• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/168

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

168 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
50yo M with 25 pack/yr history presents with his second bout of pneumonia in the last 6mos. CXR reveals a lobar consolidation in the same location as the previous pneumonia. What is the next step?
CT scan of the chest (to investigate cancer)
What imaging study is used to diagnose a DVT?
compressive venous ultrasound
What radiographic study is used to diagnose injury to the urethra?
retrograde cystourethrogram
What are the symptoms of a basilar skull fracture?
- Raccoon eyes (periorbital bruising)
-Battle sign (bruising over mastoid process)
- Bleeding behind the TM
- CSF from the nose or ears
What is the DOC for trigeminal neuralgia?
Carbamazepine (SU pg 174)
What is the treatment for normal pressure hydrocephalus? What is the treatment for peudotumor cerebri?
Normal pressure hydrocephalus (SU pg 179): CSF shunt

Pseudotumor Cerebri (neuro handout):
- weight loss, acetozolamide
- serial lumbar punctures
- shunting of CSF
What is the treatment for Guillain-Barre syndrome?
either plasmapheresis or IVIG (SU pg 185)
How do you distinguish the Somogyi effect from the Dawn phenomenon?
Somogyi effect: 2-3am glucose will be LOW
Dawn phenomenon: 3am glucose with be HIGH
What type of immunodeficiency increases the risk of anaphylactic transfusion reaction?
IgA deficiency (SU pg 162)
Which antihypertensive class is first line in pts with no comorbidities?
thiazide diuretics (HCTZ, chlorthalidone)
Which antihypertensive class is first line in pts with diabetes?
ACE-I/ ARB
Which antihypertensives are needed in pts with heart failure?
ACE-I/ARB + Beta-blocker + Aldosterone Antagonist (Spironolactone)
Which antihypertensive class is first line in pts with BPH?
alpha blocker
Which antihypertensive class is first line in pts with left ventricular hypertrophy?
ACE-I/ ARB
Which antihypertensive class is first line in pts with hyperthyroidism?
beta-blocker (Propanolol)
Which antihypertensive class is first line in pts with Osteoporosis?
Thiazides (retain calcium)
Which antihypertensive class is first line in pts with benign essential tremor?
Beta-blocker
Which antihypertensive class is first line in post-menopausal females?
Thiazide diuretics (reduce risk of osteoporosis by retaining calcium)
Which antihypertensive class is first line in pts with migraines?
beta-blocker
What are the HACEK bacteria?
consider these bugs with culture negative endocarditis (SU pg 22):
Haemophilus
Actinobacillus
Cardiobacterium
Eikenella
Kingella
At what pt do pts with chronic COPD qualify for home O2?
(1) Pulse ox <88%
(2) Pulmonary Hypertension
(3) Peripheral Edema
(4) Polycythemia
What is the initial treatment of a localized non-small cell lung cancer?
Surgical resection (SU pg 45)
What's the likely bug & best tx?:
food poisoning as a result of mayonnaise sitting out too long
staph aureus - self limiting (just hydrate!)
What's the likely bug & best tx?:
rice-water stools
vibrio cholera (hydrate, tetracycline or doxycycline)
or ETEC (self-limiting)
What's the likely bug & best tx?:
diarrhea transmitted from pet feces
Yersinia enterocolitis (self-limiting, just hydrate!)
What's the likely bug & best tx?:
food poisoning resulting from reheated rice (Chinese food)
Bacillus cereus (self-limiting, hydrate!)
most common cause of traveler's diarrhea?
Enterotoxigenic E. Coli (ETEC) -self-limiting (just hydrate!)
What bug causes: diarrhea after a course of antibiotics? tx?
C diff - tx with Metronidazole or oral vancomycin
What's the likely bug & best tx?:
diarrhea after recent ingestion of water from a stream?
Giardia lamblia - tx with Metronidazole

Entamoeba Histolytica - tx with metronidazole or paromomycin

in both cases will see cysts & trophozoites in stool sample
What's the likely bug & best tx?:
mild intestinal infection that can become neurocysticercosis?
Taenia solium

tx: Praziquantel, corticosteroids if >5cysts
What's the likely bug & best tx?:
food poisoning from undercooked hamburger
Enterohemorrhagic E Coli (EHEC) (0157:H7)

This is self-limiting - just hydrate - DO NOT GIVE ANTIBIOTICS - they can worsen symptoms by leading to greater toxin release
What's the likely bug & best tx?:
diarrhea from seafood
Vibrio cholera (will have copious watery diarrhea - tx with hydration, tetracycline or doxy)

Vibrio parahemolytica (will have abd pain + watery diarrhea w/in 24hrs of eating seafood - self-limiting, just hydrate)
What's the likely bug & best tx?:
bloody diarrhea from poultry
Salmonella (self-limiting, unless immunosuppressed give fluoroquinolone)

Campylobacter (generally self-limiting, can give erythromycin)
What's the likely bug & best tx?
Diarrhea + pink eye
Adenovirus - just hydrate
What's the likely bug & best tx?:
Bloody diarrhea then liver abscess
Entamoeba histolytica - Metronidazole or paromomycin
What's the likely bug & best tx?:
Diarrhea in AIDS pt
Cryptosporidium (tx with nitazoxanide) or Isospora
What's the likely bug & best tx?:
dehydrated child with greenish diarrhea in winter months
rotavirus
What virus is assoc with gastroenteritis in cruise boat passengers?
Norwalk virus
What virus is assoc with gastroenteritis in the winter time?
Rotavirus
What is the tx for clostridium difficile infection?
oral or IV metronidazole
oral vancomycin
After examining a pt with C diff, how should you wash your hands?
clean with soap & water
A pt has bloody diarrhea following ingestion of ground beef. What sequela is he at risk for developing?
EHEC (0157:H7) can cause Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS) characterized by:
(1) Hemolytic anemia
(2) thrombocytopenia
(3) acute renal failure
What pathogen is likely responsible for a pt that ate some egg salad made with mayonnaise that had been sitting out at a party for hrs and subsequently began vomiting several hrs later?
Staph Aureus - self-limiting
A family went camping and developed greasy, foul-smelling diarrhea. What is the likely pathogen?
Giardia Lamblia - tx with Metronidazole
Trophozoites and cysts are seen in the stool sample of a pt with bloody diarrhea. What is the likely pathogen, and what is the likely source?
Entamoeba histolytica (note that this bug can invade the intestinal wall and lead to bloody diarrhea)

Transmitted via contaminated water
Tx: Metronidazole or paromomycin
how does the treatment for cure of Hep B differ than that for Hep C?
Hep B tx: Interferon-α (standard or pegylated) or antiviral (Lamivudine, adefovir, entecavir, or telbivudine)

Hep C tx: pegylated interferon + ribavirin
Clinically, what differentiates HBV surface antibody from HBV core antibody?
HBV surface Ab: indicates resolved HBV or former vaccine

HBV core Ab: indicates resolved HBV
What test results would you expect for someone with resolved HBV infection? if they had the former HBV vaccine?
resolved infection will have BOTH (+) HbS Ab and (+) HbC Ab

Former vaccine: (+) HbS Ab only
What does it mean if a pt has HBV core antibodies, but no HBV surface antibodies or HBV surface antigen?
Has Hep B infection, during "window" period
How can you differentiate chronic HBV infection with a good prognosis (because of less viral replication) from that with a worse prognosis?
HBV e antigen indicates infectivity & will be present in the patient with worse prognosis
What is a common vector for Hep A virus?
shellfish
Which hepatitis virus confers an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma?
HBV (3-5% risk of hepatocellular carcinoma)
Which hepatitis virus confers a high risk of chronic hepatitis?
- Hep C - 80% become chronic
- Hep B - 5% of adults become chronic

note: Hep A & E do NOT cause chronic hepatitis
What anatomical structures does a Barium swallow highlight?
Esophagus, LES, and stomach
What anatomical structures does a gastric emptying study highlight?
stomach, pyloric sphincter, and duodenuma
What anatomical structures does a small bowel follow through (SBFT) highlight?
stomach to the terminal ileum
What anatomical structures does a barium enema highlight?
colon & appendix
What is the difference btw mallory-weiss and Boarhaave's syndrome?
MW: longitudinal mucosal laceration of distal esophagus & prox stomach (minor injury)

Boerhaave's: esophageal perforation or rupture of distal esophagus (life-threatening injury)
How does the treatment for diffuse esophageal spasm differ from that of achalasia?
(SU pg 60)
DES: medical therapy (Nifedipine, Nitrates, TCAs)

Achalasia: intervention such as dilation, botox, myotomy or meds (Nifedipine, Nitrates)
Pt c/o chest pain + dysphagia
manometry shows uncoordinated esophageal contractions
barium swallow shows "corkscrew" pattern
Diffuse esophageal spasm (DES) - a neuromuscular disorder in which nonperilstaltic contractions of the esophagus occur
Pt c/o dysphagia of solids & liquids, regurgitation, cough
manometry shows incomplete LES relaxation
Barium swallow shows "bird's beak" sign
Diagnosis? next step?
Dx: Achalasia
Next step: EGD to r/o malignancy
Pt has bad breath & regurgitation of food eaten days ago
barium swallow shows outpouching
Zenker diverticulum - an outpouching in the upper esophagus caused by smooth muscle weakness

Tx: cricopharyngeal myotomy or diverticulectomy
What are the initial steps in treatment of GERD?
weight loss
elevate the head of the bed
dietary changes
Besides the sensation of "heart burn" what is a common symptom of GERD?
persistent cough
What is Barrett's esophagus? Why is it important?
Definition: normal squamous epithelium has undergone columnar transformation

Can lead to adenocarcinoma
Which type of esophageal cancer is most prevalent in the US?
adenocarcinoma
Which medicines are the most effective in combating GERD?
PPIs
What are the different types of esophageal diverticula and their locations?
(1) Zenker - immediately above the upper esophageal sphincter (UES)
(2) Traction - near the midpt of the esophagus
(3) Epiphrenic - just above the lower esophageal sphincter (LES)
What is the tx for entamoeba histolytica?
Metronidazole
What is the tx for Giardia Lamblia?
Metronidazole
What is the tx for salmonella?
Fluoroquinolones
What is the tx for shigella?
Fluoroquinolones or TMP-SMX (Bactrim)
What is the tx for campylobacter?
Erythromycin
What type of current or past Hep B exposure in pt with:
(-) Heb BsAg
(-) Hep BsAb
(+) Hep BcAb
acute infection
What type of current or past Hep B exposure in pt with:
(+) Heb BsAg
(-) Hep BsAb
(+) Hep BcAb
chronic infection
What type of current or past Hep B exposure in pt with:
(-) Heb BsAg
(+) Hep BsAb
(-) Hep BcAb
vaccinated
What type of current or past Hep B exposure in pt with:
(-) Heb BsAg
(+) Hep BsAb
(+) Hep BcAb
Recovered
What is the treatment for Hep C virus infection?
pegylated interferon (INFα) + ribavirin
What is the next step after H&P in the work-up of a pt c/o dysphagia?
Barium swallow
How can active H. pylori be diagnosed?
- urea breath test
- H. pylori stool antigen
- EGD with biopsy
- serum antibodies
What is the treatment regimen for eradication for H. Pylori infection?
PPI + clarithromycin + metronidazole or amoxicillin
What are the key differences in symptoms of a gastric ulcer vs duodenal ulcer?
Gastric ulcer = pain soon after eating, worsens with eating

Duodenal ulcer (more common) = pain 2-4hrs postprandial, initial improvement with eating
Name 2 big risk factors for peptic ulcer disease (PUD)
(1) H. pylori
(2) Chronic NSAID use
What are 2 major complications that can occur with PUD?
(1) Bleeding (melena, hematochezia, etc)
(2) Perforation
What quick & easy study may reveal a perforation? What specifically are you looking for?
Upright Abdominal xray - you will be able to see air in cavity
What are some physical signs of a bleeding ulcer?
- coffee ground emesis
- hematomesis
- hematochezia
- melena
What is the tumor marker to look for in gastric cancer?
CEA
Where is Virchow's node?
left supraclavicular node
Where is sister mary Joseph's node?
Periumbilical node
What are the most common causes of acute pancreatitis in the US?
"BAD HITS"
Biliary (Gallstones) - #1 cause
Alcohol #2 cause
Drugs
Hypertriglyceridemia & calcemia
Idiopathic
Trauma
Scorpion sting
Pancreatitis can cause bluish skin discoloration in what two locations? What are the names of these signs?
Periumbilical eccymosis - Cullen's sign

Flank ecchymosis - Grey Turner's sign
If pancreatitis is due to gallstone obstruction of the pancreatic duct, what should be done after the pancreatitis has passed?
cholecystectomy
What is a likely cause for pancreatic pseudocyst?
previous pancreatitis
What is the tumor marker most useful in the diagnosis of pancreatic cancer?
CA 19-9
What procedure is performed to treat an isolated cancerous tumor in the head of the pancreas?
SU pg 79
Whipple procedure - Pancreaticoduodenectomy (remove head of pancreas, distal stomach, gall bladder, common bile duct, duodenum, prox jejunum)
What test would confirm the diagnosis in a pt with >3L/day of watery diarrhea?
Serum VIP level

Dx: VIPoma (VIP-producing tumor) of the non-β-islet cells
What are the possible complications that can arise after partial gastrectomy for recurrent gastric ulcers?
(1) Dumping (20%) - postprandial GI discomfort including N/V, diarrhea, cramps, diaphoresis, palpitations, flushing
(2) alkaline reflux gastritis (2%) - burning epigastric pain & nausea exacerbated by meals
(3) early satiety
(4) deficiencies of B12, iron and/or calcium
(5) Afferent & efferent loop syndromes (after Billroth II) - epigastric pain & bilious vomiting due to obstruction of the duodenal limb
Who are candidates for obesity surgery?
BMI >40 or BMI >35 with high risk comorbid conditions (DM, OSA, obesity-related cardiomyopathy, severe joint disease)
What benefits can be expected from surgical therapies for obesity?
sustained weight loss (usually 30-50%)
reduction or cure of DM
improvement in dyslipidemia
reduction or cure of HTN
reduced mortality (40-60% at 5-7 yrs)
What needs to be done with pt prior to bariatric surgery?
must be referred to psychiatry for evaluation of freq overeating to cope with stress/emotional distress, a current eating disorder, or uncontrolled psychiatric disorders
note: depression & suicide may increase in the first year after surgery - need to monitor closely
What is the preferred bariatric surgery?
Laparoscopic gastric banding ("lap band"): silicone band is placed around the upper part of the stomach to induce feeling of satiety

usually OR time 1 hr, can return to work in 1wk
What are complications of lap gastric banding?
nutritional defiencies (iron, Vit D)
GERD

reoperation required in 13% for band reposition, removal, or revision
What is the most common bariatric surgery in the US?
Gastric bypass (Roux-en-Y)
What are the possible complications of gastric bypass?
operative mortality (0-1.5%)
anastomotic leakage (2%)
wound infection (8%)
incisional hernia (15-30%)
HYQ: An EGD with biopsy in a 65yo M reveals gastric cancer. What is the next step in management?
CT scan of abdomen and pelvis
HYQ: What is the next step in the management of a pt with recurrent duodenal ulcers seen on at least two EGDs?
serum gastrin level

think Zollinger Ellison Syndrome
HYQ: What is the most effective tx of a duodenal ulcer not due to ZE syndrome?
triple therapy for H. pylori

PPI + Clarithromycin + Metronidazole or amoxicillin
HYQ: What Chem 7 lab abnormality is often elevated in pts with an upper GI bleed?
increased BUN
What are Ranson's criteria in determining prognosis of pts with acute pancreatitis?
On admission: "GA LAW"
Glucose >200
AST >250
LDH >350
Age >55
WBC >16,000

<48hrs "Calvin & HOBBES"
Calcium <8
Hematocrit ↓ >10%
O2 arterial (PaO2) <60
↑ BUN >5
Base deficit >4
Sequestration of fluid >6L
What is the treatment for gastric cancer?
Distal 1/3 = subtotal gastrectomy + chemo/radiation

Middle/upper stomach = total gastrectomy + chemo/radiation
What is the most sensitive and specific lab test for the diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis?
low fecal elastase level
What is the treatment for chronic pancreatitis?
stop alcohol consumption
replace pancreatic enzymes
control pain
You suspect your patient has gastric cancer. During the exam you palpate in two places for enlarged lymph nodes associated with this disease. Where will you palpate and what are the names of these enlarged nodes?
Left supraclavicular node - Virchows node
Periumbilical - Sister Mary Joseph's node
A female pt has a known duodenal ulcer that has been refractory to high-dose PPI therapy. What two tests may diagnose her disease
think ZE syndrome

(1) fasting serum gastrin level
(2) positive secretin-stimulation test
WTQ: 45yo policeman presents to your office c/o tiredness & sleepiness. He says that his job seems tiring to him recently. It is difficult for him to get up in the morning and go to work. He goes to bed early b/c he feels tired & sleepy. 2mos ago, he was investigating a case of mass murder. He slipped on the blood on the floor, fell and hit his head. He also describes recent abdominal pain that is constant and gnawing, interfering with his sleep. His appetite is poor, he lost 15lbs over the last month. Exam is significant only for tenderness and fullness in the epigastrium. What's the likely dx?
Dx: Pancreatic Cancer

you missed this question, thinking he had a subdural hematoma from his fall - READ CAREFULLY, you ignored all the abd signs!!

notes: Pancreatic cancer classically presents insidiously with a combination of constant visceral epigastric pain radiating to the back, jaundice due to extrahepatic biliary obstruction and anorexia with weight loss.
which study design:
Identifies TWO groups: diseased group & healthy group. Retrospectively compares them. Weakened by recall & selection bias
Case control study
which study design:
Seeks to estimate disease prevalence & exposure across a population
Cross-sectional survey
which study design:
Examines a collection of studies on a given subject
Meta-analysis
which study design:
Prospective blinded study involving placebos, existing therapies, and experimental interventions
Randomized control trial
which study design:
Focuses on ONE group with shared exposure or disease & either prospectively or retrospectively compares them
Cohort study
which study design:

Examines a collection of cases to seek insight into disease of interest.
Useful in rare diseases
Case series
Which type of bias:
Memory errors produce incorrect data
Recall bias
Which type of bias:
Subject awareness of being studied alters their answers and behavior from normal
Observational bias
Which type of bias:
Certain medical studies attract subjects with particular medical histories rather than general population
Self-selection bias
Which type of bias:
Studies that show a difference are preferably published & then later included in meta-analysis rather than studies that support the null hypothesis
Publication bias
Which type of bias:
Screening tests designed to detect asymptomatic disease may miss rapidly progressive disease because the interval btw successive screenings only detects slowly progressive ones
Length-time bias
Which type of bias:
Screening test may allow earlier diagnosis of disease but does not translate into actual length of survival
Lead-time bias
What does an odds ratio estimate in the case of a disease with low prevalence?
Relative risk
Live births/ 1000 population
Birth rate
Live births/1000 population of women 15-45 yr
Fertility rate
Deaths / 1000 population
Death rate
Neonatal deaths (first 28 days of life)/ 1000 live births
Neonatal mortality rate
Neonatal deaths + still births/ 1000 total births
Perinatal mortality rate
Deaths (from 0-1 yo)/ 1000 live births
Infant mortality rate
Maternal pregnancy- related deaths (deaths while pregnant or in first 42 days after delivery)/ 1000 live births
Maternal mortality rate
what is Attributable risk (AR)?
AR= incidence of disease in the exposed group – incidence of disease in the unexposed group
Example: in a population of smokers, 5% have pneumonia. In a population of non-smokers, only 1% has pneumonia. The attributable risk of smoking to pneumonia is 4%
what is Number Needed to Treat (NNT)?
NNT = 1/ absolute risk reduction (ARR)
Number of patients you would need to treat in order to save/ affect one life
Important number to help determine if a drug should be used or is cost-effective
Example: if out of 10,000 pts that took t-PA during a STEMI, 100 were saved by the t-PA then the NNT is 100. In other words, you would need to treat 100 pts in order to save/affect 1 life
what is Confidence interval?
A range of values in which the examiner can be (90%, 95%, 99%) confident that the value obtained from the study truly reflects reality
The confidence interval rand = mean +/- (Z x SEM)
If a 90% confidence interval is desired, then use Z = 1.645
95% → Z = 1.96
99% → Z = 2.57
What is the absolute risk reduction (ARR) in the following? Pt group A given β-blockers after MI had 66% survival, and pt group B not given β-blockers had 50% survival.
ARR = 15%
What is a null hypothesis?
Assumes that a particular exposure has no effect on the disease
What is type I error?
Null hypothesis is rejected even though it is true
What is type II error?
A false null hypothesis is accepted as truth
A study shows that taking 325mg of aspirin a day has no effect on ischemic cardiac events. What type of error is this?
Type II error
What is the formula for positive predictive value (PPV)?
A/ A + B
What is the formula for negative likelihood ratio (NLR)?
(1-sensitivity) / specificity
What is the number needed to treat (NNT) if an intervention offers an absolute risk reduction (ARR) of 15?
NNT = 1/15
What is most imp in a screening test? In a confirmatory test?
Screening → high sensitivity
Confirmatory → high specificity
HYQ: The mother of an adolescent boy wants you to ask her son (your patient) if he is gay. How do you proceed?
Tell the mother you are happy to talk to her son but you will respect confidentiality if her son wants it to remain confidential
HYQ: A teenage boy wants to ask you some questions about masturbation. What should this discussion entail?
Tell them masturbation is common, dispel myths (won’t lead to pregnancy, STDs…)
HYQ: The family of a malnourished elderly woman with multiple chronic medical problems, who resides in a local nursing home, asks you for advice on options to feed her. What ethical factors need to be considered?
Is she competent? Are the options medically futile?
What are the 4 elements of a malpractice claim?
Duty of care: a legal obligation to conform to a reasonable standard of care
Breech of duty: failure to conform to the standard of care
Harm: injury or harm to the plaintiff
Causation: the breech of duty was the legal cause of the injury or harm
HYQ: What are the 2 ways that the standard of care can be established in a malpractice case?
Expert testimony
Res Ipas Loquitur
A surgical sponge is left behind in patient’s abdomen following a laparotomy. The hospital, surgeon, the scrub nurse, and the circulating nurses are all named in the subsequent malpractive suit. The surgeon claims that the scrub nurse is responsible for making sure that the sponge count was correct. Does this free him from legal liability?
NO – supervisors are held responsible for subordinates (viscarious liability)
What must be communicated to a pt in order for him to be considered informed to give consent?
What the procedure/ therapy offered is & why it is indicated
What is hoped to be gained by intervention
Risks associated with intervention
Other options & their benefits
When is it OK to withhold information from a pt?
Never (almost)
Where is euthanasia legal?
No where in the US (Oregon)
Why can a heavily intoxicated pt refusing medical intervention be treated against his will temporarily?
Heavily intoxicated = not competent
A pt has a living will that states he does not want to be placed on a ventilator. His wife tells you to place him on the ventilator for one week and then remove it if he is not improving. What should you do in this scenario?
No ventilation – follow the living will
In what scenarios does an unemancipated minor not require parental consent for treatment?
Emergency situations
STD
Pregnancy
Wants contraception
Illicit drug treatment or counseling
HYQ: Assuming a normal bell shaped distribution, what percentage of the study population falls within 1 standard deviation, 2 standard deviations, and 3 standard deviations from the mean?
68%, 95%, 99.7%
What is the equation for odds ratio (OR)? What is the equation for relative risk (RR)?
HYQ: When is the odds ratio a good approximation of relative risk (RR)?
If the disease is not common in the population
What does it mean when the relative risk is equal to one?
No association btw risk factors & disease
What should you do in the case of a child’s parents refusing a clearly life-saving treatment for their child in an emergency situation?
Can treat without parental consent, get court order later
Under what circumstances are you allowed to break confidentiality with a patient?
Patient permission, reportable disease, suicidal or homicidal
Penetrating assault wound with law
A cancer patient is emergently intubated in the ER after a motor vehicle accident. The patient’s family brings you a DNR signed by the patient stating that she does not wish to be intubated. What do you do next?
Extubate
A patient tells you she does not want to know the result of her recent lung biopsy, but the family is begging you to tell them. Who do you tell the result to ?
No one
What equations represent sensitivity, specificity, positive & negative predictive value using antibodies to X to detect disease X?
see notes