase in numbers and expand enrollments through healthcare programs financed by grants, contracts, and loans?
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Health Maintenance Organization of 1973
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7. (603) What was formerly known as the Public Health Services Hospitals, and now operates much like TRICARE Prime?
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Uniformed Services Family Plan
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10. (604) How many regions are there within TRICARE?
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15
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13. (604) The benefits of TRICARE cannot be fully realized without timely information regarding access, utilization and
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costs
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16. (605) Currently TRICARE Standard pays what percentage of the approved or allowable cost for outpatient care, for active duty families, after the annual deductible is paid?
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80
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19. (606) Besides LA responsibilities, each LA is also a
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commander of an MTF within their respective region
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21. (606) The LA is responsible for coordinating contractor marketing activities with the
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TMO
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22. (607) One of the most important functions of the MCS Contractor is the development of civilian provider networks in support of TRICARE
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Prime and Extra benefits
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24. (607) Which duty is performed by the ACO?
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Assists with resolving contractual issues
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27. (608) Who is each lead agency and MTF required to have available to assist beneficiaries in determining the validity of collection agent claims received for debts incurred as a result of medical/dental care under the TRICARE Program?
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DCAO
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28. (608) A nonenrolled beneficiary is required to obtain authorization for care from the Health Care Finder when
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a NAS is required
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29. (608) A NAS is issued when the MTF cannot provide the
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inpatient medical care needed
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30. (608) NASs are processed through the
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DEERS
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33. (608) There is no copayment or deductible for beneficiaries referred for civilian medical care while
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in an inpatient status in the MTF
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34. (608) Who authorizes non MTF Referred Supplemental Care for the uniformed services?
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Service point of contact
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36. (609) The TMA is a field activity of the
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Undersecretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness
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37. (609) Who, along with the LAs, are responsible for conducting provider training on TRICARE and managed care in accordance with contract provisions?
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MCS Contractors
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39. (610) TRICARE presentations are most effective when done jointly by a knowledgeable uniformed representative and a
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MCSC marketing representative office
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43. (611) Who sponsors the Health Enrollment/Evaluation assessment Review and the Customer Satisfaction Survey?
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ASD-HA
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47. (612) Whose policy requires you to consider resource sharing as the first alternatives in intiatives to recapture TRICARE workload for which the government and the contractor are jointly at risk?
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TRICARE
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48. (612) Who determines whether or not resource sharing agreements are in the best interest of the government and are in support of the regional health care plan?
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LA
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51. (613) Who performs periodic reviews of MTF/VA facility resource sharing agreements to ensure compatibility with agreements including VA facilities as network providers?
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LA
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52. (613) Who is responsible for the supervision of the external resource sharing health care personnel?
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MTF Commander
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53. (614) As a minimum, the medical portion of in- and out-processing should include information on how to access health care at the MTF and in the community, and how to
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resolve problems asscessing health care
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