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22 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1) Which of the following statements concerning fermentation pathways is TRUE?
a) Exogenous electron acceptors are used
b) Its most direct purpose is to oxidize NADH
c) Its most direct purpose is to produce ATP
d) Only prokaryotes can accomplish fermentation
e) It requires oxidative phosphorylation to function correctly
b
2) Which of the following statements concerning oxidative phosphorylation is TRUE?
a) Proton motive force is used to synthesize ATP by substrate level phosphorylation
b) It requires an electronic transport chain
c) It is less efficient at producing ATP than is glycolysis
d) It requires O2 as the terminal electron acceptor
B
3) Which of the following statements concerning glycolysis is FALSE?
a) Breaks down sugars to pyruvate and related intermediates
b) Provides energy by substrate level phosphorylation
c) Requires oxidative phosphorylation
d) Produces ATP and NADH
e) Is used by both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
C
4) Which of the following statements concerning peptidoglycan synthesis is FALSE?
a) The pentapeptide is synthesized by ribosomes and tRNAs
b) The pentapeptide is added to NAM in the cytoplasm
c) If an interbridge is required, it is added to the repeat unit within the membrane
d) Bactoprenol does not leave the membrane
e) Transpeptidation is the final step in peptidoglycan synthesis
A
5) Which of the following molecules could be used as an energy source by a chemolithotroph?
a) O2
b) Pyruvate
c) Ethanol
d) SO42-
e) Fe2+
E
6) Which of the following statements concerning bacterial transcription is TRUE?
a) A single type of RNA polymerase holoenzyme transcribes all the genes encoded in the genome
b) The core enzyme composed of the five catalytic subunits is sufficient for transcription to occur
c) Transcription can occur from 5’ to 3’ or from 3’ to 5’
d) Ribosomes bind at promoters and the transcripts include the promoter region
e) Sigma factor is important for choosing the correct genes to be transcribed
E
7) An operator is:
a) An alternative name for the terminator of a gene
b) A DNA region that is bound by a repressor protein
c) A protein that coordinates gene expression
d) A DNA region that encodes a regulatory protein
e) DNA sequences that are recognized by the RNA polymerase
B
8) The arg operon in E. coli encodes the enzymes required for arginine biosynthesis. The expression of the arg operon is controlled by the ArgR repressor, which binds at an operator site near the promoter. Which of the following statements would you predict to describe the expression of the arg operon?
a) Expression is low in the presence of arginine because the ArgR repressor bound to arginine binds to the operator and prevents the recruitment of RNA polymerase to the promoter
b) Expression is high in the presence of arginine because the ArgR repressor cannot bind to the operator after it binds to arginine.
c) Expression is low in the absence of arginine because the ArgR repressor and arginine block the recruitment of RNA polymerase to the promoter
d) Expression is constantly high regardless whether arginine is present or not because arginine is essential for bacterial growth.
A
9) Which of the following best describes the different mechanisms of Horizontal Gene Transfer?
a) Transformation is sensitive to the presence of extracellular proteases
b) Conjugation is sensitive to the presence of extracellular RNases
c) Transduction is sensitive to the presence of extracellular DNases
d) Transformation is sensitive to the presence of extracellular DNases
D
12) Which of the following concerning Hfr conjugation is TRUE?
a) The recipient is converted to F+ at very high efficiency
b) The complete F factor is always integrated into the recipient’s chromosomal DNA
c) The donor’s chromosomal DNA is never transferred to the recipient
d) All of the donor’s genes are transferred with equal efficiency to the recipient
e) Part of the donor’s chromosomal DNA is transferred to the recipient at high efficiency
E
13) Which of the following statements concerning generalized transduction is TRUE?
a) The transducing phage particle contains only phage DNA
b) Transducing phage particles are only produced from lysogenic phage
c) Genes that are close together in the donor chromosome are more likely to be transduced together to the recipient cell than genes that are further apart
d) The transducing phage particle always produces phage progeny upon infection of the recipient
C
14) Which of the following statements concerning chemotaxis in E. coli is FALSE?
a) Once an attractant is sensed, E. coli swims continuously towards the highest concentration of attractant without changing the direction of swimming
b) It involves a sensor kinase complex that transduces the signal of attractant binding to the cell
c) It involves a phosphorelay system
d) The concentration gradient is determined by comparing attractant binding and methylation level of the MCPs
e) It involves a response-regulator protein that that can cause the flagellar motor to change the direction of rotation
A
15) Which of the following is FALSE concerning quorum sensing in the bioluminescent bacterium Vibrio fischeri?
a) The existing transcriptional regulator LuxR is activated once it binds to the autoinducer AHL.
b) The expression of LuxI is induced by activated LuxR, which eventually leads to more LuxI enzymes and the production of more AHL.
c) When a few cells of V. fischeri are inoculated to the supernatant from a dense culture of V. fischeri, the lux operon of these few cells will be turned on
d) Molecules of AHL autoinducer produced by one cell can only activate the LuxR in that particular cell
D
16) When glucose and lactose are both present at high levels in the growth medium for E. coli, which of the statements about the lac operon is TRUE?
a) The lac repressor binds to allolactose and does not bind to the lac operator, the cAMP level is low, CAP does not bind to the activator binding site, and transcription of the lac operon is off.
b) The lac repressor binds to allolactose and the operator, the cAMP level is low, CAP binds to the activator binding site, and transcription of the lac operon is off.
c) The lac repressor binds to allolactose and the operator, the cAMP level is low, CAP binds to the activator binding site, and transcription of the lac operon is on.
d) The lac repressor binds to allolactose and it does not bind to the operator, the cAMP level is high, CAP does not bind to the activator binding site, and transcription of the lac operon is off.
A
18) The stage of the Plasmodium vivax parasite that infects red blood cells
a) Gametocyte
b) Merozoite
c) Oocyst
d) Schizont
e) Sporozoite
B
19) This form of the parasite must be transferred from the animal host to the mosquito host to allow sexual reproduction to occur
a) Gametocyte
b) Merozoite
c) Oocyst
d) Schizont
e) Sporozoite
A
20) The form of the parasite transferred from the mosquito to the animal host
a) Gametocyte
b) Merozoite
c) Oocyst
d) Schizont
e) Sporozoite
E
21) Where in the mosquito host does asexual reproduction of Plasmodium vivax occur?
a) Salivary glands
b) Hemolymph (the insect analog of blood)
c) Gut
d) Malpighian tubules
e) Oviduct
C
22) During sexual reproduction of Paramecium, which type of nucleus goes through meiosis to produce haploid pronuclei?
a) Micronucleus
b) Macronucleus
A
23) During growth and asexual reproduction of Paramecium, which type of nucleus contains "mini-chromosomes" that carry only one or two genes?
a) Micronucleus
b) Macronucleus
B
24) An organelle that helps Paramecium to escape predation.
a) Trichocyst
b) Pellicle
c) Alveoli
d) Apical complex
e) Microneme
A
25) Chloroplasts are thought to have evolved from a bacterial ancestor that belonged to which group of bacteria?
a) Proteobacteria
b) Firmicutes
c) Ciliates
d) Cyanobacteria
e) Dinoflagellates
D