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146 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Half-life of mast cell tryptase?
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 4 hours
D. 6 hours
E. 8 hours

NICE Guidelines Anaphylaxis
“Very low-quality evidence from six observational studies including 147 patients showed that the half-life of tryptase ranged from 30 minutes to 300 minutes (median 90 minutes)”

Mayo Medical Laboratories
After anaphylaxis, mast cell granules release tryptase; measurable amounts are found in blood, generally within 30 to 60 minutes. The levels decline under first-order kinetics with half-life of approximately 2 hours.
Best single predictor of difficult intubation in obese patient?
A. Mallampati score
B. Interincisor distance
C. Severe OSA
D. Years on CPAP

Morbid Obesity and Tracheal Intubation. A & A March 2002 vol. 94
“In 100 morbidly obese patients, neither obesity nor body mass index predicted problems with tracheal intubation. However, a high Mallampati score (≥3) and large neck circumference may increase the potential for difficult laryngoscopy and intubation”

There are other references for severe OSA being risk factor
Endocarditis prophylaxis is appropriate in?

A. Unrepaired congenital heart disease (CHD)
B. Repaired CHD
C. Rheumatic heard disease in causcasians
D. None of above
E. A. B and C
Emergency caesarean section for foetal distress (and foetal acidosis on scalp probe?). what is best option to raise gastric pH preop:
A)Oral Na Citrate
B)Ranitidine IV
C)Ranitidine oral
D)Omeprazole IV
E)Omeprazole oral
F)Metoclopramide 20 IV
A - best for pre-op pH rise

Ranitidine will raise pH and empty stomach but takes longer to work
Most common cause of mortality post transfusion?
B. Contamination/infection
C. Mismatched blood
E. Anaphylaxis
Most common cause of awareness?
A. Failure to check apparatus
B. Genetic resistance to volatiles
C. Abnormal EEG

Human error on many other versions of this question
Apnoeic oxygenation in obese patient can be increased by
A. Sniffing position
B. Prone
C. Supine
D. Lateral
E. Head up
Best renal protection for endoluminal AAA repair?
A. NaCl

Which of the following is most effective way to reduce renal failure in AAA surgery
A. Fluid bolus prior to aortic clamping B. Fluid bolus after aortic clamp release C. Frusemide D. Minimize cross-clamp time E. Mannitol
A - NaCl

D - Cross clamp time
Indicator in sodalime?
A. Ethyl violet
B. Potassium permangenate
C. Blue velvet
D. Litmus
E. ?
64. The desflurane vaporizer is heated because of its
A. High SVP
B. High boiling point
C. Low SVP
D. High MAC
E. Low MAC
A - High SVP
88.5 kPa at 20C
Heated to 39C, SVP of 1550 mmHg
What is NOT a disadvantage of drawover vaporizer?
A. Basic temperature compensation
B. Basic flow compensation
C. Not able to use sevoflurane
C - Sevo can be used in draw over vaporisers
FOB - can see a trifurcation. Where are you?
White cylinder with grey shoulder?
A. CO2
B. Air
C. O2
D. N2O
E. N2

Specific gases are assigned the following colours:
• oxygen (white), nitrous (blue)
• nitrogen (black)
• acetylene (maroon), medical ethylene (violet), medical cyclopropane (orange)
• carbon dioxide (grey), helium (brown) and argon (dark green)
• medical breathing gas mixtures containing oxygen and an inert gas must be marked with alternating white and the second gas's colour on the shoulder e.g. black + white for air, brown + white for Heliox, etc.

“CO2 cylinders have a grey shoulder”
Photograph of an Arndt endobronchial blocker. Orifice labelled '2'. What goes in '2'?
A. Bronchial blocker
B. Bronchoscope
C. Bougie
D. Bung
E. Booger
Photograph of an Arndt endobronchial blocker. Orifice labelled '2'. What goes in '2'?
A. Bronchial blocker
B. Bronchoscope
C. Bougie
D. Bung
E. Booger
Intubating over a bougie. Rotate ETT?
A. 90 degrees anticlockwise
B. 90 degrees clockwise
C. 270 degrees anticlockwise
D. 45 degrees either direction
Air bubble in an arterial or central venous line leads to decreased:
A. Damping coefficient
B. Resonant frequency
C. Measurement drift
D. fundamental harmonic frequency
increase system damping
lowers natural frequency
All of the following may be associated with ulcerative colitis EXCEPT
A. cirrhosis
B. iritis
C. psoriasis
D. arthritis
E. sclerosing cholangitis
C - psoriasis
At what valve area do you begin to get symptoms, at rest, with mitral stenosis?
A. 4.5 cm2
B. 3.5 cm2
C. 2.5 cm2
D. 1.5 cm2
E. 1.0 cm2
E - 1cm
75 year old with non-valvular AF usually on warfarin has their warfarin stopped for one week. What is their daily risk of stroke?
A: 1%
B: 0.1%
C: 0.01%
D: 4%
E: 10%
Abnormal Q waves are NOT a feature of the ECG in
A. an old myocardial infarction
B. left bundle branch block
C. recent transmural myocardial infarction
D. digitalis toxicity
E. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
D - Digitalis toxicity
cTnI remains elevated for up to?
A. 1-3 days
B. 2-7 days
C. 5-14 days
D. >2 weeks
C 5-14 days
With regard to Digoxin toxicity which of the following is NOT a feature?
A. Atrial flutter
B. visual changes
C. Unstable heart rate
D. Altered conscious state
E. Anorexia
Clinical Features
• GIT: Nausea, vomiting, anorexia, diarrhoea
• Visual: Blurred vision, yellow/green discolouration, haloes
• CVS: Palpitations, syncope, dyspnoea
• CNS: Confusion, dizziness, delirium, fatigue

Electrocardiographic Features
• Digoxin can cause a multitude of dysrhythmias, due to increased automaticity (increased intracellular calcium) and decreased AV conduction (increased vagal effects at the AV node)
• The classic dysrhythmia associated with digoxin toxicity is the combination of a supraventricular tachycardia (due to increased automaticity) with a slow ventricular response (due to decreased AV conduction), e.g. ’atrial tachycardia with block’.

Other arrhythmias associated with digoxin toxicity are:
• Frequent PVCs (the most common abnormality), including ventricular bigeminy and trigeminy
• Sinus bradycardia or slow AF
• Any type of AV block (1st degree, 2nd degree & 3rd degree)
• Regularised AF = AF with complete heart block and a junctional or ventricular escape rhythm
• Ventricular tachycardia, including polymorphic and bidirectional VT
Inverted PW's in lead II may be caused by?
A. Junctional rhythm
B. inferior infarct
C. Previous CABG
A- junctional
A male patient has a haemoglobin of 8g/dL and reticulocyte count 10%. The most likely diagnosis is

A. Untreated pernicious anaemia
B. Aplastic anaemia
C. Acute leukaemia
D. Anaemia of chronic disease
E. Hereditary spherocytosis
E. Hereditary spherocytosis
Pulsus paradoxus in constrictive pericarditis:

A. Every second beat
B. In expiration when increase is normal
C. In expiration more than normal subjects
D. In inspiration when increase is normal
E. In inspiration more than normal subjects
E. In inspiration more than normal subjects
Which type of aortic dissection is typically managed non-operatively?
A. Debakey Type I
B. Debakey Type II
C. Stanford A
D. Stanford B
E. Stanford C

eMedicine - Emergent Management of Acute Aortic Dissection
Stanford classification
“The Stanford classification divides dissections into 2 types, type A and type B. Type A involves the ascending aorta (DeBakey types I and II); type B does not (DeBakey type III).

This system helps to delineate treatment. Usually, type A dissections require surgery, while type B dissections may be managed medically under most conditions.”
A 29 year old female undergoes craniotomy for posterior fossa tumour. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to the sitting position

A. Patent ventriculo-atrial shunt
B. Previous back surgery
C. Pacemaker
D. Small patent foramen ovale
E. Oesophageal stricture contraindicated for transoesophageal echocardiogram
A - VA shunt

• Patent ventriculo-atrial shunt
• Severe cardiovascular disease
• Large patent foramen ovale or other pulmonary-systemic shunt
• Cerebral ischaemia when upright and awake
• Anaesthesia or surgical team not familiar with the position
Acute visual loss after non-ocular surgery is most commonly caused by
A. ischaemic optic neuropathy
B. prolonged direct compression of the globe
C. cortical blindness
D. retinal artery occlusion
E. electrolyte imbalance
When do most patients with SAH rebleed?
A. 0-24 hours

Rebleeding after aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage. Neurocrit Care. 2011 Sep;15(2):241-6
“Rebleeding after initial aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) can have substantial impact on overall patient outcome. While older studies have suggested rebleeding occurs in about 4% of patients during the first day after initial aneurysmal bleed”
A patient is having an electrophysiological study and ablation for atrial fibrillation. Suddenly the blood pressure drops to 76/38 mmHg, with the heart rate at 110 in sinus rhythm. What is the best investigation to confirm the cause of hypotension?

A. Troponin
B. ST-segment elevation
C. Transoesophageal echocardiography
D. Coronary Angiogram
E. Electrocardiogram
C. Transoesophageal echocardiography
Contraindication to IABP?
A. Aortic regurgitation
B. Mitral prolapse
C. Haemorrhagic stroke
D. Infection
Also: Peripheral vascular disease, aortic stent, aneurysm
During prolonged trendelenburg positioning there is:
A. No change in ICP
B. No change in IOP
C. Increased pulmonary compliance
D. Increased myocardial work
E. No increased pulmonary venous pressures
D - increased work
During scoliosis surgery with monitoring of somatosensory evoked potentials, which tract are they mainly monitoring?
A: Dorsal column
B: Spinothalamic tract
C: Lateral Corticospinal tract
D: Cerebrospinal tract
E: Anterior horn cells
A - dorsal column
Estimate GCS post head-trauma. E - Response to pain V - Mumbling incoherently M - Withdraws to pain (attempted IV cannulation)
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
GCS 8 E2 V2 M4

Best Eye Response. (4)
1. No eye opening.
2. Eye opening to pain.
3. Eye opening to verbal command.
4. Eyes open spontaneously.

Best Verbal Response. (5)
1. No verbal response
2. Incomprehensible sounds.
3. Inappropriate words.
4. Confused
5. Orientated

Best Motor Response. (6)
1. No motor response.
2. Extension to pain.
3. Flexion to pain.
4. Withdrawal from pain.
5. Localising pain.
6. Obeys Commands.
Incidence of headache in first week post-partum?
A. 10%
B. 30%
C. 40%
D. 60%
C - 40%

CEACCP - Postpartum headache: diagnosis and management 2011
“Postpartum headache is described as a complaint of headache and neck or shoulder pain in the first 6 weeks after delivery.1 It is one of the most common symptoms with up to 39% of parturients experiencing headache in the first postpartum week”
Oxycodone 20mg SR / Naloxone 20 mcg:
A. Decreased constipation
B. Reduced risk of drug misuse/abuse
C. Decreased sedation
D. Decreased nausea
Bowel surgery patient. Best method for intraoperative optimization of fluid therapy?
A. Arterial pulse pressure contour analysis

Perhaps SVV or oesophageal doppler would be better?

Update in Anaesthesia - Enhanced recovery after surgery - current trends in perioperative care
“Accurate fluid management and resuscitation requires regular reassessment of physiological parameters and, where available, invasive haemodynamic monitoring. Historically this has been provided by pulmonary artery catheters, but these are increasingly being replaced by targeted stroke volume optimisation with oesophageal Doppler probes. Given the relative simplicity and lack
of complications, where available the latter is the recommended method of guiding fluid administration in the operating room”
In what proportion of people is the AV node supplied by the R coronary artery?

A. 5%
B. 50%
C. 80%
D. 95%
C. 80%

Anatomy for Anaesthetist:
“The atrioventricular node is perfused by the right coronary artery in 80% of subjects”
Epidural block to T2 causes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Bradycardia
B. Vasodilatation
C. Reduced circulating catecholamines
D. Dyspnoea
E. Elevated PaCO2
E - higher CO2
Preoperative autologous blood donation results in less:
A. Cost
B. Incompatible transfusion
C. Less blood wastage
D. Less unnecessary transfusion
Day 4 epidural. On 40 mg SC enoxeparin daily postoperatively (8 pm). When is the most appropriate time to remove the epidural?
A. Day 5 at 12 midday
B. Day 5 at 6 am
C. Day 5 at 6 pm
D. Day 6 at ?
A - greater than 12 hours later

Acute pain management handbook
Penetrating injury to chest. What part of the heart most likely injured?
E. Right coronary
right ventricle 43%
left ventricle 34%
right atrium 16%
left atrium 7%
Regarding a Thallium scan:
A. High NPV
B. Less useful in comparison to a DSE
C. High PPV
D. Good for population screening
Binds specifically to myocardium and show's movement of muscle.
What is NOT a contraindication to MRI?
A. Pulmonary artery catheter
B. Arterial line
C. Scissors
D. Coiled ECG cable
E. Laryngoscope
B - arterial line

Blue Book 2005
“Invasive blood pressure transducers: These are not ferromagnetic, and are safe to use. Transducer cables should be kept out of the magnet bore, so as to avoid imagedistortion”

“There is at least one report of a cardiovascular catheter (Swan-Ganz Triple Lumen Thermodilution Catheter) that "melted" in a patient undergoing MR imaging. This catheter contained a wire made from a conductive material that was considered to be responsible for this problem. Thus, there are realistic concerns pertaining to the use of similar devices in patients undergoing MR examinations”
The nerve supplying area of skin between greater trochanter and iliac crest:
A. subcostal nerve
B. ilioinguinal nerve
C. genitofemoral nerve
D. femoral nerve
E. lat cutaneous femoral nerve
A - subcostal nerve
In infants with congenital pyloric stenosis
A. dehydration is associated with early hyponatremia
B. plasma chloride levels seldom fall below 85 mmol.1-I
C. renal conservation of hydrogen and potassium ions occurs
D. the urine is initially alkaline, then may become acidic
E. vomiting causes a loss of potassium ions

• More common in males
• Typically 3-6wks of age
• Increased HCO3 load to distal tubule of kidney results in an alkaline urine initially. With Extreme K losses, H+ ions exchanged for K in kidney  paradoxical acidotic urine
• Main source of k loss from body is from the kidney →resulting hypokalaemia
Preoperative assessment shows a Mallampati (ML) score of III and thyromental distance (TMD) of < 6cm. A grade 3 to 4 on Cormark and Lehane is predicted. Compared to the ML score, the TMD is
A less sensitive, less specific
B less sensitive, more specific
C more sensitive, less specific
D more sensitive, more specific
E equal sensitivity an specificity
B less sensitive, more specific
Recognised weaknesses of systematic reviews include all of the following EXCEPT
A. publication bias
B. duplicate publication
C. study heterogeneity
D. inclusion of outdated studies
E. systematic review author bias
What drug should NOT be used for tocolysis in 32/40 female?
A. Indomethacin
B. Magnesium
C. Nifedipine
D. Salbutamol
A - indomethacin, risk of PDA closure
Following an eclamptic seizure the dose of MgSO4 is?
A. 1 gram
B. 2 grams
C. 4 grams
C. 8 grams

The regimen recommended by the Collaborative Eclampsia Trial is 4-5 g MgSO4 intravenously over 5 min, followed by infusion of 1 g/hr.

For a second siezure, give a further 2 g bolus, and increase infusion to 2g/hr
An indication for NON-operative management of blunt liver trauma in adults is
A. absence of peritoneal signs
B. a haemodynamically stable patient
C. a haemopertitoneum of LESS than 500 ml
D. a LOW grade injury on CT scan
E. severe chronic obstructive airway disease
B. a haemodynamically stable patient
Initial dose of IV GTN to relax the uterus is?
A. 5 mcg
B. 50 mcg
C. 200 mcg
D. 300 mcg
B - 50 mcg
Dilated CM (LVEF 30%). No dyspnoea with ADLs. Best management?
A. Start ACEI
B. Stop beta-blocker
D. Implanted defibrillator
A - start ACEi
CTG [pictured] demonstrating late decelerations. Most likely cause?
A. Fetal asphyxia
B. Head compression
C. Cord compression
D. Uteroplacental insufficiency

Perinatology.Com - Fetal Heart Rate Monitoring
“Early decelerations appear to be caused by vagal discharge produced when the head is compressed by uterine contractions. The onset and depth of early decelerations mirror the shape of the contraction, and tend to be proportional to the strength of the contraction.

Late decelerations occur when a fall in the level of oxygen in the fetal blood triggers chemoreceptors in the fetus to cause reflex constriction of blood vessels in nonvital peripheral areas in order to divert more blood flow to vital organs such as the adrenal glands, heart, and brain. Constriction of peripheral blood vessels causes hypertension that stimulates a baroreceptor mediated vagal response which slows the heart rate. The time consumed in this two step process accounts for the delay in the timing of the deceleration relative to the contraction”
If a patient experiences parasthesia in the little finger during supraclavicular brachial plexus block, the needle is in proximity to the
A. posterior cord
B. middle trunk
C. Ulnar nerve
D. lower trunk
E. medial cord
D - lower trunk.

The medial cord also carries fibres for sensation of the little finger, but is further along, not in the supraclavicular region
D - lower trunk.

The medial cord also carries fibres for sensation of the little finger, but is further along, not in the supraclavicular region
A diagnostic test has a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 99% in detecting a certain disease. From this we can conclude that
A. the false positive rate of this test is 1%
B. the false negative rate of this test is 1%
C. the positive predictive value of this test is 90%
D. the negative predictive value of this test is 90%
E. this test would be a useful screening test for this disease

False Positive Rate = 1 - specificity
False Negative Rate = 1 - sensitivity

And as a further reminder:
PPV = TP / (TP + FP)

And NPV = TN / (TN + FN)
Systemic Vascular resistance index (SVRI) is equal to:

C. SVR x BSA^2
D. SVR / BSA^2
The features of Pierre Robin sequence include cleft palate, micrognathia and:
A. Glossoptosis
B. Craniosynostosis
C. Macroglossia
D. Microstomia
A - glossoptosis

Pierre robin features - glossoptosis, micrognathia and cleft palate

Pierre Robin Grows Many Concerns
A - glossoptosis

Pierre robin features - glossoptosis, micrognathia and cleft palate

Pierre Robin Grows Many Concerns
What is the ratio of MAC awake:MAC of sevoflurance
a. 0.2
b. 0.34
c. 0.46
d. 0.64

MAC = 2.1
Mac awake = ~0.7

0.7/2.1 = 0.3
Essential diagnostic criteria on ECG for LBBB
A. Loss of septal Q's in V5 and V6
B. RSR in V1
C. Large slurred S in V6
D. T-waves opposite to direction of QRS
E. QRS duration minimum 0.2 s
A or D depending on source

Diagnostic criteria for LBBB:
• 1) Total QRS duration >0.12 s.
• 2) No secondary R wave in V1 to indicate RBBB. 

• 3) No septal q wave in V5, V6 or in leads further to the left (lead I and aVL in horizontal hearts).
37. A pregnant lady is undergoing neuroradiological coiling of a cerebral aneurysm. At what gestational age should you monitor foetal heart rate to ensure adequate uteroplacental blood flow

A. 20 weeks
B. 24 weeks
C. 28 weeks
D. 30 weeks
E. 32 weeks
B - 24 weeks

As per group discussion
When instructing ward staff on monitoring for respiratory
depression in a patient using PCA (patient controlled
analgesia) you would advise that early respiratory depression is best detected by monitoring
A. frequency of boluses on PCA machine
B. pulse oximetry
C. pupil size
D. respiratory rate
E. sedation scores
E - sedation
Trauma patient. CXR (not given): air fluid levels adjacent to heart/diaphragm/ribs.
A. Ruptured diaphragm
B. Hiatus hernia
B is also possible
A child with intra-operative blood loss. A cardiac arrest is most likely because of
A. A delay in delivery of blood from the blood bank
B. Inadequate intravenous access
C. Underestimated intra-operative blood loss
D. Underestimated pre-operative hypovolaemia
E. Complication of transfusion
C - underestimated loss
Endocarditis prophylaxis in patient with MVR appropriate for?
A. Dental procedure
B. Rigid bronchoscopy
C. Upper endoscopy with biopsy
D. D&C
E. Lithotripsy

2007 AHA Endocarditis Prophylaxis
• All dental procedures that involve manipulation of gingival tissues or periapical region of teeth or perforation of oral mucosa
• Procedures on respiratory tract
• Procedures on infected skin, skin structures, or musculoskeletal tissue
• Antibiotic prophylaxis solely to prevent IE is not recommended for GU or GI tract procedures including vaginal delivery and hysterectomy
• Note: AN prophylaxis is not recommended for bronchoscopy unless the procedure entails incision of the respiratory mucosa
A man is working with electrical appliances at home with a residual current device. If he touches the active and the neutral (was it neutral or earth) wire he will suffer
a. A microshock
b. A macroshock
c. Nothing happens because the fuse blows
d. The RCD will protect him from macroshock
Current normally flows along active and NEUTRAL. Touching these wires will result in macroshock with no protection, as it may be indistinguishable from normal operation. Current from active to EARTH should be protected by RCD's.

Severe asthma attack. Given continuous nebs & IV hydrocortisone but not responding. PaCO2 low. SpO2 low. Next appropriate treatment?
A. IV Magnesium
B. IV Aminophylline
C. Heliox
D. IV salbutamol infusion
E. Intubate/ventilate
A - MgSO4
Atrial septal defect, where is the murmur heard the loadest?

“ASD with moderate-to-large left-to-right shunts result in increased right ventricular stroke volume across the pulmonary outflow tract creating a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur. This murmur is heard in the second intercostal space at the upper left sternal border”
Best position for IABP is 1-2 cm:
A. Distal to Left SCA
B. Proximal to Left SCA
C. Distal to artery of Adamkiewicz
D. Distal to renal artery
E. Proximal to renal artery
A - distal to left SCA
Blood flow across which of the following is used to estimate pulmonary artery pressures during echocardiography?
A. Tricuspid valve
B. Pulmonary valve
C. Mitral Valve
A - some TR is required, the velocity of the jet gives a pressure differential across the TR via modified bernouilli equation.
The RV and PA pressures then are this pressure plus your estimate of RAP.
The diagram below is of a transgastric short axis view obtained during a transoesophageal echocardiography examination. Which letter corresponds to the area supplied by the right coronary artery?
A.	A
B.	B
C.	C
D.	D
E.	E
The diagram below is of a transgastric short axis view obtained during a transoesophageal echocardiography examination. Which letter corresponds to the area supplied by the right coronary artery?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
Cephalothin doesn't cover:
a. Proteus
b. E coli
c. Staph
d. Strep
e. Pseudomonas
E - E.Coli

1st gen cephalosporin. Good for many gram +ve, and a few gram -ve
CHADS2 score. Which is not a feature?
A. Age
B. Gender
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Stroke

CCF +1
HT +1
Age > 75, +1
DM +1
Stroke/TIA/arterial thrombus event, +2 (but NOT deep vein thrombosis)
A 60kg female is given 50 mg of rocuronium, she is unable to be intubated, what dose of sugamadex is required to reverse the rocuronium
a. 240
b. 800
c. 960
C - 16mg/kg

Reversal of shallow neuromuscular = 2 mg/kg
Reversal of profound neuromuscular blockade = 4 mg/kg
Immediate reversal of neuromuscular blockade = 16 mg/kg
Periop clinic reviewing a patient with chronic/ end stage renal failure. Her calcium found to be low. He most certainly have
A. Primary hyperparathyroidism
B. Secondary hyperparathyroidism
C. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism
B - 2nd hyperparathyroidism

Secondary hyperparathyroidism refers to the excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) by the parathyroid glands in response to hypocalcemia (low blood calcium levels) and associated hypertrophy of the glands. This disorder is especially seen in patients with chronic renal failure. It is often—although not consistently—abbreviated as SHPT in medical literature.
Meconium stained liquour but neonate delivered is vigorous. Rationale for NOT suctioning the neonate?

A. May aspirate meconium
B. May cause bradycardia
C. May cause hypertension

It does not alter outcome (ARC Guidelines neonatal resus, level II evidence)
And certainly can cause vagal response
Post Carotid Endarterectomy on ward, patient seizes. BP has been hard to control. What to do to prevent further seizures?

A: Add another antihypertensive
B: Start antiplatelet drugs
C: Start anticonvulsants
D: Do angio and stent
E: Nimodipine
National labelling standards endorsed by ANZCA. What colour should the label on a brachial plexus catheter infusion be?
A. Red
B. Blue
C. Beige
D. Yellow
E. Pink

National Recommendations for User-applied Labelling of Injectable Medicines, Fluids and Lines
Intra-arterial = Red
Intravenous = Blue
Epidural / Intrathecal / Regional = Yellow
Subcutaneous = Beige 723
Other routes = Pink
Which of the following are feature of Conn’s syndrome?
A. Normoglycaemia, hypernatremia , hypokalemia
B. Hypoglycaemia, hypernatremia, hypokalemia
C. Hyperglycaemia, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia
D. Normoglycaemia, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia
E. Hypoglycaemia, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia
A - normal BSL, high Na, Low K

Conn syndrome is an aldosterone-producing adenoma.
A patient has suffered flash burns of the upper half of the left upper limb, all of the left lower limb and the anterior surface of the abdomen. The approximate percentage of the body surface which has been burned is
A. 18%
B. 23%
C. 32%
D. 41%
E. 48%

Rule of 9’s: 4.5 + 18 + 9

Rule of 9’s: 4.5 + 18 + 9
Dural Sac ends at what level in a neonate?
A. L1
B. L3
C. L5
D. S1
E. S3

“The dural sac in neonates and infants also terminates in a more caudad location compared to adults, usually at about the level of S3 compared to the adult level of S1”
A 35kg 5 year old girl is having elective surgery for suturing of a superficial leg laceration. After induction with N2O/Sevoflurane/O2 and in absence of any visible veins you have placed an appropriately sized LM:::A. Following this her SpO2 immediately drop to 90%. What is your initial management?

A. Increase inhaled sevoflurane concentration with LMA in situ
B. Increase inhaled sevoflurane concentration after removing LMA
C. Intralingual suxamethonium (no dose stated)
D. Intramuscular suxamethonium (no dose stated)
E. Intramuscular atropine (no dose stated)

Stem incomplete? Looks like they are suggesting laryngospasm.
Incarcerated inguinal hernia in a child with a mild URTI. Most appropriate course of action?
A. Postpone for 2 weeks
B. Continue without ETT
C. Continue with careful monitoring
C - continue with care

Can't be postponed.
What is the half life of clopidogrel?
a. 6 hours
b. 14 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 7 days
A - 6 hours
Patient with subdural hematoma and PPM for ?AV ablation. PPM technician >1 hour away. Surgeon wishes to proceed immediately. Do you?
A. Postpone and await a cardiologist review
B. Postpone and await arrival of PPM technician
C. Postpone and insert a transvenous temporary PM
D. Proceed after institution of transcutaneous pacing.
E. Proceed with a magnet handy.

Does depend how urgent surgery is and how much info you have re. pacemaker, mode, magnet response

If it is urgent, I would crack on with magnet in case there was inappropriate inhibition and you need asynchronous mode ASAP

Transcutaneous pacing should be available but not necessarily started
Which of the following does NOT occur following bilateral lung transplant?
A. Impaired mucociliary clearance
B. Impaired lymphatic drainage
C. Impaired HPV
C - Hypoxic vaso constriction is preserved

Anesthetic Challenges in Patients After Lung Transplantation. The Internet Journal of Anesthesiology
“Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction is intact in the pulmonary allograft so during an episode of rejection, pulmonary blood flow may be directed away from the transplanted lung”
20 kilogram child suffered 15% full thickness burns 6 hours ago. Optimum crystalloid fluid volume resuscitation for the first hour is
A. 160 ml
B. 260 ml
C. 360 ml
D. 460 ml
E. 660 ml

Parkland formula 4 x kg x % of burn half in first 8 hours and half in 16 hours

4mL x 20kg x 15% = 1200mL

Half in first 8 hours = 600mL
Over 2 hours (6 hours already elapsed)

Plus maintenance, 4-2-1 rule
(Note that maintenance does not get backdated)

Total = 300 + 60 = 360mL/hr
Complications of mediastinoscopy include all of the
following EXCEPT
A. air embolism
B. cardiac laceration
C. pneumothorax
D. recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
E. tracheal compression
B - cardiac laceration

Plummer et al. Anaesthesia for telescopic procedures in the thorax BJA 1998
Major complications of mediastinoscopy

• Haemorrhage
• Pneumothorax
• Recurrent laryngeal nerve injury
• Air embolism
• *Compression of vessels
• Aorta → reflex bradycardia
• Innominate artery ( R brachiocephalic trunk)
• Right carotid → hemiparesis
• Right subclavian → loss of right radial pulse
• Compression of trachea
A 4 year old child booked for minor surgery is seen in pre-admission clinic where a murmur is detecte:D. Which feature will warrant further investigation
A. Loudness 4/6
B. Decreases on inspiration
C. Vibratory quality
D. Ejection systolic murmur
E. Louder on supine

Thoracodorsal nerve arises from?
A. Anterior cord
B. posterior cord
C. Posterior division of lower trunk
D. anterior division of upper trunk
The thoracodorsal nerve is a branch of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, and is made up of fibres from the posterior divisions of all three trunks of the brachial plexus.
It derives its fibers from the sixth, seventh, and eighth cervical...
The thoracodorsal nerve is a branch of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, and is made up of fibres from the posterior divisions of all three trunks of the brachial plexus.
It derives its fibers from the sixth, seventh, and eighth cervical nerves.

Anatomy for Anaesthetist – ‘Branches of the Posterior Cord’
“The nerve to latissimus dorsi (thoracodorsal nerve) (C6–8) arises between the upper and lower subscapular nerves. It accompanies the subscapular vessels along the posterior axillary wall and supplies latissimus dorsi”
Perform a brachial plexus block however the medial forearm is NOT numb. Which nerve has been missed?

A. Medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve
B. Medial brachial cutanous nerve
C. Intercostal brachial nerve
D. Axillary superior lateral cutaneous nerve
Medial cutaneous nerve of forearm actually (= median antebrachial nerve)
Smallest branch of brachial plexus, arises from medial cord, derived from C8-T1
A - median antebrachial cutaneous nerve

Smallest branch of brachial plexus, arises from medial cord, derived from C8-T1

C8-T1 - Inferior or lower trunk - anterior division - medial cord
Thermoneutral zone in 1 month old infant ?
A. 26 – 28 degrees Celcius
B. 28 – 30 degrees Celcius
C. 30 – 32 degrees Celcius
D. 32 – 34 degrees Celcius
E. 34-46 degrees celcius

Adult = 25-28
Neonate = 32-35
Indicative of severe Aortic Stenosis?
A. Palpitations
B. Fatigue
C. Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnoea
D. Angina
E. Syncope
Risk factor for PPH?
A. Prolonged labour
B. Age <20 yrs old
C. Primiparity
D. FV Leiden Deficiency (yes it said deficiency!)
E. Oligohydramnios
A - long labour
When stimulating the ulnar nerve with a nerve stimulator, which muscle do you see twitch?
A. opponens abducens
B. abductor pollicis brevis
C. adductor pollicis
D. extensor pollicis
E. flexor pollicis brevis
C - adductor pollicis
Fat:blood coefficients?
A. N2O~Des < Sevo < Iso
B. N2O < Des < Sevo ~ Iso
C. Des < N20 < Sevo ~ Iso
D. N20 ~ Des < sevo < Iso
B - N2O < Des < Sevo~Iso

Blood:Gas are very similar for Des and N2O, fat:blood very different
18/12 old undergoing routine SV GA under LMA. Sudden onset SVT with HR 220 BP 84/60 ETCO2 32 SpO2 98.Management:
A. Adenosine 100mcg/kg
B. DCR 2J/kg
C. DCR 4J/kg
D. Amiodarone 5mg/kg
A - adenosine
Clinically the most significant murmur in pregnancy is?
D. Venous hum
Required for diagnosis of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
A. Diaphoresis
B. ↑ CK
C. Rigidity
D. Hypertenion
E. ↑ HR

According to DSM-IV rigidity must be present.

According to DSM-IV rigidity must be present.
2 yo 15kg child following seizure on surgical ward. Admitted with appendicitis and perforation. 60ml/hr of ½ N. Saline 5%dextrose
Na+ 119
K+ 4.5
HCO3- 19
Cl- 90

Best treatment would be
A. Desmopressin
B. Frusemide
C. 3% normal saline
D. Normal Saline
E. Fluid restrict
32 y/o male. Weakness distal and prox muscles, infection 10 days ago, no sensory involvement, temp 37.8, facial weakness. Cause:
A. Guillian Barre
B. Myasthenia Gravis
D. Poliomyelitis
E. ?Acute encephalitis
F. ?Polymyositis
70 y/o postop in recovery following hip surgery. Develops severe chest pain, ST elevation. Immediate mx:
A Beta blocker
B Aspirin
C GTN infusion
D Heparin infusion
Circuit disconnection during spontaneous breathing anaesthesia
A. will be reliably detected by a fall in end-tidal carbon dioxide concentration
B. will be detected early by the low inspired oxygen alarm
C. will be most reliably detected by spirometry with minute volume alarms
D. may be detected by an unexpected drop in end-tidal volatile anaesthetic agent concentration
E. can be prevented by using new, single-use tubing
A 23 year old man takes his buprenorphine patch off prior to surgery. When can you expect the plasma level to be half?
a. 6 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 36 hours
e. 48 hours

Norspan product information
“After removal of a NORSPAN patch, buprenorphine concentrations decline, decreasing approximately 50% in 12 hours (range 10 - 24 h)”
How do you calculate the inspiratory time constant for lungs
A. resistance multiplied by compliance
B. resistance divided by compliance
C. compliance divided by resistance
D. resistance minus compliance
E. resistance plus compliance
In a neonate the main resistance in a circle system with CO2 absorber
A. APL valve
B. expiratory and inspiratory unidirectional valves
C. tubing
E. HME filter
Iron deficiency anaemia:
A. Low ferritin, low serum iron
B. Low ferritin, low TIBC
C. Elevated ferritin, low marrow iron
D. Elevated ferritin, ?
E. Elevated ferritin, ?
A - Low ferritin, low serum iron
Long-standing T6 paraplegia. Which is INCORRECT?
A. Flaccid paralysis
B. Poikilothermia
C. Labile BP
You see a patient in the pre-op clinic. He is on propranolol for treatment of long QT syndrome. Which of the following will give the best reassurance that his treatment is effective?
a. normal QT interval on resting ECG
b. no change in QT interval with valsalva
c. HR less than 60
d. no arrhythmias on 24h holter monitor

Long QT syndrome and anaesthesia. BJA 2003
“The mainstay of treatment of congenital LQTS since 1975 has been beta‐block”
“The dose of β‐blocker is determined by ensuring a reduction in maximal heart rate on treadmill exercise testing to 130 beats min–1 or less… where exercise testing is impractical, there should ideally be no change in the QT interval in response to a Valsalva manoeuvre”
“The QTc is unchanged despite efficacy of treatment, although QTD is higher in patients who do not respond to β‐block
Lap chole on citalopram. What is NOT relatively contraindicated?
A. Omeprazole
B. Clonidine
C. Pethidine
D. Tramadol
E. ?Midazolam

Citalopram shares CYP3A4 metabolism with midazolam
Citalopram shares CYPC19 metabolism with omeprazole
Tramadol and pethidine with citalopram may be relatively contraindicated due to serotonin syndrome concerns
Most effective treatment for post-sevoflurane agitation following grommets in a 4yo child?
A. 1 mg/kg propofol
B. 1 mcg/kg fentanyl
C. 1 mcg/kg clonidine
D. ?dose midazolam
E. Sucrose

Reference from paeds textbook (coats,) says opioids are most effective
What is NOT useful in the treatment of Torsades?
A. Isoprenaline
B. Procainamide
D. Electrical pacing
(Amiodarone was not an option)

Procainamide prolongs the QT interval
The incidence of fat embolism syndrome following a unilateral closed femoral fracture is
A. 0 -3%
B. 4 – 7%
C. 8 -11%
D. 12 – 15%
E. 16 - 19%
A - 0-3%

Fat Embolism - CEACCP 2007
“Any single long bone 1-3%”
“It has been reported in up to 33% of patients with bilateral femoral fractures”
Middle-aged male with severe MS having general anaesthesia for repair of fractured ulna / radius. 10 minutes into the case you notice a tachyarrythmia with his HR 130 and BP 70. He is normally in sinus. What do you do?
A. Adenosine
C. Shock
D. Volume
E. Metaraminol
C - synchronised DC shock
As per ALS guidelines for haemodynamically compromised tacharryhthmias
When performing laryngoscopy using a Macintosh blade, your best view is of the patient's epiglottis touching the posterior pharyngeal wall. Using the Cormack and Lehane scale this is grade
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3a
D. 3b
E. 4
Grade 3b as per MODIFIED CL score.
involving: Numb tongue and impaired taste sensation post LMA anaesthesia.
A. Facial Nerve
B. Mandibular division of CNV
C. Lingual Nerve

Anterior 2/3rds of tongue
• Somatic afferent: lingual nerve branch of V3 of the trigeminal nerve
• Taste: chorda tympani branch of facial nerve (carried to the tongue by the lingual nerve)
Posterior 1/3rd of tongue
• Somatic afferent and taste: Glossopharyngeal nerve CN IX
• All intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue are supplied by the hypoglossal nerve
• Except for one of the extrinsic muscles, palatoglossus, which is innervated by CN X
Lateral approach to popliteal block.
A. Passes through semimembranosis
B. May be performed supine or prone
C. Adequate for ankle surgery
D. Less effective in comparison to posterior approach
E. Eversion is an endpoint for nerve stimulation
B & E (Preferably tibial stimulation observe as it is more medial)

• No, passes through biceps femoris. Semimembranosus is on the medial side of the nerve
• Usually performed supine
• Need to block femoral branches too for the medial aspect of ankle
• Can’t find anything on this – wouldn’t think so?
• According to NYSORA end-point is twitching of the foot, which can be either dorsiflexion/eversion (from common peroneal branch of sciatic), or plantarflexion/inversion (from tibial branch of sciatic).
Factors associated with post-operative ulnar nerve palsy
include all of the following EXCEPT
A. male gender
B. sternal retraction for cardiac surgery
C. cardiopulmonary bypass for cardiac surgery
D. internal jugular vein catheterisation
E. diabetes mellitus
In a rotameter the
A. bobbin spins inside a tube that has parallel sides
B. flow is laminar at high flow rates
C. height of the bobbin is proportional to the pressure drop across the bobbin
D. pressure drop across the bobbin is constant at varying flows
E. resistance increases with increasing gas flow
F = MA mass of bobbin and A is gravity both should be constant
P = F/A area of the bobbin does not change
Appropriate postoperative maintenance fluid in a child [can't recall situation, but something to do with head injury]:
A. 3% and 1/3 NS
B. 1/2 NS
C. Normal Saline
D. Hartmanns
E. Hartmanns with glucose

In a head injury you would not want to give excess water, if that is part of the stem.
Young woman with subarachnoid haemorrhage, hyponatraemia and increased urinary sodium (did not specify if high sodium concentration or total amount lost). What is likely cause?
A. cerebral salt wasting syndrome
C. HHH therapy
D. Excess NS administration
E. diabetes insipidus

CSWS is usually caused by brain injury/trauma or cerebral lesion, tumor, or hematoma. CSWS is a diagnosis of exclusion and may be difficult to distinguish from the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH), which develops under similar circumstances and also presents with hyponatremia. The main clinical difference is that of total fluid status of the patient: CSWS leads to a relative or overt hypovolemia whereas SIADH is consistent with a normal to hypervolemic range. Random urine sodium concentrations tend to be lower than 100 mEq/L in CSWS and greater in SIADH. If blood-sodium levels increase when fluids are restricted, SIADH is more likely.

The biochemical criteria for CSWS are:
(i) low or normal serum sodium
(ii) high or normal serum osmolality
(iii) high or normal urine osmolality
(iv) increased haematocrit, urea, bicarbonate, and albumin as a consequence of hypovolaemia.

However, these criteria are often inconclusive. In CSWS, total daily urine sodium excretion is greater than intake, whereas it is usually equal to intake in SIADH, that is, overall sodium balance is negative in CSWS and generally neutral in SIADH.
Regarding mixed venous blood oxygen saturation, which statement is correct?
a. it is collected from the right atrium
b. it is used to calculate cardiac output
c. it can be used to accurately measure the mixed venous pO2
d. it has no impact on the A-a gradient
e. it is usually 40%

Normal range for SvO2 is 60 – 80%
Is collected from PA

CO can be calculated by a modification of the Fick equation, where
VO2 = (CO x CaO2) – (CO x CvO2 )
Where CO = Cardiac Output, Ca = Oxygen concentration of arterial blood and Cv = Oxygen concentration of mixed venous blood

VO2 = Arterial Oxygen Transport – Venous, Oxygen Transport
= (CO x CaO2 x 10) – (CO x CvO2 x 10)
= CO x (CaO2 – CvO2) x 10
= CO (Hb x SaO2 x 13.8) – CO (Hb x SvO2 x 13.8)
= CO x Hb x 13.8 x (SaO2 – SvO2)

VO2 = CO x Hb x 13.8 x (SaO2 – SvO2)
VO2 = Oxygen consumption
CO = cardiac output
SaO2 = arterial O2 sats
SvO2 = venous O2 sats
Cerebral oximetry measures?
A. Arterial saturation
B. Mostly arterial saturation and some venous saturation
C. Capillary saturation
D. Mostly venous saturation and some arterial saturation
E. Venous saturation

The Official Journal of the Anesthesia Patient Safety Foundation. Spring 2009
“Cerebral oximetry differs from pulse oximetry in that tissue sampling represents primarily (70-75%) venous, and less (20-25%) arterial blood”

Cerebral Oximetry: Monitoring the Brain as the Index Organ. Anesthesiology 2011
“Sco2 is weighted for approximately 70–75% venous blood”
Ciliary ganglion
A sympathetic from inferior cervical ganglion
B located inferiorly within orbit
C may be damaged during a peribulbar block
D preganglionic parasympathetic supply from the supra trochlear nerve
E preganglionic parasympathetic originates from the Edinger Westpal nucleus
Normal systolic BP at birth?
A. Something less than 70 mmHg
B. 70 mmHg
C. 85 mmHg
D. Something more than 85 mmHg
E. 115 mmHg

Depends on birth weight, gestation
OHA says “normal systolic blood pressure is 70-90mmHg”

NETS Victoria - Neonatal Handbook (which references Nuntnarumit P, Yang W, Bada-Ellzey HS. Blood pressure measurements in the newborn. Clin Perinatol 1999)
B - 75mmHg

NETS Victoria - Neonatal Handbook (which references Nuntnarumit P, Yang W, Bada-Ellzey HS. Blood pressure measurements in the newborn. Clin Perinatol 1999)
An elderly gentleman on warfarin has suffered a subdural haematoma. His INR on admission was 4.5. The resident in Ed has already given him 2.5mg of Vit K. To reverse his coagulopathy prior to urgent surgery you should give him
A. Factor VIIa
C. Cryoprecipitate
D. Prothrominex
E. Prothrombinex and FFP

Warfarin reversal: consensus guidelines, on behalf of the Australasian Society of Thrombosis and Haemostasis. MJA 2004

Cease warfarin therapy, give 5.0–10.0 mg vitamin K1 intravenously, as well as Prothrombinex-HT (25–50 IU/kg) and fresh frozen plasma (150–300 mL), assess patient continuously until INR < 5.0, and bleeding stops.§
If fresh frozen plasma is unavailable, cease warfarin therapy, give 5.0–10.0 mg vitamin K1 intravenously, and Prothrombinex-HT (25–50 IU/kg), assess patient continuously until INR < 5.0, and bleeding stops.§

If Prothrombinex-HT is unavailable, cease warfarin therapy, give 5.0–10.0 mg vitamin K1 intravenously, and 10–15 mL/kg of fresh frozen plasma, assess patient continuously until INR < 5.0, and bleeding stops.§
Major cause of death following difficult intubation with perforated oesophagus?
A. Sepsis
B. Failure to intubate
C. Failure to ventilate
A - sepsis
Which is a specific PDE inhibitor?
A. Theophylline
B. Dipyridimole
C. Milrinone
C - milrinone

Theophylline = methylxanthine, nonselective phosphodiesterase inhibitor
Dipyridimole = Can find mentions of PDE 5 PDE 10 and PDE 11
Milrinone = phosphodiesterase-3 inhibitor
Maximum dose of local infiltration of 0.5% bupivacaine in an 15 kg child?

A. 27mg
B. 37mg
C. 60mg
D. 75mg
E. 90mg
B - 2.5mg/kg

Weight and answers made up - the question as recollected did not have an answer for 2mg/kg but did for 2.5mg/kg
Loading dose of IV paracetamol in 12 kg child?
A. 60mg
B. 120mg
C. 240mg
D. 360mg
E. 480mg
C - 12kg x 20mg/kg = 240mg

Weight and answers made up, question as recollected had an answer for 20 mg/kg
What is the first sign/symptom seen with an inadvertent total spinal whilst performing caudal anaesthesia in a neonate
A. Hypotension
B. Bradycardia
C. Desaturation
D. Tachycardia
E. Loss of consciousnes?
C - desaturation

As per group discussion
Performing a caudal block in a child and add clonidine to prolong duration of block. What significant complication is increased?
A. Sedation
B. Urinary retention
New onset AF. For what period of time is it safe to perform DCCV without prior TOE to exclude thrombus?
A. <24 hours
B. <48 hours
C. <72 hours
D. <1week

Cardioversion of Atrial Fibrillation for Maintenance of Sinus Rhythm: A Road to Nowhere. Circulation 2009
“The current treatment guidelines suggest it is permissible to cardiovert patients without continued anticoagulation in those for whom it is known that the duration of AF is <48 hours”
Regarding remifintanil, which is incorrect?
a. high potency
b. metabolised by pseudocholinesterase
c. muscle rigidity in high doses
d. weakly active metabolite
e. short context sensitive half time

Metabolised by non-specific tissue and plasma esterase
Off-label use of a drug refers to all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Different age-group
B. Different indication
C. Different concentration
D. Different route of administration
Off-label use of medicines: consensus recommendations for evaluating appropriateness. MJA 2006; 185 (10): 544-548
“Examples include use in a different indication, patient age range, dose or route”

Use of “Off Label” or Drugs beyond Licence in Pain Medicine. ANZCA Faculty of Pain Medicine
“The term “off-label use” may pertain to an unapproved indication, route of administration, age group, or dose. The term does NOT relate to any prescribing conditions outlined by the PBS”
Labour epidurals increase maternal and foetal temperature. This results in neonatal
A. Increased sepsis
B. Increased investigations for sepsis
C. increased non shivering thermogenesis
D. Increased need for resuscitation
E. Cerebral palsy
ASA grading was introduced to
A. predict intraop anaesthetic risk
B. Predict intraop surgical and anaesthetic risk
C. Standardise the physical status classification of patients
D. Predict periop anaesthetic risk
E. Predict periop anaesthetic and surgical risk
Compared to lignocaine, bupivacaine is
A. Twice as potent
B. Three times as potent
C. Four times as potent
D. Five times as potent
E. Same potency
C - four times
Best agent to decrease both gastric volume and gastric acidity?
A. Omeprazole
B. Ranitidine
C. Metoclopramide
D. Cisapride
E. Na citrate
B Ranitidine (IV if option exists)
Young female having cholecystectomy. Venous air embolus:
A. Mechanical ventilation and PEEP is part of treatment strategy
B. Most likley to occur at initial gas insufflation, but can occur at any time
C. Inert gas (argon, xenon) is safer

Miller 7th ed. p. 2188
"This complication develops principally during the induction of pneumoperitoneum, particularly in patients with previous abdominal surgery."
Diastolic dysfunction is NOT caused by:
A Adrenaline
B Aortic stenosis
C Hypertension
D myocardial fibrosis
E ?
The cause of early mortality (early - within 30 minutes) in a pregnant women with amniotic fluid embolism is

A. Bronchospasm
B. Hypovolaemia
C. Malignant arrhythmia
D. Pulmonary hypertension
E. Pulmonary oedema
D - Pulmonary HT
Nerve block for anaesthesia over anterior 2/3 of ear?
A. C2
B. Mandibular nerve
C. Maxillary nerve
D. Ophthalmic nerve
E. Vagus
B - mandibular nerve
Central anticholinergic syndrome, which is NOT true:
A. Will improve with neostigmine
B. Peripheral anticholinergic symptoms
C. Caused by Anti-Parkinson drugs
D. CNS depression
E. Associated with agitation, delirium, and ???
A - won't improve with neostigmine as will not cross BBB
In an acute malignant hyperthermia episode
A. the serum creatine kinase level peaks within one hour
B. the peak serum creatine kinase level is a good indicator of the amount of muscle involved
C. elevated creatine kinase levels contribute to acute renal failure
D. the serum myoglobin level does NOT peak for at LEAST 24 hours
E. muscle rigidity occurs in 75% of cases
E - 75% muscle rigidity
You see a patient in your clinic for a total knee replacement. He is 65 and has atrial fibrillation for which he takes dabigatran. He is otherwise well. A spinal anaesthetic is planned. What is the correct advice regarding his medication?

a. he should stop his dabigatran 7 days prior
b. he should stop his dabigatran 3 days prior
c. he should stop his dabigatran 3 days prior and have bridging enoxaparan
d. he should stop his dabigatran the day before and have an INR on the day of surgery
e. he should continue to take his dabigatran until the morning of surgery


Direct thrombin inhibitor. Pro drug, 5% bioavailability, 2 huyr peak levels, 8hr half life in normal renal function after single dose, 80% renally excreted.