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25 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1) Which of the statements below does NOT explain why enzymes needed for fungal cell wall biosynthesis are considered good targets for developing drugs to treat fungal infections in humans.
a) Fungal and bacterial cell walls contain the same components so a single drug can be used to treat both fungal and bacterial infections
b) Human cells do not have cell walls, so there is less potential for adverse side effects
c) The cell wall is vital for maintaining cell integrity for both bacteria and fungi
d) Weakened cell walls make cells susceptible to lysis in hypotonic environments
A
2) Which of the following statements does NOT describe a characteristic of fungi?
a) Fungi secrete degradative enzymes
b) The plasma membranes of fungi contain transport proteins for the uptake of small molecules
c) Fungi reproduce only asexually
d) Fungi lack chlorophyll
e) Production of spores
C
3) Arbuscular mycorrhizal fungi live in association with plant roots and develop a cooperative symbiotic relationship with the plant. Which of the following is a nutrient(s) that the plant might obtain from the fungus?
a) Nitrogen in the form of nitrate (NO32-) or ammonia (NH3)
b) Cellulose from the fungal cell wall
c) Lipids
d) CO2
e) ATP
A
4) Which of the following molecules is a major component of fungal cell walls?
a) Peptidoglycan
b) Glycogen
c) Chitin
d) All of the above molecules are commonly found in fungal cell walls
e) None of the above molecules are commonly found in fungal cell walls
C
5) The definition of a dimorphic fungus is:
a) A fungal species that has only two mating types
b) A fungal species where individuals of different mating types have different morphologies
c) A fungal species that produces both septate and nonseptate hyphae
d) A fungal species that produces both mitotic and meiotic spores
e) A fungal species that can grow as either a yeast or a mold
E
6) An example of a dimorphic fungus is:
a) Candida albicans
b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
c) Agaricus bisporus (the common mushroom)
d) Streptomyces coelicolor
A
7) Which type of virus would you expect to have the higher frequency of mutations per generation?
a) Viruses with a DNA genome
b) Viruses with an RNA genome
B
8) Which of the following types of animal viruses might enter host cells by receptor-mediated endocytosis?
a) Only non-enveloped viruses
b) Only enveloped viruses
c) Both enveloped and non-enveloped viruses
C
9) Viruses may have what type(s) of nucleic acid for their genomes?
a) Either DNA or RNA
b) Only DNA
c) Only RNA
A
10) Which of the following would NOT be found in all viruses?
a) Lipid bilayer derived from host cell
b) Nucleic acid genome
c) A coat formed from multiple protein subunits that surrounds the genome
A
11) The genome of a single-strand RNA virus is sequenced. When read 5' to 3', the open reading frames that code for viral proteins are found in the sequence. This virus would be designated a:
a) plus-sense RNA viruses
b) negative-sense RNA viruses
A
12) How do most bacteriophage gain entry to host cells?
a) Degradation of a portion of the peptidoglycan cell wall followed by fusion of the viral envelope with the cell’s plasma membrane
b) Receptor-mediated endocytosis
c) The genome is injected into the cytoplasm and the capsid remains attached to the surface of the host cell
d) All of the mechanisms described are used by bacteriophage
C
13) Infection of human tissue culture cells is blocked by pre-incubating virions of a human-adapted strain of influenza A with synthetic oligosaccharides that consist of alternating sialic acid and galactose residues. Based on this result, you would predict the sugars in the oligosaccharides are joined by what type of bond?
a) alpha-2,3-linkage
b) alpha-2,6-linkage
B
14) What would be the most direct effect on an influenza A infection of a compound that binds to the active site of the viral neuraminidase (NA) protein?
a) The virus would not escape from the endosome
b) Viral mRNAs would not be synthesized
c) Cell-to-cell spread of progeny virus within the infected host would be inefficient
d) Viral proteins would not be synthesized
e) There would be no effect because NA is not needed for viral reproduction
C
15) Which influenza A protein is needed for exiting the endosome, but is NOT required for entry of the virus into host cells?
a) Hemagglutinin (HA)
b) Matrix protein (M1)
c) NS1
d) Neuraminidase (NA)
e) M2 ion channel
E
16) All but one of the following viral components are found in virions of both Influenza A virus and HIV, which is NOT?
a) Viral envelope
b) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
c) Single-stranded RNA genome
d) Spike proteins
e) Nucleocapsid protein(s)
B
17) Prior to assembly of new virions, the genome segments of the influenza A virus must associate with newly synthesized molecules of the nucleocapsid protein (NP) and the RNA-dependent RNA polymerase. Where in the host cell does this occur?
a) Cytoplasm
b) At the plasma membrane
c) Endoplasmic reticulum
d) Endosome
e) Nucleus
E
18) What cell types can be infected by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
a) All white blood cells
b) All T cells
c) CD4+ T cells and macrophages
d) All macrophages
e) Both red and white blood cells
C
19) Which statement best explains what a provirus is?
a) A virion that has entered the host cell by endocytosis and is still inside the endosome
b) A newly assembled virion that has not yet been released from the host cell
c) A newly replicated viral genome that has not yet been packaged into a virion
d) The viral genome integrated into one of the chromosomes of the host cell
e) A virion that is bound to its receptor on a host cell, but is still outside the cell
D
20) One of the spike proteins of the HIV virus is:
a) gp120
b) Reverse Transcriptase
c) Integrase
d) Protease
e) Neuraminidase
A
21) Mutations that make the HIV virus resistant to nucleoside and nucleotide analogs would occur in the gene for which of the following proteins?
a) A subunit of the RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
b) Reverse Transcriptase
c) Integrase
d) Protease
e) gp120
B
22) The number of microbial cells colonizing the human body is estimated to be:
a) 1 to 10% the number of human cells
b) Equal to or greater than the number of human cells
B
23) The microbiome of a typical, healthy person contains organisms that belong to which of the following groups?
a) Members of the Bacteria and Archaea only
b) Members of the Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes
c) Members of the Bacteria and Eukaryotes, but no Archaea
d) Members of the Bacteria only
B
24) Metagenomics can be used to identify the microorganisms present in an environmental sample. Which of the following statements about metagenomics is accurate?
a) Metagenomics requires DNA sequencing
b) Metagenomics is based on the fact that the sequences of rRNA genes are conserved
c) Metagenomics uses PCR (polymerase chain reaction) to amplify rRNA genes
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
D
25) What parts of the human body are normally free of microorganisms?
a) Stomach
b) The conjunctiva of the eye
c) Ears
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
E