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183 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Neuroglial cells
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glial cells provide structural and functional support to neurons
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Neuron
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Basic functional units of the nervous system, have high need for oxygen, can’t reproduce, but can regenerate cell process if cell remains intact.
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White matter
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tissue containing myelinated axons
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Grey matter
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The part of the CNS made up of neuron cell bodies
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Myelin sheath
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cell membrane of glial cells wrapped tightly around the axon.
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Oligodendrocytes
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: type of myelinated glial cell found in the brain and spinal cord.
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Schwann cells
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type of myelinated glial cell found in nerves outside of the brain and spinal cord.
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Nodes of Ranvier
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gaps between adjacent glial cells
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Central Nervous System (CNS)
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Brain and spinal cord
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Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)
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extend outward to the periphery of the body.
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Afferent Nerves
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AKA sensory nerves, conduct impulses towards the CNS
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Efferent Nerves
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AKA motor nerves, conduct impulses away from the CNS
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Autonomic Nervous System
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controls and coordinates automatic functions
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Somatic Nervous System
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actions under conscious, or voluntary control
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Cerebral cortex
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gray matter, outer layer of the brain, responsible for higher order behaviors
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Corpus callosum
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White fibers that connect and provide communication pathways between the 2 cerebral hemispheres
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Gyri
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fold in cerebral hemispheres
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Sulci
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shallow grooves separating the gyri
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Longitudinal fissure
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Prominent grove that divides the cerebrum into right and left cerebral hemispheres
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Cerebral hemispheres
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the two halves of the cerebrum
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Cerebellum
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just caudal to the cerebrum, responsible for coordinated movement, balance, posture, and complex reflexes
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Diencephalon
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passageway between brain stem and cerebrum, contains thalamus, hypothalamus and pituitary
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Thalamus
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acts as a relay system for regulating sensory inputs to the cerebrum
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Hypothalamus
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interface between the nervous and endocrine systems.
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Pituitary gland
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endocrine master gland
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Brain stem
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connection between rest of brain and spinal cord, responsible for basic support functions of the body
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Medulla oblongata
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Deals with breathing, hear rate, blood pressure, vomiting
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Pons
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Communication and coordination center between 2 hemispheres of the brain.Also relays sensory info beween cerebellum and cerebrum. Deals with sleep.
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Midbrain
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Associated with sleeping, hearing, temp regulation, motor control, sleep/wake arousal
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Meninges
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connective tissue layers that surround the brain and spinal cord. Supplies cushioning, nutrients and oxygen.
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Dura mater
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Tough fibrous outer layer of meninges.
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Pia mater
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very thin. Lies directly on surface of brain and spinal cord.
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Arachnoid
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Delicate spiderweb-like middle layer
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Cerebrospinal fluid
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fluid between layers of the meninges, in canals/ventricles inside the brain, central canal of spinal cord. Cushions, possibly a rol in autonomic functions
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Blood brain barrier
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separates capillaries in brain from nervous tissue, capillary brain cells have no fenestrations; cover by glial cell membranes, prevent smany things from passing readily into brain.
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CN I
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Olfactory: S: smell
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CN II
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Optic: S: vision
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CN III
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Oculomotor: M: eye movement, pupil size, focusing lens
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CN IV
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Trochlear: M: eye movement
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CN V
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Trigeminal B: sensations from head and teeth, chewing
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CN VI
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Abducent: M: eye movement
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CN VII
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Facial: B: Face/scalp movement, salivation, tears, taste
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CN VIII
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Vestibulocochlear: S: balance, hearing
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CN IX
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Glossopharyngeal: B: tongue movement, swallowing, salivation, taste.
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CN X
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Vagus: B: Sensory from GI tract, Respiatory tree; motor to larynx, pharynx, para sympathetic; motor to abdominal/thoracic organs
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CN XI
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Accessory: M: head movment, accessory motor with vegas.
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CN XII
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Hypoglossal: M: tongue movement
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Mnemonic for Cranial Nerve Names
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On old Olumpus’ towering top, a fine vocal German viewed some hops.
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Mnemonic for Cranial Nerve Type
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Six Sailors made merry, but my brother said, “Bad business my man.”
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Ganglion
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neuronal cell bodies outside the CNS
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Somatic reflexes
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involves contraction of skeletal muscles.
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Autonomic reflexes
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regulate smooth muscle, cardiac, muscle, and endocrine glands
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Stretch reflex
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monosynaptic, involves sensory & motor neuron
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Withdrawal reflex
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Flexor Reflex, involves synapses with several interneurons, results in contraction of flexing of muscles
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Crossed extensor reflex
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afferent sensory nerve impulse crosses to the other side of the spinal cord and stimulates muscles in the opposite limb (contralateral) or same side (ipsilateral)
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Hyperreflexive
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reaction with more force and more movement than normal.
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Hypoflexive
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Less than normal or absent reflex.
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Pupillary Light Reflex
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PLR, tests for reflex arc, normally both eyes constrict when light is shown in one.
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Know and be able to describe the surgical duties and responsibilities of a veterinary technician
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Scrub nurse: retraction of tissues, bone reduction, wound sponging, suction, and hemostasis. Circulating nurse: non-sterile circulating assistance. Requires knowledge of procedures, instruments, aseptic techniques, anticipation of surgeon’s needs.
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Know the specialized surgical instruments that are the most appropriate to have ready for exploratory abdominal surgeries or intra-abdominal surgeries.
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Balfour retractor, sterile laparotomy sponges, heated lavage fluids, suction.
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Know the most appropriate position in which to place a patient that is about to undergo an exploratory abdominal surgery
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Dorsal recumbancy for a ventral midline approach.
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What is the most appropriate things a technician can to do to insure an animal’s exposed organs are kept moist and hydrated with during an abdominal exploratory surgery?
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Moisten laparotomy sponges on either side of incision, exposed organs should be kept moist & covered with laparotomy sponges, gloves/sponges should be moistened when handling exposed viscera.
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Know what the linea alba is and why it is important in insuring the integrity of an abdominal closure
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Sheet of fibrous connective tissue that connects abdominal muscles from each side on the ventral line. It provides strength for the closure.
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Know the various types of intestinal obstructions described in the Tear text that can occur
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Foreign body obstructions, masses.
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Know the most appropriate suture materials that are used for enterotomies
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. 3-0 PDS (gastric mucosa/seromuscular, subcutaneous), 2-0 PDS (Linea Alba), 3-0 Monocryl (subcuticular layer), Skin staples.
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Corneal Reflex
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The animal blinks or retracts the cornea when the cornea is touched.
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resting membrane potential
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electrical difference in charges across a membrane.
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cell resting state
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when a neuron is not being stimulated.
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cellular polarization
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2 distinct pole of ions are on either side of the membrane - potassium on one, sodium on another.
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cellular depolarization
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opening of the sodium channels & sudden influx of sodium ions, resluts is loss of 2 distinct poles.
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repolarization
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sodium channels snap shut, potassium chambers open and K difuses out, causes cell to swing back to negative charge.
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Compared to unmediated axons, myelinated axons do what?
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Conduct impulses faster.
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Which surgerical instruments would be prepared for an enterotomy due to intestinal foreign onstruction?
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Doyen clamps
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What stage in the action potential immediately follows depolarization?
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Repolarization.
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During anastomosis the surgeon is most likely to ask the tech to do what just before suturing begins?
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Hold the two segments of the intestine in alignment.
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what is the different ion charge between inside and outside of a neuron at rest called?
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resting membrane potential.
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Where are neurotransmitters stored?
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synaptic vesicles
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What Cn is most responsible for innervating the GI tract?
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Vagus (X)
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When stimulated these receptors cause an increase in the rate and force of contraction of the heart.
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Beta-1 receptors
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Glycine
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an inhibitory neurotransmitter
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This receptor produces analgesia and sedation
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Alpha 2
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How many sodium and potassium ions does the sodium/potassium pump pump out for each ATP used to establish a resting membran potential.
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3 sodium, 2 potassium
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What chemical is the neurotransmitter for the preganglionic SNS?
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Acetylcholine
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What is a bundle of nerve fibers in the CNS called?
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A tract.
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What type of fibers are in the doral roots in the spinal cord
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sensory
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What are the 2 types of cholinergic receptors?
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nicitinic and mucarinic
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Name the 3 catecholamines
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Dopamine, norepinephrine, epinephrine.
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What is the neurotransmitter for postganglionic PNS?
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Acetylcholine
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What is the neurotransmitter for postganglionic SNS
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norepinephrine.
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In a healthy awake animal what is the main stimulus to breathe?
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An increased level of carbon dioxide in the arterial blood (Paco2) triggers the respiratory center of the brain to initiate inhalation.
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In a healthy awake animal, exhalation lasts at least how many times as long as inhalation?
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Twice.
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The normal tidal volume of an awake animal is how many, to how many. mL/kg?
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10-15 mL/kg.
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An anesthetist may expect to see what normal respiratory values in an anesthetized animal that is breathing room air?
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An increase in the Paco2 and a decrease in the Pao2
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When used in a line block, a local anesthetic agent will have a direct effect on which part of the nervous system?
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PNS
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Local anesthetics block transmission of nerve impulses from which kinds of neurons?
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Sensory, motor, and autonomic neurons
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What is the specific mode of action of anesthetic agents?
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They interfere with the movement of sodium ions.
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What is the name of the procedure when a local anesthetic is injected around a single major nerve?
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Infiltration nerve block.
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Does epinephrine prolong the effects of a local anesthetic when it mixed with the drug?
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Yes.
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How far caudally does the spinal cord of a cat extend?
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S1
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The maximum subcutaneous dose of lidocaine for a dog is how many mg/kg?
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10mg/kg
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When performing a Bier block the anesthetist should use which drug or combination of drugs?
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Lidocaine without epinephrine
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Be able to define the term atelectasis
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Collapse of the aveoli
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What is the most common acid-base abnormality in anesthetized patients?
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Respiratory acidosis.
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What should you do when intermittent mandatory manual ventilation is applied to a patient that is connected to a circle system with a vaporizer?
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Decrease the vaporizer setting
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What parameters can be used to monitor the anesthetic depth in a patient that has been given a neuromuscular blocking agent?
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Heart Rate
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Know and be able to identify the various nondepolarizing and depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents
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Lidocaine, Bupivacaine, mepivacaine, procaine, tetracaine, proparacaine
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What type of muscle is most affected by neuromuscular blocking agents?
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Skeletal muscle.
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What are the specific indications for the use of neuromuscular blocking agents?
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Tractable animals, general anesthesia is undesirable or high risk, means to deliver general anesthesia not available
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What is (are) the reversal agents of nondepolarizing and depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents?
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Reversal occurs as drug is absorbed into the local circulation.
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What specific problems may result from excessive controlled ventilation?
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Decreased cardiac output, a state of respiratory output, and ruptured aveoli
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Local anesthetic agents such as lidocaine or proparacaine work well when applied by which method(s)?
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Topically on mucous membranes, topically on the cornea, through injection.
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What are the clinical signs of systemic toxicity from a local anesthetic agent?
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Sedation, convulsions, muscle twitching, respiratory depression
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What is the name of the type of ventilation where the anesthetist delivers all of the air required by the patient, and the patient does not make any spontaneous respiratory efforts?
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Controlled ventiliation
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Know the effects and properties of nondepolarizing and depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents
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Nondepolarizing: no beginning surge of activity, blocks receptors at the end plates. Depolarizing: single surge of activity followed by a period where the end plate is refractory ot further stimulation.
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Know and be able to identify the specific drugs used a local anesthetics
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Lidocaine, Mepivacaine, tetracaine, bupivacaine, procaine
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Know and be able to describe what are, and are not, the pharmacological properties of local anesthetics
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Not general anesthetics, target PNS, not sedative, relatively few effects on cardiovascular and respiratory systems, exert effects closest to site of injection, not normally transferred across placenta.
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In which circumstances and situations must the anesthetist ensure that an increased volume of air, or more commonly, oxygen and anesthetic gasses is delivered to the patient, although the patient initiates each inspiration?
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During assisted ventilation.
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What would happen if a local anesthetic is injected as far cranially as the cervical region?
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Serious toxicity and death.
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hypercarbia
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breakdown of co2 to bicarbonate ions and hydrogen ions, which can lead to respiratory acidosis.
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Hypoxemia
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Relating to less oxygen entering the lungs to be absorbed into the blood.
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Atelectasis
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Decreased Vt so aveoli don’t fully expand on inhalation, which can lead to partial collapse of the aveoli in some section os the lung.
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Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking reversal agents may have the undesirable side effects of bradycardia and increased bronchial and salivary sections. What pharmaceutical would be the most indicated at preventing those specific side effects?
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Atropine or glycopyrrolate.
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Mechanical ventilators can be used with which specific anesthetic systems and patients?
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Circle breathing system. Animals undergoing a thoractomy or other lengthy surgery.
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Which drugs may alter the potency of neuromuscular blocking agents?
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Inhalant anesthetics, organophospate insecticides
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When properly set, a mechanical ventilator should precisely provide what ventilatory effects and parameters to a patient?
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6-12 breaths/min., inspiration 1-1.5 seconds, expiration 2-6 seconds, if pressure cycled: 12cm – 20cm
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What are the specific types of mechanical ventilators?
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Pressure-cycled, time-cycled, volume-cycled.
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What is the recommended ventilation pressure for small animals with a closed chest?
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<20cm H2O.
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What is the recommended ventilation pressure for large animals with a closed chest?
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<40cmH2O
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What local anesthetic should not be used for IV regional anesthesia as it can cause cardiotoxicity after the tourniquet is released.
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Bupivacaine.
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When performing epidural injections in the dog, the epidural needle is placed between which two vertebrae?
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L7 and the sacrum
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Paravertebral anesthesia is preformed on the dorsal and ventral roots of which spinal nerves in cattle?
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T13 - L2, along with L3-L4 if paralumbar required
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What is the name of the combination of 2.5% lidocaine and 2.5% prilocaine that can be applied to the skin to desensitize it for superficial minor procedures?
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EMLA
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Which specialized surgical instruments are used for OHE’s?
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spay hooks
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Which significant complications should the technician be most aware of after an animal has been spayed and is in the recovery cage?
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Intra-abdominal hemorrhage.
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Know the indications for Cesarean sections, the basic surgical procedure, and what roles the veterinary technician will play in the operation
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Dystocia.
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What are the appropriate items and pharmaceuticals for a veterinary technician to have prepared and ready before cesarean delivery of neonates?
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Small soft tissue pack, extra hemostats, towels, naloxone, doxapram, epinephrine, suture and scissors, infant suction bulb.
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Which of the anatomic structures should be examined and palpated before an anesthetic agent is administered to a patient undergoing a neuter?
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testicles
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Know the indications for, and the possible complications from, castrations.
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To prevent roaming, aggressive behavior, marking, tx of neoplasia, abcess or trauma. Complications: hemorrhage and scrotal hematoma.
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What things can be done to control post surgical hemorrhage from a castration
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Cold compresses.
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Know the specific signs, symptoms, and indications for cystotomies.
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Removal of bladder stones indicated by hematauria, stranguria, dysuria, pollikiuria.
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What are the most appropriate diagnostic studies to perform when an animal is presented for possible bladder stones?
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Abdominal radiographs.
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True of flase: Epinpephrine may be mixed with a local anesthetic to prolong the effect of the frug.
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True
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True or false. Both depolarizing and nondepolarizing drugs can be reversed by atimpamizole.
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false.
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A dog comes into the clinic with open pyometra. In addition to septicema what else is the dog likely to have?
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endotoxemia
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Open reduction
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sx opening and exposure to realign a facture or joint.
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non-union
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failure of fractured bone to unite.
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HOD hypertrophic oesteodystrophy
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disruption of metaphyseal trabeculae in loong bones of young rapdily growing dogs.
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external coaption
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application of external appliance such as splint or cast.
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Ehmer sling
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hip luxation
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spica splint
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hemerol or femoral fx
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Velpeau sling
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scapular fx
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Grade 1 fx
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small puncture hole, borke no longer visible, minimal soft tissue damage.
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Grade 2 Fx
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larger puncture hols, more external tissue damage
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Grade 3 Fx
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large tears.loss of skin at area of impact, extensive damage, (shearing injuries)
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articular fx
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physeal fx involve a joint AKA Salter-Harris fx.
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Y and T fx
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involve distal aspects of humerus
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Idiopathic pain
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pain of no identifiable cause
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Pathologic pain
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pain that occurs after tissue injury
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Somatic pain
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pain originating from the musculoskeletal system
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Visceral pain
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pain originating from the organs
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Preemptive analgesia
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providing analgesia before tissue injury.
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What is the process by which thermal, mechanical, or chemical noxious stimuli are converted into electrical signals?
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Tranduction
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What is the process in the spinal cord by pain impulses can be altered by neurons that either suppress or amplify nerve impulses?
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Modulation.
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Where in the pain pathway does secondary sensitization or windup occur?
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Spinal cord.
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Know and understand the processes for administering multimodal analgesic therapy.
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Using multiple drugs to target 2 or more pain receptors which will lower dosages, decrease adverse effects and improve safety.
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Know the specific drug combinations that will produce multimodal analgesic therapy.
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Acetaminophen and codeine, fentanyl and meloxicam, morphine and injectable meloxicam or carprofen; MLK
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Know the potential side effects of opioid administration in cats and dogs.
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Increase in GI activity: vomiting, nausea, defecation, then a slow down in GI activity.
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Know the mechanism of action of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs.
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Inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, inactivate enzyme COX.
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Know the potential side effects of NSAID administration
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Acetaminophen toxic in cats. NSAIDs toxic in animals that are dehydrated or hypotensive. GI issues: stomach ulceration. Renal toxicity, impaired platelet aggregation, liver damage, antagonize cardia meds: ACE inhibitors, and some diuretics.
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What would, and would not, be a possible consequence of untreated pain in a patient.
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A catabolic state (wasting), immune response suppression, increased inflammation, high anesthetic risk, patient suffering.
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Know and be able to identify pain related physiological changes in patients
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Cardiovascular: hypertension, tachycardia, tachyarrythmia, pale mucosae. Respiratory: tachypnea, shallow breathing, panting (dogs), open mouthed breathing (cats). Opthmalmic: mydriasis.
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Be able to identify which pharmaceuticals are classified as opioids
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Morphine, hydromorphone, oxymorphone, methadone, meperidine, fentanyl, buprenorphine, butorphanol, pentazocaine
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Be able to identify which pharmaceuticals are classified as alpha-2 adrenoceptor agonists
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Xylazine, dexmedetomidine, detomide, romifidine
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Be able to identify which pharmaceuticals are classified as COX-1 selective NSAIDs.
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Aspirin, acetaminophen, flunixin meglumine, ketoprofen, ketorolac, phenybutazone, piroxicam.
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Be able to identify which pharmaceuticals are classified as nonopiate mu-receptor analgesics
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Tramadol
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Which drug is a weak analgesic and sedative that can be used as a reversal agent for opioid agonists? (It is a kappa agonist and a mu antagonist.)
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Butorphanol
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All NSAIDs are metabolized and conjugated by which organ, and then eliminated by which two systems?
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Liver then eliminated by kidneys the GI tract.
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Which opioid is commonly used in a transdermal patch to provide analgesia at home for long periods of time?
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Fentanyl
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Know the signs, symptoms, and treatments for aural hematomas
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Hematoma in auricular cartilage in ear. Treatment: incision drainage,
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Know the signs, symptoms, and treatments for chronic otitis
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Treatment: Lateral canal resection. Good at home care – cleaning, analgesics
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Know the signs, symptoms, and treatments for lateral ear canal resections
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Chronic otitis externa or neoplasia
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Know the signs, symptoms, and treatments for entropions. Rolling in of the eyelid.
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Signs: alcrimation, blesparospasm, photophobia, enopthalmos, conjunctivitis, keratitis. Eye-tacking or Holtz-Celsus procedure
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What specialized surgical instruments are needed for entropion repairs?
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Eye speculum, chalazion forceps, half-curved forceps, Jaegar lid plate, tenotomy scissors, needle holders.
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