Did Shakespeare Really Write Everything? Essay

1290 Words 6 Pages
Despite all of these theories and accepted variants, Shakespeare, in his works, accords high value to preserving one's name and honor. A passage from Othello proves this when it is said, "Who steals my purse steals trash... but he that filches from me my good name robs me of that which not enriches him, and makes me poor indeed" (III.iii.157-161). If William Shakespeare truly wrote such a passage, then his utter indifference to the spelling of his name is contradictory. "In addition, the pattern would require belief that the reserved the Shakespeare spelling almost exclusively - and uniformly - for the poem and plays, but permitted the Stratfordian spelling for his business dealings" (Whalen 34). Then, despite the celebrity-status he had …show more content…
By normalizing the spelling, this whole dispute is avoided. It also ignores the fact that there may be two different men. By avoiding the distinction between these two men and their vastly contrasting backgrounds, they can be fused into one person. Based on legal documents, one name refers to an actual person; the other, however, seems to be a pseudonym. This pseudonym seems to belong to a writer who did not want to be publicized. "Most biographies make no mention of the distinction and use the Shakespeare spelling throughout" (Whalen 35). Some biographies, however, address the distinction. For any discussion about this dispute, it would be logical to distinguish between the two names. The issue is knowing whether or not two people are involved — and modernizing the spelling negates the issue as a whole. Furthermore, it suggested to avoid the use of specific locutions in order to step away from discriminations that the man from Stratford was truly Shakespeare. "The man from Stratford" is an example of a locution. "They argue that it tends to prejudice the discussion" (Whalen 36). However, distinguishing between the names is logical for multiple reasons. A variant, and not Shakespeare, was the most common spelling of his name. It is unfair to normalize the name because it would eliminate the man's legitimacy. "Making the distinction also gains legitimacy from traditional Shakespearean studies" (Whalen 36). In the late

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