2S051 Cdc E5 Volume 4 (Ure's)

Front 1

Which of the following items is not checked when off-loading property from a carrier?

Back 1

Production date.

Front 2

Who will reissue, redistribute, reuse or transfer consumable and expendables (XB3) items to

disposal as scrap assets?

Back 2

Logistic Readiness Squadron (LRS).

Front 3

Which block of the AF form 2005 will the inspector sign or stamp after the in-checker has

signed and dated block A?

Back 3

B.

Front 4

The physical state that determines the usefulness of an item to carry out its designed or intended purpose is

Back 4

condition.

Front 5

What three things are used to identify an item?

Back 5

Reference number, stock number, and item description.

Front 6

Which DD form is red and is used to identify property that is unserviceable and

uneconomical to repair?

Back 6

DD Form 1577, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag.

Front 7

What is the purpose of DD Form 2477, Inspection Extension?

Back 7

Updates inspection data.

Front 8

What is the only condition code that can be used with the DD Form 1576, Test Modification

Tag/Label?

Back 8

D

Front 9

What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to initiate a condition change?

Back 9

FCC

Front 10

An organizational refusal would be a customer’s responsibility if the

Back 10

customer failed to cancel the due-out.

Front 11

When deficiencies are noted during scheduled warehouse surveillance, within how many days does the inspector conduct a follow-up inspection?

Back 11

10

Front 12

Which best describes the outcome of a Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR)?

Back 12

Authorizes processing of condition change.

Front 13

Which best describes when a Report of Discrepancy is required?

Back 13

Incorrect materiel, unacceptable substitutes, or duplicate shipments.

Front 14

Which form is used to process a Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR)?

Back 14

SF 364

Front 15

When an activity receives a shortage or overage discrepancy on a controlled item, within what time frame from its discovery must the activity submit a discrepancy report?

Back 15

24 Hours

Front 16

Which materiel management function maintains a consolidated suspense file for each Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR) submitted by the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)?

Back 16

Stock Control

Front 17

Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded when additional help is needed?

Back 17

Major command (MAJCOM).

Front 18

What are the two types of open storage areas?

Back 18

Improved and unimproved.

Front 19

What protects items placed in open storage from wet ground conditions?

Back 19

Drainage.

Front 20

What is a major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage?

Back 20

Limited use of material handling equipment (MHE).

Front 21

When planning a warehouse layout, what type of space must be kept to a minimum so as to increase storage space and utilization?

Back 21

Work areas.

Front 22

What must be planned before the actual start of the storage operation to assure the floor and cubic capacity of the warehouse will be used to the greatest extent possible?

Back 22

Storage areas.

Front 23

What storage factor is used when items with the slowest turnover rate are stored in areas farther from active stock processing areas?

Back 23

Item popularity.

Front 24

Warehouse stockrooms are sequenced from

Back 24

left to right and front to rear.

Front 25

How are storage bin rows in a warehouse numbered?

Back 25

Odd numbers are assigned to the left of the main aisle.

Front 26

What position is used to identify the storage lot in warehouse location code 02A003D004C?

Back 26

02.

Front 27

What supply product is used to clear the warehouse location suspense file?

Back 27

Daily document register.

Front 28

What item does the Air Force use to aid in inventory and warehouse validation?

Back 28

Bar code labels.

Front 29

What concept may be necessary when there is an overflow of assets that cannot be stocked in the primary location?

Back 29

Reserve location.

Front 30

All assigned warehouse locations must be validated at least

Back 30

annually.

Front 31

Within how many workdays of the start of an inventory cycle should the storage activity complete scheduled validations

Back 31

10

Front 32

What Transaction Identifier Code (TRIC) is processed to move property to the correct location?

Back 32

FCS

Front 33

Which listing is used to identify items that have a serviceable balance on the item record, no warehouse location assigned, and a date of last transaction (DOLT) greater than three days?

Back 33

R36

Front 34

Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be

Back 34

obliterated.

Front 35

Which transaction identification code (TRIC) identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change?

Back 35

FIC

Front 36

What type of warehouse change document is produced when an item’s security classification is increased on the item record?

Back 36

Controlled item code.

Front 37

Which scenario is an example of a warehouse refusal?

Back 37

Quantity in location needed to fill an issue request is not sufficient.

Front 38

What routing identifier code is processed with a special requisition when property is available in Defense Logistics Disposition Services (DLADS)?

Back 38

JBR

Front 39

Which issue exception codes identify health hazard items?

Back 39

8, 9, or M.

Front 40

As a minimum, how often must a utility program be run to identify potentially hazardous item records that do not have an issue exception code or health hazard flag assigned?

Back 40

Monthly.

Front 41

Which corrosives are incompatible and should be stored separately?

Back 41

Acids and alkalis.

Front 42

Flammable solids include chemicals that are solids at a minimum temperature of

Back 42

100F.

Front 43

What type of material storage is best suited for pesticides, poisons, and certain batteries?

Back 43

Low hazard.

Front 44

When chemical and petroleum products reach their retest dates, what transaction identifier code (TRIC) is used to suspend the outdated materiel on an unserviceable detail and prevent reissue?

Back 44

FCC

Front 45

What is the Air Force’s source for hazardous material data and pollution prevention information?

Back 45

Enterprise Environmental Safety and Occupational Health Management Information System (EESOH-MIS).

Front 46

Hazardous disposal can generally be grouped into how many categories?

Back 46

2

Front 47

Who ensures that customers who generate waste are held liable for waste disposition under a “cradle to grave” concept?

Back 47

Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).

Front 48

In what class of storage vault will secret and confidential materiel be stored?

Back 48

B

Front 49

What materiel management controlled item code identifies precious metals?

Back 49

R

Front 50

Who is assigned as the installation Precious Metals Recovery Program (PMRP) manager/focal point for all matters concerning PMRP?

Back 50

Materiel management flight chief inspector.

Front 51

Who must be notified to ensure precious metals are included in the Federal Catalog records?

Back 51

Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS).

Front 52

Who is responsible for transferring precious metals-bearing metals to the nearest Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS) facility?

Back 52

DOD activity.

Front 53

Who will obtain disposition instructions from the Item Manager for equipment items returned to the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)?

Back 53

Equipment Accountability Element (EAE).

Front 54

As a minimum, how often must the combination on combination padlocks be changed for classified storage?

Back 54

Annually.

Front 55

What transaction identifier code and activity code are used to process an electronic sensitive device item from a detail record to maintenance for testing?

Back 55

MSI, C.

Front 56

What transaction identifier code and activity code are used to process an electronic sensitive device from the item record to maintenance for testing?

Back 56

ISU, C.

Front 57

If required, in what area will a unit pack of Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) be opened?

Back 57

ESD protective area.

Front 58

Who provides the materiel management inspector a list of items that require an extensive functional check before installation?

Back 58

Maintenance contact point.

Front 59

Which supply activity code is used to process items to maintenance for a functional check?

Back 59

C.

Front 60

As a minimum, how often is a functional check listing produced?

Back 60

Semiannually.

Front 61

What type of shelf life coded item has a definite non-extendable shelf life?

Back 61

Type I.

Front 62

How many days prior to the expiration date should type II shelf-life items be scheduled for serviceability testing?

Back 62

15 to 45.

Front 63

Who is notified for shelf life coding consideration when items in storage have deteriorated?

Back 63

Inventory manager.

Front 64

Unless directed by applicable directives, how long should an item be coded as suspect materiel?

Back 64

One year.

Front 65

What computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag to an item record?

Back 65

FCD with suspect flag S.

Front 66

What management notice is output when suspended property is placed on an unserviceable detail record?

Back 66

I302.

Front 67

A time compliance technical order (TCTO) item is identified in the computer by a TCTO flag or by

Back 67

numeric parts preference code 4.

Front 68

What condition tag is used to label a time compliance technical order (TCTO) item that was modified and returned from the maintenance function?

Back 68

DD Form 1574.

Front 69

The information that must be annotated on the receiving document of a warranty or guaranty item is the serial number,

Back 69

model, and manufacturer’s name and address.

Front 70

How is warranty or guaranty items identified on the item record?

Back 70

IEX code B.

Front 71

Which items are not considered a miscellaneous commodity?

Back 71

Serviceable items.

Front 72

How often is the unserviceable storage area reviewed by storage personnel for validation purposes?

Back 72

Daily.

Front 73

Inventory schedules are prepared

Back 73

by fiscal year.

Front 74

The minimum data recorded on the recap sheet should include the stock number, system designator, quantity, document number,

Back 74

TRIC, and warehouse location.

Front 75

What method is used when conducting a complete inventory?

Back 75

Closed warehouse.

Front 76

Who ensures the warehouse does not remain closed to normal receipts and issues for an unreasonable length of time during a complete inventory?

Back 76

Accountable office.

Front 77

When inventory count images are input, the computer compares the record balance with the

Back 77

physical count quantity.

Front 78

Which materiel management listing is reviewed by the inventory section to verify that all degraded operations emergency issues have been processed?

Back 78

Daily Document Register (D04).

Front 79

What document is used to clear the “I” freeze code suspense file?

Back 79

Annotated 1GP notice.

Front 80

When performing an inventory on an equipment account, which product is used to record the out-of-balance conditions?

Back 80

Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL) (R14).

Front 81

An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the record balance does not agree with the recount quantity and the dollar value of the adjustment is no more than

Back 81

$100.

Front 82

How often will an inventory analysis be performed?

Back 82

Monthly.

Front 83

Who will initiate the deficiency report process to include the deficient property at the time of turn-in?

Back 83

Maintenance personnel.

Front 84

To indicate that additional research is needed, the inventory recount image contains a research indicator of

Back 84

AR

Front 85

Which instruction prescribes basic guidance and responsibilities for managing public property under Air Force control by authorizing and directing commanders to manage government property under their command?

Back 85

Management of Government Property in Possession of the Air Force—AFI 23–111.

Front 86

Which individual is designated by the organizational commander or chief of staff agency to have safeguarding responsibility for government property in their possession?

Back 86

Property custodian.

Front 87

When controlled items, approved by the unit commander are placed on bench stock, they are assigned issue exception code

Back 87

N

Front 88

The most efficient way to determine requirements for adding, changing, or deleting bench stock authorizations is to process the

Back 88

M04

Front 89

Which product recommends items that qualify for addition to organizational bench stocks?

Back 89

M04

Front 90

Which principle of material handling obtains the greatest economy in moving materiel?

Back 90

Least handling is the best handling.

Front 91

Which principle of material handling requires consideration of legal and physical restrictions concerning transportation?

Back 91

Advanced planning.

Front 92

Which of the following is not a factor to consider when operating mechanized material handling systems (MMHS) to ensure unsafe incidents are eliminated?

Back 92

Cost

Front 93

Short-life reusable containers are expected to survive at least how many round-trips?

Back 93

10

Front 94

Reusable containers come in how many categories?

Back 94

2

Front 95

What is the primary reference used for nuclear weapons related materiel (NWRM)?

Back 95

CJCSI 3150.04, Nuclear Weapons Stockpile Logistics Management and Nuclear Weapons Reports Under the Joint Reporting Structure.

Front 96

Which element within the Logistic Readiness Squadron (LRS) is responsible for providing secure storage for weapons?

Back 96

Mobility.

Front 97

Which property is defined as materiel that requires a high degree of protection and control due to statutory requirements or regulations?

Back 97

Sensitive.

Front 98

Who is responsible for the accuracy of inventories to include units maintaining communication security (COMSEC) and equipment in-use assets?

Back 98

Storage activity.

Front 99

Who is responsible for properly training all personnel required to handle controlled materiel?

Back 99

Chief inspector.

Front 100

Copies of source documents for classified items are stamped or handwritten using

Back 100

red ink with the words “Classified Item.”

Front 101

Who will Air Force activities report to concerning all discrepancies involving classified items?

Back 101

Security manager.

Front 102

Who is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet mission requirements??

Back 102

Item manager.

Front 103

Who accounts for threat reduction assets at both organic and contract repair facilities?

Back 103

Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) item management team.

Front 104

What automated system was developed to improve the process of tracking assets through base level materiel management channels, to reduce the amount of paper produced and stored in the warehouse, to allow bar code scanning of data to reduce data entry errors, and speed data in the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)

Back 104

Asset Management

Front 105

Which report displays data that is helpful in determining what property has been received and has not yet made it to stock?

Back 105

Not put away.

Front 106

In Discoverer, what is a logical grouping of database tables or views that apply to your specific data requirements?

Back 106

Business areas.

Front 107

The use of Discoverer Viewer is highly encouraged over Discoverer Plus because it

Back 107

uses a lot less bandwidth.

Front 108

In Discoverer, what function allows you to transfer data to other application formats?

Back 108

Export.

Front 109

What system provides the ability to make repair, deployment, sourcing, maintenance, acquisition, re-distribution, forecasting, and other management decisions?

Back 109

Enterprise Solution–Supply.

Front 110

The intent of the Enterprise Asset Visibility component is to provide complete visibility of Air Force

Back 110

owned assets.

Front 111

In Enterprise Solution–Supply (ES–S), what are the three sections of the Order Selection Page?

Back 111

Primary Selection Criteria, Secondary Selection Criteria, and Display Criteria.

Front 112

What function provides the ability to query all Enterprise Solution–Supply (ES–S) transactions from a single user interface?

Back 112

Audit Data Query.

Front 113

What on-line system combines the issue, shipment, receipt, and transfer of wholesale and retail material?

Back 113

Stock control system (SCS).

Front 114

Which system provides the user with information on their requisitions, with emphasis placed on the flight line base level user?

Back 114

TRACKER.

Front 115

Which module supports repair execution, item distribution, and manages flow of recoverable assets in and out of depot repair?

Back 115

Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System.

Front 116

Which of these systems provides the capability to compute whole engine requirements for the maintenance community?

Back 116

PRS/D087Q.

Front 117

What system is capable of supporting multiple full Materiel Management System host accounts?

Back 117

Standard Base Level Computer (SBLC).

Front 118

Which organization supports multiple full Materiel Management accounts?

Back 118

Defense Enterprise Computing Centers (DECC).

Front 119

Which object is accessible to the user when logged into INFOConnect?

Back 119

Green screens.

Front 120

Which versatile timesharing and batch system provides both experienced and inexperienced users ways to improve their productivity?

Back 120

Interactive Processing Facility.

Front 121

One display line of a terminal screen up to 80 characters long is called

Back 121

screen line.

Front 122

How many types of variables are there in the Interactive Processing Facility?

Back 122

Two.

Front 123

What interactive processing facility command allows you to add images saved in other files to your job stream?

Back 123

IN

Front 124

After how many days are the Supply Interface System residue images deleted?

Back 124

10 days.