Vett 134 Surgery & Anesthesia Exam 1

Front 1

T or F Hooves and hair are part of the integumentary system

Back 1

true

Front 2

This is an example of a carbohydrate

Back 2

Glucose

Front 3

This is an example of an eicosanoid

Back 3

Leukotriene

Front 4

This is the ASA classification for a patient with incapacitating system disease that is a constant threat to life

Back 4

Class IV

Front 5

This is the ASA classification for an Emergency anesthetic procedure.

Back 5

E

Front 6

T or F A complex animal's cells are specialized to perform certain functions

Back 6

true

Front 7

T or F The mouth, intestines, and urinary bladder are lined with epithelial tissue

Back 7

true

Front 8

These are special proteins that catalyze chemical reactions

Back 8

Enzymes

Front 9

T or F Systems are the most complex level of body organization

Back 9

true

Front 10

T or F The heart is solely responsible for maintaining homeostasis in an animal's body

Back 10

false

Front 11

This is an example of a nucleic acid

Back 11

RNA

Front 12

T or F All structures in an animal's body are paired

Back 12

false

Front 13

This type of chemical reaction has no net energy requirement and occurs when you take sodium bicarbonate to relieve indigestion

Back 13

Exchange

Front 14

T or F In human medicine, superior is used in place of dorsal

Back 14

false

Front 15

T or F In a dorsoventral radiographic view, the animal is lying on its side when the picture is taken

Back 15

False

Front 16

This is the ASA classification for a moribund patient not expected to live 24 hours with or without an operation

Back 16

Class V

Front 17

These terms refer to up and down

Back 17

dorsal and ventral

Front 18

The atoms in NaCl have this type of chemical bond because they transfer electrons to one another

Back 18

Ionic bond

Front 19

Lymph and urine have _____ as their transport media

Back 19

water

Front 20

This is an example of a nucleotide

Back 20

Guanine

Front 21

T or F An anatomic plane is an imaginary slice through an animal's body

Back 21

true

Front 22

This is the smallest unit of an element that retains the unique properties of the element

Back 22

atom

Front 23

T or F Anatomy deals with the function of the body and its parts

Back 23

false

Front 24

T or F Parietal pleura covers the viscera of the thoracic cavity

Back 24

false

Front 25

This is the nitrogen base found in RNA

Back 25

Adenine

Front 26

The dorsal body cavity consists of:

Back 26

the cranial and spinal cavities

Front 27

T or F Smooth muscles move the bones of the skeleton and are under conscious control

Back 27

false

Front 28

T or F The tarsus is located in the hind leg

Back 28

true

Front 29

Fats breaking down in adipose tissue is an example of this type of chemical reaction

Back 29

Decomposition

Front 30

The second electron shell can hold up to this many electrons

Back 30

8

Front 31

This is a key component of thyroid hormone

Back 31

Iodine

Front 32

T or F Deep (internal) and superficial (external) refer to the position of something relative to the median plane

Back 32

false

Front 33

What information is included in the patient's signalment?

Back 33

Age, gender, breed.

Front 34

T or F Single structures in the body are generally located near the lateral plane

Back 34

false

Front 35

T or F The intestines are located in the ventral body cavity, caudal to the diaphragm

Back 35

true

Front 36

Water's high heat of vaporization means that

Back 36

it needs a fairly high temperature to change from a liquid to a gas

Front 37

Organic compounds contain _____ and inorganic compounds do not.

Back 37

Hydrocarbon groups

Front 38

Define the term "Signalment".

Back 38

The patient's species, breed, weight, age, sex, and reproductive status

Front 39

Why is determining the disposition and activity level of preanesthetic patients important?

Back 39

To determine which anesthetics and induction agents would best suit that specific patient

Front 40

The word that means toward the nose is

Back 40

rostral

Front 41

T or F The diaphragm is composed of connective tissue that divides the ventral body cavity into the thoracic and abdominal cavities

Back 41

false

Front 42

The system consisting of glands and hormones is called

Back 42

endocrine

Front 43

The pH of a healthy animal's body is approximately

Back 43

7.4

Front 44

Fat, cartilage, and bone are examples of:

Back 44

connective tissue

Front 45

What divides the ventral body cavity into the cranial thoracic cavity and the caudal abdominal cavity?

Back 45

the diaphragm

Front 46

This element is the primary component of organic molecules

Back 46

carbon

Front 47

This is a short chain of two amino acids

Back 47

Dipeptide

Front 48

The secreting units of salivary, sweat, and mammary glands are composed of

Back 48

epithelial tissue

Front 49

Name colloids used in veterinary medicine

Back 49

Plasma, blood, dextran, oxyglobin

Front 50

What would be a pharmacological effect of Atropine sulfate?

Back 50

Atropine has a 60 to 90 minute duration of action

Front 51

According to the text, what is the normal time that food should be withheld from dogs and cats before the administration of anesthesia?

Back 51

8 hours

Front 52

Name a pharmacological effect of Atropine sulfate?

Back 52

Atropine has a 60 to 90 minute duration of action

Front 53

Which of the following statements concerning anticholinergics is true?

Back 53

By blocking the Vagus nerve, anticholinergics will increase heart rate and may cause heart failure in animals with underlying cardiac conditions.

Front 54

T or F Tranquilizers are analgesic

Back 54

false

Front 55

What is the specific mode of action of Atropine sulfate?

Back 55

Atropine blocks the effects of the Vagus nerve

Front 56

Which of the following is NOT a type of catheter described in the text that is commonly used in veterinary medicine?

Back 56

Above the needle catheters

Front 57

T or F It is accepted practice to scrub a patient initially with a povidone-iodine product.

Back 57

TRUE

Front 58

Name a phentothiazine

Back 58

Acepromazine

Front 59

T or F Anesthesia (as provided by gas anesthetics) provided multimodal analgesia.

Back 59

false

Front 60

T or F Most preanesthetics cross the placental barrier

Back 60

false

Front 61

T or F Phenothiazines produce calming, decrease motor activity, and increase the threshold for responding to external stimuli

Back 61

true

Front 62

T or F Anticholinergics, such as glycopyrrolate and atropine, increase the heart rate and provide purely beneficial effects for the patient

Back 62

false

Front 63

Nsme a drug that would be classified as a Benzodiazepine

Back 63

Midazolam

Front 64

Which of the following statements concerning Benzodiazepines is NOT true?
A) They produce minimal or no calming in normal animals but may have profound effects in sick, depressed, or debilitated animals
B) They have minimal cardiovascular and respiratory depressive effects after slow IV administration
C) They may predispose the animal to seizure activity
D) They may depress the thalamus, hypothalamus, and limbic system
E) Diazepam is in a 40% propylene glycol solution which can cause cardiovascular, respiratory, and other problems if given IV very quickly

Back 64

C

Front 65

Which of the following would be most useful in detecting the first signs of over-hydration with IV fluids?
A) Packed Cell Volume
B) Total Protein
C) Auscultation
D) Central Venous Pressure
E) Femoral pulse

Back 65

D

Front 66

Which of the following statements is true concerning preanesthetic agents?
A) Preanesthetics may be used to facilitate muscle relaxation
B) Preanesthetics maximize autonomic nervous system activity
C) Preanesthetics help minimize stress on the patient
D) Preanesthetics aid in patient restraint
E) Preanesthetics, other than tranquilizers, can eliminate or minimize pain
F) All the above are true
G) None of the above are true

Back 66

F

Front 67

Which of the following statements is true concerning preanesthetic agents?
A) Some common preanesthetics are anticholinergics, tranquilizers, alpha-2 agonists, and opioids
B) Preanesthetics may decrease the amount of potentially more dangerous drugs needed for anesthesia
C) Preanesthetics can minimize the potentially adverse and toxic effects of other drugs used to produce anesthesia
D) Preanesthetics may smooth recovery from an anesthetic procedure
E) All the above are true
F) None of the above are true

Back 67

E

Front 68

Anticholinergic drugs such as Atropine block the release of acetylcholine at the:
A) Muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic nervous system
B) Nicotinic receptors of the parasympathetic nervous system
C) Muscarinic receptors of the sympathetic nervous system
D) Nicotinic receptors of the sympathetic nervous system

Back 68

A

Front 69

What is the specific mode of action of Atropine sulfate?
A) Atropine directly stimulates the Vagus nerve
B) Atropine stimulates neuromuscular conductors in the hypothalamus
C) Atropine blocks the effects of epinephrine
D) Atropine blocks the effects of the Vagus nerve
E) Atropine blocks the effects of the sympathetic nervous system

Back 69

D

Front 70

Which of the following would NOT be an appropriate reason for IV catheterization of preanesthetic patients?
A) Administer fluids
B) Administer additional anesthetics or analgesics
C) Administer needed emergency drugs
D) All the above are appropriate reasons
E) None of the above are appropriate reasons.

Back 70

D

Front 71

Which of the following are true statements concerning Opioids?
A) Opioids are used in the perianesthetic period for analgesia and sedation.
B) Opioids are commonly combined with tranquilizers or other drugs to produce neuroleptanalgesia.
C) Opioids can effect the heart and may need to be administered with anticholinergics.
D) Opioids produce a dose dependent respiratory depression.
E) Opioids may have profound effects on the gastrointestinal system.
F) Two of the above are correct
G) All of the above are correct
H) None of the above are correct

Back 71

G

Front 72

Which of the following would be classified as a Benzodiazepine?
A) Atropine sulfate
B) Glycopyrrolate
C) Diazepam
D) Detomidine
E) Oxymorphone
F) None of the above are Benzodiazepines

Back 72

C

Front 73

What advantage does Midazolam (Versed) have over Diazepam (Valium)?
A) Diazepam may be given IM and Midazolam may not
B) Diazepam may be mixed with other drugs and Midazolam can not
C) Diazepam is less irritating to tissues than Midazolam
D) Diazepam does not cross the placental barrier like Midazolam
E) All the above are advantages. All the statements are true
F) None of the above are advantages. All the statements are false

Back 73

F

Front 74

Which of the following provide multimodal analgesia?
A) Gas anesthetics, morphine, butorphanol, and fentanyl
B) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), carprofen, and meloxicam.
C) Xylazine and medetomidine.
D) Opioids, NSAIDs, local anesthetic agents, and alpha2-adrenergic agonists.
E) None of the above

Back 74

D

Front 75

Which of the following would be a specific type of colloid solution that might be used in veterinary medicine?
A) Plasma
B) Blood
C) Dextran
D) Oxyglobin
E) All the above are colloids
F) None of the above are colloid solutions

Back 75

E

Front 76

Which of the following would be a pharmacological effect of Atropine sulfate?
A) Atropine takes 5 minutes to take effect following SC administration
B) Atropine has a 60 to 90 minute duration of action
C) Atropine when give IV should be administered over a 20 to 30 minute period
D) Atropine has a 3 to 4 hour duration of action
E) Atropine should never be give IV to treat cardiac arre

Back 76

B

Front 77

What is the purpose of premedicating a patient before inducing anesthesia for surgery?
A) To provide a smooth transition to anesthesia.
B) To provide preemptive analgesia.
C) To facilitate a smooth recovery from anesthesia.
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.

Back 77

D

Front 78

Which of the following statements concerning anticholinergics is true?
A) Anticholinergics increase salivary secretions and other parasympathetic secretions
B) Anticholinergics potentiate the bradycardiac effects of vagal secretions
C) Anticholinergics cause papillary constriction
D) Anticholinergics can only be administered Intravenously
E) By blocking the Vagus nerve, anticholinergics will increase heart rate and may cause heart failure in animals with underlying cardiac conditions

Back 78

E

Front 79

What is the specific mode of action of Atropine sulfate?
A) Atropine directly stimulates the Vagus nerve
B) Atropine stimulates neuromuscular conductors in the hypothalamus
C) Atropine blocks the effects of epinephrine
D) Atropine blocks the effects of the Vagus nerve
E) Atropine blocks the effects of the sympathetic nervous system

Back 79

D

Front 80

Why should the patient's identity be verified before anesthetizing the animal for surgery?
A) To avoid anesthetizing the wrong patient.
B) To avoid performing surgery on the wrong patient.
C) It is not necessary to cross-check the patient's correct identity because any good technician should be able to distinguish all black cats in the hospital on any given day based on physical appearance alone.
D) Both A and B.
E) None of the above

Back 80

D

Front 81

Which of the following would be a phentothiazine?
A) Midazolam
B) Buprenoprhine
C) Naloxone
D) Diazepam
E) Acepromazine
F) Glycopyrrolate

Back 81

E

Front 82

What needs to be done to the patient after the hair clip and before moving the patient into the OR?
A) Vacuum the clipped hair and clipped area if the skin.
B) Check to see if bladder needs expressing.
C) Perform initial skin scrub.
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.

Back 82

D

Front 83

Why does an orthopedic "clip and prep" of an extremity need to include a circumferential clip around the entire limb?
A) If the incision goes all the way through the limb and out the other side, the other side will already be prepared for this scenario.
B) If the surgeon mistakenly incises the wrong side of the limb with the first incision, and if the leg is clipped circumferentially, the mistake is easily corrected.
C) For patient comfort
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.

Back 83

E

Front 84

Which of the following are NOT true statements concerning Opioids?
A) Opioids may be reversed with Naloxone and Yohimbine.
B) Opioids are classified as agonists, antagonists, or agonist-antagonists.
C) Opioids may effect body temperature by several different mechanisms.
D) Two of the above are incorrect
E) All of the above are correct

Back 84

E

Front 85

Which of the following are correct statements concerning Phenothiazines?
A) Phenothiazines do not suppress the sympathetic nervous system
B) Phenothiazines produce calming, decrease motor activity, and increase the threshold for responding to external stimuli
C) Phenothiazines cause a profound increase in systemic blood pressure that is best treated with aggressive fluid therapy
D) Phenothiazines are ineffective at reducing or stopping seizure activity in epileptic animals
E) Phenothiazines are ineffective at reducing emesis

Back 85

B

Front 86

Which of the following statements concerning Benzodiazepines is NOT true?
A) They produce minimal or no calming in normal animals but may have profound effects in sick, depressed, or debilitated animals
B) They have minimal cardiovascular and respiratory depressive effects after slow IV administration
C) They may predispose the animal to seizure activity
D) They may depress the thalamus, hypothalamus, and limbic system
E) Diazepam is in a 40% propylene glycol solution which can cause cardiovascular, respiratory, and other problems if given IV very quickly

Back 86

C

Front 87

Which of the following statements is true concerning preanesthetic agents?
A) Some common preanesthetics are anticholinergics, tranquilizers, alpha-2 agonists, and opioids
B) Preanesthetics may decrease the amount of potentially more dangerous drugs needed for anesthesia
C) Preanesthetics can minimize the potentially adverse and toxic effects of other drugs used to produce anesthesia
D) Preanesthetics may smooth recovery from an anesthetic procedure
E) All the above are true
F) None of the above are true

Back 87

E

Front 88

Which of the following are anticholinergics?
A) Atropine sulfate
B) Oxymorphone
C) Xylazine
D) Glycopyrrolate
E) Ketamine
F) Two of the above are anticholinergics
G) None of the above are anticholinergics

Back 88

F

Front 89

Which of the following are NOT true statements concerning Opioids?
A) Opioids may be reversed with Naloxone and Yohimbine.
B) Opioids are classified as agonists, antagonists, or agonist-antagonists.
C) Opioids may effect body temperature by several different mechanisms.
D) Two of the above are incorrect
E) All of the above are correc

Back 89

E

Front 90

Which of the following are signs of Atropine toxicity?
A) Drowsiness
B) Excitement
C) Muscle tremors
D) Hyperthermia
E) Tachycardia
F) All may be signs of Atropine toxicity
G) None of the above are signs or Atropine toxicity

Back 90

F

Front 91

Which of the following might be a result of IV catheterization?
A) Air emboli
B) Hematoma
C) Broken catheter tips
D) Phlebitis
E) All the above can result from IV catheterization
F) None of the above are risks of IV catheterization

Back 91

E

Front 92

What is the suggested fluid rate for animals in shock in the text?
A) 1 to 2 ml/kg as a bolus and then reevaluate the patient
B) 5 to 10 ml/kg as a bolus and then reevaluate the patient
C) 10 to 20 ml/kg as a bolus and then reevaluate the patient
D) 20 to 40 ml/kg as a bolus and then reevaluate the patient
E) 100 to 200 ml/kg as a bolus and then reevaluate the patient

Back 92

C

Front 93

Anticholinergics, such as glycopyrrolate and atropine, increase the heart rate and provide purely beneficial effects for the patient.
A) True
B) False

Back 93

B

Front 94

Which of the following statements concerning Benzodiazepines is true?
A) Can produce good to excellent muscle relaxation
B) Can be reversed with Flumazinil
C) Can produce euphoria and calming in all animals
D) May reduce the amount of potentially more dangerous anesthetics needed for a procedure
E) All the above statements are true
F) None of the above statements are true

Back 94

E

Front 95

Which of the following Opioids is a true agonist-antagonist?
A) Fentanyl
B) Morphine
C) Oxymorphone
D) Meperidine
E) Butorphanol

Back 95

E

Front 96

What advantage does Midazolam (Versed) have over Diazepam (Valium)?
A) Diazepam may be given IM and Midazolam may not
B) Diazepam may be mixed with other drugs and Midazolam can not
C) Diazepam is less irritating to tissues than Midazolam
D) Diazepam does not cross the placental barrier like Midazolam
E) All the above are advantages. All the statements are true
F) None of the above are advantages. All the statements are false

Back 96

F

Front 97

What are the daily fluid maintenance rates that are listed in the text?
A) 2 ml/kg/hr for large dogs and 4 ml/kg/hr for small dogs
B) 4 ml/kg/hr for large dogs and 1 ml/kg/hr for small dogs
C) 2 ml/kg/hr for large dogs and 8 ml/kg/hr for small dogs
D) 4 ml/kg/hr for large dogs and 4 ml/kg/hr for small dogs
E) 1 ml/kg/hr for large dogs and 2 ml/kg/hr for small dogs

Back 97

A

Front 98

Which of the following is NOT an Opioid receptor?
A) Mu
B) Gamma
C) Kappa
D) Sigma
E) Delta
F) All the above are Opioid receptors

Back 98

B

Front 99

Which of the following are signs of Atropine toxicity?
A) Drowsiness
B) Excitement
C) Muscle tremors
D) Hyperthermia
E) Tachycardia
F) All may be signs of Atropine toxicity
G) None of the above are signs or Atropine toxicity

Back 99

F

Front 100

Severe bradycardia after the use of medetomidine should be treated with the following drug:
A) Atropine
B) Naloxone
C) Epinephrine
D) Atipamazole

Back 100

D

Front 101

Which of the following are NOT true statements concerning Opioids?
A) Opioids may be reversed with Naloxone and Yohimbine.
B) Opioids are classified as agonists, antagonists, or agonist-antagonists.
C) Opioids may effect body temperature by several different mechanisms.
D) Two of the above are incorrect
E) All of the above are correct

Back 101

E

Front 102

Which of the following would be a physiological effect of Atropine sulfate?
A) Atropine increases salivation
B) Atropine causes constriction of the pupil
C) Atropine promotes bronchodilation
D) Atropine increases gastrointestinal activity
E) Atropine increases tear secretions
F) Atropine does NOT promote any of the above actions

Back 102

C

Front 103

The electrical difference in charges across a neuron cell membrane is:
A) positive on the inside
B) the resting membrane potential
C) approximately 170 mV
D) none of the above

Back 103

B

Front 104

Which of the following statements concerning Benzodiazepines is true?
A) Can produce good to excellent muscle relaxation
B) Can be reversed with Flumazinil
C) Can produce euphoria and calming in all animals
D) May reduce the amount of potentially more dangerous anesthetics needed for a procedure
E) All the above statements are true
F) None of the above statements are true

Back 104

E

Front 105

Which of the following Opioids is a true agonist-antagonist?
A) Fentanyl
B) Morphine
C) Oxymorphone
D) Meperidine
E) Butorphanol

Back 105

E

Front 106

What advantage does Midazolam (Versed) have over Diazepam (Valium)?
A) Diazepam may be given IM and Midazolam may not
B) Diazepam may be mixed with other drugs and Midazolam can not
C) Diazepam is less irritating to tissues than Midazolam
D) Diazepam does not cross the placental barrier like Midazolam
E) All the above are advantages. All the statements are true
F) None of the above are advantages. All the statements are false

Back 106

F

Front 107

What are the daily fluid maintenance rates that are listed in the text?
A) 2 ml/kg/hr for large dogs and 4 ml/kg/hr for small dogs
B) 4 ml/kg/hr for large dogs and 1 ml/kg/hr for small dogs
C) 2 ml/kg/hr for large dogs and 8 ml/kg/hr for small dogs
D) 4 ml/kg/hr for large dogs and 4 ml/kg/hr for small dogs
E) 1 ml/kg/hr for large dogs and 2 ml/kg/hr for small dogs

Back 107

A

Front 108

Which of the following is NOT an Opioid receptor?
A) Mu
B) Gamma
C) Kappa
D) Sigma
E) Delta
F) All the above are Opioid receptors

Back 108

B

Front 109

Which of the following are signs of Atropine toxicity?
A) Drowsiness
B) Excitement
C) Muscle tremors
D) Hyperthermia
E) Tachycardia
F) All may be signs of Atropine toxicity
G) None of the above are signs or Atropine toxicity

Back 109

F

Front 110

Which of the following statements concerning Benzodiazepines is true?
A) Can produce good to excellent muscle relaxation
B) Can be reversed with Flumazinil
C) Can produce euphoria and calming in all animals
D) May reduce the amount of potentially more dangerous anesthetics needed for a procedure
E) All the above statements are true
F) None of the above statements are true

Back 110

E

Front 111

Severe bradycardia after the use of medetomidine should be treated with the following drug:
A) Atropine
B) Naloxone
C) Epinephrine
D) Atipamazole

Back 111

D

Front 112

Which of the following Opioids is a true agonist-antagonist?
A) Fentanyl
B) Morphine
C) Oxymorphone
D) Meperidine
E) Butorphanol

Back 112

E

Front 113

Which of the following are NOT true statements concerning Opioids?
A) Opioids may be reversed with Naloxone and Yohimbine.
B) Opioids are classified as agonists, antagonists, or agonist-antagonists.
C) Opioids may effect body temperature by several different mechanisms.
D) Two of the above are incorrect
E) All of the above are correct

Back 113

E

Front 114

What advantage does Midazolam (Versed) have over Diazepam (Valium)?
A) Diazepam may be given IM and Midazolam may not
B) Diazepam may be mixed with other drugs and Midazolam can not
C) Diazepam is less irritating to tissues than Midazolam
D) Diazepam does not cross the placental barrier like Midazolam
E) All the above are advantages. All the statements are true
F) None of the above are advantages. All the statements are false

Back 114

F

Front 115

Which of the following would be a physiological effect of Atropine sulfate?
A) Atropine increases salivation
B) Atropine causes constriction of the pupil
C) Atropine promotes bronchodilation
D) Atropine increases gastrointestinal activity
E) Atropine increases tear secretions
F) Atropine does NOT promote any of the above actions

Back 115

C

Front 116

The electrical difference in charges across a neuron cell membrane is:
A) positive on the inside
B) the resting membrane potential
C) approximately 170 mV
D) none of the above

Back 116

B

Front 117

What are the daily fluid maintenance rates that are listed in the text?
A) 2 ml/kg/hr for large dogs and 4 ml/kg/hr for small dogs
B) 4 ml/kg/hr for large dogs and 1 ml/kg/hr for small dogs
C) 2 ml/kg/hr for large dogs and 8 ml/kg/hr for small dogs
D) 4 ml/kg/hr for large dogs and 4 ml/kg/hr for small dogs
E) 1 ml/kg/hr for large dogs and 2 ml/kg/hr for small dogs

Back 117

A

Front 118

Which of the following is NOT an Opioid receptor?
A) Mu
B) Gamma
C) Kappa
D) Sigma
E) Delta
F) All the above are Opioid receptors

Back 118

B

Front 119

Which of the following are signs of Atropine toxicity?
A) Drowsiness
B) Excitement
C) Muscle tremors
D) Hyperthermia
E) Tachycardia
F) All may be signs of Atropine toxicity
G) None of the above are signs or Atropine toxicity

Back 119

F

Front 120

Severe bradycardia after the use of medetomidine should be treated with the following drug:
A) Atropine
B) Naloxone
C) Epinephrine
D) Atipamazole

Back 120

D

Front 121

Which of the following are NOT true statements concerning Opioids?
A) Opioids may be reversed with Naloxone and Yohimbine.
B) Opioids are classified as agonists, antagonists, or agonist-antagonists.
C) Opioids may effect body temperature by several different mechanisms.
D) Two of the above are incorrect
E) All of the above are correct

Back 121

E

Front 122

Which of the following would be a physiological effect of Atropine sulfate?
A) Atropine increases salivation
B) Atropine causes constriction of the pupil
C) Atropine promotes bronchodilation
D) Atropine increases gastrointestinal activity
E) Atropine increases tear secretions
F) Atropine does NOT promote any of the above actions

Back 122

C

Front 123

The electrical difference in charges across a neuron cell membrane is:
A) positive on the inside
B) the resting membrane potential
C) approximately 170 mV
D) none of the above

Back 123

B

Front 124

An animal with severe spinal cord damage in the L2-3 area will typically have a hyperreflexive response.
A) True
B) False

Back 124

A

Front 125

Norepinephrine is broken down by:
A) monoamine oxidase in the synaptic knob
B) catechol-O-methyl transferase in the cleft
C) acetylcholinesterase
D) a and b

Back 125

D

Front 126

Diseases that affect the cerebellum may affect an animal's sense of balance and awareness of the body's position.
A) True
B) False

Back 126

A

Front 127

Severe bradycardia after the use of medetomidine should be treated with the following drug:
A) Atropine
B) Naloxone
C) Epinephrine
D) Atipamazole

Back 127

D

Front 128

During the relative refractory period, the cell may depolarize if:
A) the stimulus is much weaker than normal
B) the stimulus is much larger than normal
C) enough potassium ions enter the cell
D) the myelin sheath is thick enough

Back 128

B

Front 129

When you pet a dog, which receptors send a sensation from the skin to the dog's brain?
A) efferent
B) nodes of Ranvier
C) afferent
D) autonomic

Back 129

C

Front 130

The crossed extensor reflex is:
A) ipsilateral and autonomic
B) ipsilateral and somatic
C) contralateral and somatic
D) contralateral and autonomic

Back 130

C

Front 131

An influx of _____ into the synaptic knob results in the fusing of vesicles containing neurotransmitters with the knob's cellular membrane.
A) potassium
B) sodium
C) iron
D) calcium

Back 131

D

Front 132

In the stretch reflex, this structure is stretched and sends impulses via the somatic sensory neuron to the spinal cord.
A) muscle spindle
B) cell membrane
C) axon
D) dendrite

Back 132

A

Front 133

This is the ASA classification for a patient with severe systemic disease that limits activity but is not incapacitating.
A) Class I
B) Class II
C) Class III
D) Class IV
E) Class V
F) "E"

Back 133

C

Front 134

This stage/plane of anesthesia is marked by depression of the tidal volume, mild depression of the cardiovascular system, and pain responses are depressed.
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III-Plane I
D) Stage III-Plane II
E) Stage III-Plane III
F) Stage III-Plane IV
G) Stage IV

Back 134

D

Front 135

The gray matter of the spinal cord contains:
A) myelinated nerve fibers
B) cranial nerves
C) neuron cell bodies
D) all of the above

Back 135

C

Front 136

Acetylcholine is an excitatory catecholamine.
A) True
B) False

Back 136

B

Front 137

Anesthetized patients must be closely monitored for simultaneously both physiological status and depth of anesthesia to insure their health and safety.
A) True
B) False
C) Whenever it is convenient

Back 137

A

Front 138

An electrocardiogram is a representation of the electric current passing through the heart.
A) True
B) False

Back 138

A

Front 139

These blood vessels do not have muscles in their walls.
A) arterioles
B) capillaries
C) arteries
D) vena cavae

Back 139

B

Front 140

The tricuspid valve prevents backflow from the left ventricle to the left atrium.
A) True
B) False

Back 140

B

Front 141

While the ventricles are contracting during ventricular systole, the atria are filling with blood.
A) True
B) False

Back 141

A

Front 142

Which of the following would be advantages of using non-invasive monitoring techniques and devices?
A) These techniques and procedures are usually fairly simple
B) These techniques and procedures are usually fairly reliable
C) These techniques and procedures are usually fairly informative
D) These techniques are expensive
E) There is little risk of complications
F) All the above
G) All but one of the above

Back 142

G

Front 143

CVP pressure greater than ___ to ____ cm of water is indicative of overhydration and can signal impending trouble.
A) 2 to 6
B) 8 to 12
C) 12 to 15
D) 20 to 25
E) 30 to 36

Back 143

C

Front 144

Which of the following are correct and sound basic principles of anesthetic monitoring?
A) Monitor more than one body system and more than one parameter per body system, if possible
B) Use simple and reliable techniques to monitor
C) Check instrument calibrations frequently
D) Formulate your monitoring plan based on the preanesthetic assessment of the case
E) Watch for trends and changes in body systems and make changes accordingly
F) The best single monitoring device is a trained, caring, competent veterinary technician
G) All are necessary
H) None of the above are really necessary
I) The above should be done, but only if the owner can afford

Back 144

G

Front 145

Changing either the stroke volume or heart rate will affect cardiac output.
A) True
B) False

Back 145

A

Front 146

The ductus arteriosus and foramen ovale close during the final month of gestation.
A) True
B) False

Back 146

B

Front 147

Which of the following parameters might be seen in the scared cat undergoing a physical exam?
A) increased heart rate
B) decreased blood pressure
C) increased stroke volume
D) a and c

Back 147

D

Front 148

In a dog that is to undergo total hip replacement, where might an intravenous catheter be placed for administration of fluids during surgery?
A) cephalic vein
B) saphenous vein
C) femoral vein
D) superficial caudal epigastric vein

Back 148

A

Front 149

What effect does general anesthesia have on the cardiovascular system?
A) increases stroke volume
B) increases heart rate
C) decreases cardiac output
D) inactivates the parasympathetic nervous system

Back 149

C

Front 150

Proper placement and inflation of an endotracheal tube is essential to the health and safety of any anesthetized patient.
A) True
B) False

Back 150

A

Front 151

When drawing blood from the jugular vein, extreme care must be taken to avoid the carotid artery, which lies very close by.
A) True
B) False

Back 151

A

Front 152

Proper placement and inflation of an endotracheal tube is essential to the health and safety of any anesthetized patient.
A) True
B) False

Back 152

A

Front 153

The superficial caudal epigastric vein should not be used for routine venipuncture because it is prone to excessive bleeding and hematoma formation.
A) True
B) False

Back 153

A

Front 154

Which of the following occurs during systole?
A) cardiac muscle contracts
B) blood is ejected from the atria to the ventricles
C) blood is ejected from the ventricles to the arteries
D) all of the above

Back 154

D

Front 155

What are the effects of Starling's law on the heart?
A) increased stroke volume
B) increased cardiac contraction
C) increased stretching of ventricular walls
D) all of the above

Back 155

D

Front 156

At what level is the heart in horses and ruminants?
A) between the third and fourth ribs
B) between the second and sixth rib
C) between the second and third rib
D) between the third and seventh rib

Back 156

B

Front 157

Which of the following would be advantages of invasive monitoring techniques or devices?
A) The physiological database is increased
B) Most invasive techniques are reliable, accurate, or fairly easy to obtain
C) Direct measurements, rather than derived and subjective values, are obtained
D) Rarely is the patient at risk for secondary complications
E) Invasive monitoring uses cheap and readily available devices, which never fail
F) All the above
G) All but one of the above

Back 157

G

Front 158

The mediastinum is also called the intrapleural space.
A) True
B) False

Back 158

B

Front 159

The carotid arteries branch directly off of the aorta to supply blood to the head.
A) True
B) False

Back 159

B

Front 160

Which of the following conditions or situations may contribute to hyperthermia in patients?
A) Overzealous use of heating pads, hot water bottles, or circulating warm water pads
B) Iatrogenically produced due to certain drug combinations in species predisposed to malignant hyperthermia
C) High oxygen flow rates during anesthetic procedures
D) Inadequate ventilation usually due to lack of use of an endotracheal tube
E) One of the above
F) Two of the above
G) All of the above
H) None of the above

Back 160

F

Front 161

Which valves close during systole?
A) right atrioventricular and pulmonary
B) left atrioventricular and right atrioventricular
C) left atrioventricular and aortic
D) aortic and pulmonary

Back 161

B

Front 162

What might an increased width of the QRS complex represent on an electrocardiogram?
A) poor conduction of the electrical impulse through the Purkinje fibers
B) a weak SA node
C) enlargement of the atria
D) failure of the electrical impulse generated by the SA node to pass through to the ventricles

Back 162

A

Front 163

In the dog, S3 and S4 are typically heard more easily than in the horse.
A) True
B) False

Back 163

B

Front 164

While the ventricles are contracting during ventricular systole, the atria are filling with blood.
A) True
B) False

Back 164

A

Front 165

During a time of crisis (for example, when the fight or flight response is occurring) blood is preferentially directed toward the brain, heart, and muscles.
A) True
B) False

Back 165

A

Front 166

What might an increased width of the QRS complex represent on an electrocardiogram?
A) poor conduction of the electrical impulse through the Purkinje fibers
B) a weak SA node
C) enlargement of the atria
D) failure of the electrical impulse generated by the SA node to pass through to the ventricles

Back 166

A

Front 167

Most blood vessels have skeletal muscle in their walls.
A) True
B) False

Back 167

B

Front 168

You have read and memorized Number 9, on page 73 of the text on how to properly inflate an endotracheal tube. You realize that simply putting air into the cuff until it "feels about right" is a waste of time and can easily result under inflated and over inflated endotracheal tubes.
A) True
B) False

Back 168

A

Front 169

What effect does general anesthesia have on the cardiovascular system?
A) increases stroke volume
B) increases heart rate
C) decreases cardiac output
D) inactivates the parasympathetic nervous system

Back 169

C

Front 170

Where does blood that has just been oxygenated in the lungs flow next?
A) left atrium
B) right atrium
C) right ventricle
D) left ventricle

Back 170

A

Front 171

What is the name of the connection between the right and left atria in the fetus?
A) ductus arteriosus
B) ductus venosus
C) pulmonary arteriosus
D) foramen ovale

Back 171

D

Front 172

Why is blood in the systemic circulation under higher pressure than blood in the pulmonary or coronary circulation?
A) There is more blood in the systemic circulatory system at any given time than in the coronary or pulmonary systems.
B) It takes more pressure to carry the blood the far distance to every extremity than it does to travel the shorter pulmonary and coronary routes.
C) Blood in the systemic circulation encounters more resistance to flow.
D) All of the above.

Back 172

D

Front 173

CVP pressure greater than ___ to ____ cm of water is indicative of overhydration and can signal impending trouble.
A) 2 to 6
B) 8 to 12
C) 12 to 15
D) 20 to 25
E) 30 to 36

Back 173

C

Front 174

The inner lining of arteries is called endothelium.
A) True
B) False

Back 174

A

Front 175

Which of the following are correct statements concerning the use of intravenous anesthetic drugs?
A) The foundation to the successful use of IV induction drugs is proper preanesthetic medication
B) One of the main advantages of IV induction drugs is that they require minimal equipment and expense
C) IV induction drugs produce a dose-dependent effect
D) Many factors are involved in the selection, dose, and rate of administration of IV induction drugs. Therefore, caution must be used when selecting and administering these drugs
E) All the above are true
F) None of the above are true

Back 175

E

Front 176

The minimum heart rate for anesthetized dogs and cats is which of the following?
A) 50 for dogs and 75 for cats
B) 60 for dogs and 100 for cats
C) 80 for dogs and 125 for cats
D) 100 for dogs and 150 for cats
E) 150 for dogs and 175 for cats

Back 176

B

Front 177

Which valves close during systole?
A) right atrioventricular and pulmonary
B) left atrioventricular and right atrioventricular
C) left atrioventricular and aortic
D) aortic and pulmonary

Back 177

B

Front 178

The components of properly monitoring an anesthetized patient require a caring and trained technician with a good understanding of the pharmacology of anesthetically related drugs, an understanding of the patient's physiology, a knowledge of the monitoring devices being used, and the ability to integrate all of these areas into a comprehensive and clear picture of the anesthetic depth and physiological status of that patient.

A) True
B) False

Back 178

A

Front 179

What causes the pulmonic and aortic valves to close?
A) Pressure in the ventricles drops lower than the pressure in the arteries they supply.
B) Pressure in the ventricles drops lower than pressure in the atria.
C) Pressure in the atria drops lower than pressure in the ventricles.
D) Pressure in the ventricles rises higher than the pressure in the aorta and pulmonic artery.

Back 179

A

Front 180

Doppler blood pressure monitors are best at accurately indicating which of the following?
A) Systolic blood pressure
B) Diastolic blood pressure
C) Mean Arterial Blood Pressure
D) None of the above

Back 180

A

Front 181

Septicemic shock results from an allergic response to a bee sting.
A) True
B) False

Back 181

B

Front 182

Which of the following statements is false?
A) Cardiac depolarization corresponds to systole.
B) Cardiac repolarization corresponds to diastole.
C) Like batteries, the SA node is unable to automatically repolarize itself.
D) Skeletal muscle only contracts when it receives an electrical message from nerve tissue.

Back 182

C

Front 183

The sinoatrial node is located in the left atrium and is the pacemaker of the heart.
A) True
B) False

Back 183

B

Front 184

Which of the following conditions or situations that may predispose animals to dangerous hypothermia?
A) Cold IV fluids
B) Reduced heat production by skeletal muscles, as often happens in anesthetic situations
C) Open body cavities
D) Cold cages and recovery rooms.
E) Vasodilatation, which often is secondary to such drugs as some tranquilizers or analgesics
CNS depression
F) All the above
G) None of the above. Hypothermia is rarely a consideration in veterinary medicine. All our patients wear fur coats

Back 184

F

Front 185

The tricuspid valve prevents backflow from the left ventricle to the left atrium.
A) True
B) False

Back 185

B

Front 186

A) Heart rate
B) Tissue Perfusion
C) Pulse Pressure
D) Color of tissues
E) CRT
F) All are good methods of monitoring
G) None of the above are really necessary

Back 186

F

Front 187

The heart muscle is called:
A) endocardium
B) pericardium
C) epicardium
D) myocardium

Back 187

D

Front 188

The heart beating more forcefully is called:
A) spontaneous depolarization
B) positive inotropy
C) stroke volume
D) spontaneous repolarization

Back 188

B

Front 189

Which compartment of the heart has the thickest wall?
A) right atrium
B) left atrium
C) right ventricle
D) left ventricle

Back 189

D

Front 190

Which of the following happen to the heart of a racehorse during a race?
A) increased heart rate
B) increased stroke volume
C) increased cardiac output
D) all of the above

Back 190

D

Front 191

Which valve has two flaps?
A) mitral
B) pulmonic
C) aortic
D) tricuspid

Back 191

A

Front 192

Which compartment of the heart has the thickest wall?
A) right atrium
B) left atrium
C) right ventricle
D) left ventricle

Back 192

D

Front 193

The papillary muscles connect the free edges of the valvular flaps to the chordae tendinae.
A) True
B) False

Back 193

B

Front 194

Which vein lies along the medial aspect of the hind limb between the groin and the tarsal joint?
A) saphenous
B) cephalic
C) femoral
D) coccygeal

Back 194

C

Front 195

What are the specialized fibers in the ventricles that conduct electrical impulses?
A) Purkinje fibers
B) SA node fibers
C) bundle of His
D) a and c

Back 195

D

Front 196

The best and only real way, to insure that an endotracheal tube is properly placed in the trachea is which of the following.
A) Feel the tube in the trachea by palpating the trachea
B) By blowing on the tube and watching the chest expand
C) By pushing on the chest and feeling air come out of the tube
D) By seeing the tube pass into the trachea using proper visualization
E) By palpating the neck and not feeling the tube in the esophagus

Back 196

D

Front 197

SaO2 levels equal to or less than _____ % would indicate that a patient is hypoxic and that remedial steps need to be quickly taken to re-establish proper oxygenation.
A) 99
B) 95
C) 93
D) 90
E) 85
F) 80

Back 197

D

Front 198

CVP pressure greater than ___ to ____ cm of water is indicative of overhydration and can signal impending trouble.
A) 2 to 6
B) 8 to 12
C) 12 to 15
D) 20 to 25
E) 30 to 36

Back 198

C

Front 199

Which of the following occur in the animal in shock?
A) increased preload
B) increased blood pressure
C) decreased systolic pressure
D) decreased heart rate

Back 199

C

Front 200

Closing of the semilunar valves corresponds to which of the following?
A) S1
B) S3
C) S4
D) S2

Back 200

D

Front 201

Respiratory rates less than _____ breaths per minute may indicate that the patient is not breathing enough and steps may need to be taken to insure proper minute ventilatory volume.
A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 10
E) None of the above. That breathing thing is really pretty overrated

Back 201

C

Front 202

Pa02 values below ____ mm Hg would be indicative of hypoxia and the need for oxygen supplementation.
A) 10
B) 30
C) 40
D) 40
E) 60
F) 80
G) 100

Back 202

E

Front 203

Which of the following are signs of Atropine toxicity?
A) Drowsiness
B) Excitement
C) Muscle tremors
D) Hyperthermia
E) Tachycardia
F) All may be signs of Atropine toxicity
G) None of the above are signs or Atropine toxicity

Back 203

F

Front 204

Supplemental oxygenation should be provided to the post-anesthetic patient for as long as possible to help facilitate a safe and successful recovery.
A) True
B) False

Back 204

A

Front 205

Which of the following are anticholinergics?
A) Atropine sulfate
B) Oxymorphone
C) Xylazine
D) Glycopyrrolate
E) Ketamine
F) Two of the above are anticholinergics
G) None of the above are anticholinergics

Back 205

F

Front 206

Monitoring of patents in the recovery phase should be constant and vigilant, since the recovery phase is one of the most dangerous periods of the entire anesthetic process.
A) True
B) False

Back 206

A

Front 207

A patient that has been anesthetized will often have:
A) Mild metabolic acidosis
B) Mild metabolic alkalosis
C) Mild respiratory acidosis
D) Mild respiratory alkalosis

Back 207

C

Front 208

Most preanesthetics cross the placental barrier.
A) True
B) False

Back 208

B

Front 209

The endotracheal tube should be removed for the patient when which of the following occur?
A) The patient can breath spontaneously
B) The patient can stand on their own
C) The patient has a significant palpebral reflex
D) The patient has a significant swallow reflex
E) The patient can find their credit card and pay the bill

Back 209

D

Front 210

ECG's are good at detecting which of the following?
A) Tachycardia
B) Bradycardia
C) Heart block
D) PVC's
E) Fibrillation
F) All of the Above
G) None of the above

Back 210

F

Front 211

The clinical condition where a patient may have a normal ECG and the heart had already stopped is called, which of the following?
A) Sinus arrhythmia
B) Hear block
C) Electromechanical disassociation
D) PVC's
E) None of the above

Back 211

C

Front 212

The surgical stage of anesthesia is generally considered to be:
A) Stage III, Plane I
B) Stage III, Plane II
C) Stage III, Plane III
D) Stage III, Plane IV
E) Stage IV

Back 212

B

Front 213

Recovery from anesthesia is almost exactly like the induction of anesthesia, only backwards.
A) True
B) False

Back 213

A

Front 214

Severe bradycardia after the use of medetomidine should be treated with the following drug:
A) Atropine
B) Naloxone
C) Epinephrine
D) Atipamazole

Back 214

D

Front 215

The term Atelectasis refers to:
A) Increased fluid in the alveoli
B) Hyperinflation of the alveoli
C) Collapsed alveoli
D) A decrease in the perfusion of the blood around the alveol

Back 215

C

Front 216

Anesthetic charts are cumbersome, time consuming, and often a great hassle to keep, but provide a quantifiable method of monitoring anesthesia in patients.
A) True
B) False

Back 216

A