2S051 Cdc E5 Self Test Questions Volume 1

Front 1

What AFI publication describes the general duties and responsibilities for materiel management?

Back 1

AFI 36–2101.

Front 2

List the seven general duties and responsibilities of a materiel management specialist as they are

outlined in the enlisted classification publication.

Back 2

(1) Perform administrative and management functions.

(2) Inspect and evaluate inventory management activities.

(3) Inspect and identify property.

(4) Provide support to maintenance activities.

(5) Perform technical materiel functions.

(6) Issue, ship, and transfer property.

(7) Plan and schedule materiel storage activities.

Front 3

Which program promotes a better understanding of the whole supply system?

Back 3

Wholesale Logistics Program.

Front 4

What rank is required to qualify for the Logistics Career Broadening program?

Back 4

Technical sergeant or master sergeant.

Front 5

Who handles all enlisted issues for a major command for the 2S career field?

Back 5

MFM.

Front 6

Who chairs the Air Force Materiel Management Chiefs Advisory Board and is key to the

education and training path of our enlisted force?

Back 6

CFM.

Front 7

What is eLog21?

Back 7

The eLog21 is the AF’s transformation campaign plan to improve logistics to meet both

the current and future threat environment

Front 8

What is the goal of Integrated Processes?

Back 8

To create unified, enterprise–wide processes that cut across organizations and geographies to deliver the

right support, to the right place, at the right time, every time.

Front 9

Which source of supply is responsible for cradle-to-grave management of every AF weapon

system?

Back 9

AFMC.

Front 10

Where are the three ALCs located?

Back 10

Ogden ALC (OO-ALC), Oklahoma City ALC (OC-ALC), Warner Robins ALC (WR-ALC).

Front 11

Which agency has responsibility for providing supply support throughout the DOD?

Back 11

DLA.

Front 12

What type of products does GSA provide?

Back 12

Office supplies, hand tools, paints, chemicals, automotive supplies, and furniture.

Front 13

Define local manufacture.

Back 13

Item fabricated by a maintenance activity on base.

Front 14

What is a GPC?

Back 14

It is the official government credit card for making authorized purchases of supplies, equipment, and

nonpersonal services costing up to $2,500.

Front 15

Define centralize repair facility.

Back 15

CRF gives maintenance options ranging from complete decentralization to centralization of repair functions

in a single facility.

Front 16

What two elements make up the maintenance support section?

Back 16

MSL and FSC.

Front 17

Define the SCOR model.

Back 17

It is a commercial based supply chain integration model used to describe business activities associated with

all phases of satisfying a customer’s demand. It is organized around the five primary management processes

of Plan, Source, Make/Maintain, Deliver, and Return.

Front 18

List the functional flights in LRS.

Back 18

Deployment and distribution, fuels management, materiel management, vehicle management.

Front 19

How many organizations make up the AFSC?

Back 19

Three.

Front 20

List the four materiel management major processes.

Back 20

Item accounting, file maintenance, reports, and accounting and finance.

Front 21

Which item accounting process provides the total asset position of the item record requested, to

include interchangeables and substitutes?

Back 21

Due-out process.

Front 22

What four types of transactions activate the due-out release process?

Back 22

Receipt, a return, an inclusion of new items in an interchangeable family of items, or an inventory

adjustment.

Front 23

List the 11 major processes in the file maintenance function.

Back 23

(1) Status.

(2) Follow-up.

(3) Inventory.

(4) Special level.

(5) Equipment in-use.

(6) New item record load.

(7) Mission change special level.

(8) Miscellaneous file maintenance.

(9) SNUD.

(10) ISG.

(11) MRSP and MSK.

Front 24

What are the five different types of reports?

Back 24

(1) Daily.

(2) Monthly.

(3) Quarterly.

(4) As-required.

(5) Utility.

Front 25

What major processes are involved in the A&F process?

Back 25

Requisitioning and status, receipts, order/return, shipments, billings, and file maintenance.

Front 26

What is the purpose of DOD 4140.1-R?

Back 26

To implement requirements and procedures for DOD materiel managers and others who need to work

within or with the DOD supply system.

Front 27

What four functional areas does DLM 4000.25 Defense Logistics Management System Manual

prescribe responsibilities and procedures to conduct logistics operations?

Back 27

Supply, acquisition (contract administration), maintenance, and finance.

Front 28

Which is the first step when research is required in AFI 23–101?

Back 28

You will first need to go to the Air Force e-publishing website www.e-publishing.af.mil and type in the

publication you require in product number/title search menu.

Front 29

What are two ways of navigating through AFMAN 23–122?

Back 29

Table of contents and find tool.

Front 30

What research tool allows you to type in the word or phrase when researching a document within

AFH 23–123?

Back 30

Find tool.

Front 31

What is an NSN?

Back 31

A 13-character alpha numeric number associated with a specific item

Front 32

What two entities make up the NSN?

Back 32

The FSC and the NIIN.

Front 33

What are the four major types of computer inquiries?

Back 33

Item record, detail record, part number record, and other records.

Front 34

What type of inquiry is used when detail records are to be read out for a specific document

number?

Back 34

Detail record is used when detail records are to be read out for a specific document number.

Front 35

What product can be reviewed to identify inquiry abuse?

Back 35

M32.

Front 36

What type of codes is used on an item record inquiry to obtain specific data from the computer?

Back 36

Record retrieval.

Front 37

What information is shown on line one of an inquiry output?

Back 37

Your input image.

Front 38

In what format is the information on an inquiry output displayed?

Back 38

Narrative.

Front 39

What information is provided from a part number inquiry?

Back 39

The NSN, cage code, and TO associated with that particular number.

Front 40

What record retrieval code is used to obtain repair cycle data?

Back 40

5.

Front 41

What releveling flag is used on an inquiry to obtain requirements computation data for a given

stock number?

Back 41

R.

Front 42

How far back can users query CTH records?

Back 42

One year or more.

Front 43

What are the three CTH inquiry input formats?

Back 43

(1) Stock number.

(2) Transaction serial number.

(3) Batch miscellaneous option inquiry.

Front 44

What three elements make up a reject phrase?

Back 44

A reject code, a descriptive phrase, and an action flag

Front 45

When you receive a reject, what should you do first?

Back 45

Ensure that you put all the data in correctly.

Front 46

What source do you use to find the corrective action needed to clear a reject?

Back 46

AFH 23–123, Volume 2, Part 2, Chap. 7.

Front 47

What is the difference between a reject and a management notice?

Back 47

Management notices do not stop computer processing. Instead transactions are processed and database

records are updated.

Front 48

Within what timeframe should all rejects be processed?

Back 48

One workday unless there are specific reasons that prohibit correction

Front 49

What product is used to ensure rejects are processed in a timely manner?

Back 49

D818.

Front 50

Which option in the reject processor computer program is used to force delete a reject image?

Back 50

3.

Front 51

Who must ensure that controls are established to make sure that forced deletions of rejects are

processed for valid reasons only?

Back 51

Flight chief.

Front 52

Why should you periodically analyze the type of rejects incurred, timeliness of processing, and

the volume and reasons for forced deletion processing?

Back 52

To determine effectiveness of transaction processing.

Front 53

What is the difference between controlled and uncontrolled TRICs?

Back 53

Controlled TRICs require authorization to process, uncontrolled TRICs do not.

Front 54

Who determines what transactions can be processed within the flights?

Back 54

Flight chiefs.

Front 55

What is the result of any attempt to process a controlled TRIC by an unauthorized user?

Back 55

A 301 reject notice.

Front 56

What product does the management and systems officer use to monitor unauthorized TRIC

processing?

Back 56

D20, Part 8.

Front 57

What documents must support the production scheduling of all reports and listings?

Back 57

Specific requirement in AFMAN 23–122, an approved supplement, or an AF Form 2011

Front 58

Within what time period must you return the annotated forecast listings to the production

scheduler?

Back 58

By the 15th workday of the same month.

Front 59

What form is used to submit permanent changes for production forecasting?

Back 59

AF Form 2011.

Front 60

The personnel in what activity ensure that management reports and listings are complete and

accurate?

Back 60

Computer operations function.

Front 61

Explain the concept of SMAG-R.

Back 61

A revolving fund (or working capital fund) that finances inventories of military materiel by generating

income through the sales of that materiel to Air Force activities or to other customers.

Front 62

Under what operating principle is the SMAG-R designed to operate?

Back 62

No-profit and no-loss basis.

Front 63

How many divisions make up the SMAG-R?

Back 63

3.

Front 64

What type of items is the CSAG-S primarily responsible for?

Back 64

Depot-level reparable spares and consumable spares unique to the Air Force.

Front 65

What information is provided to LRS leadership through the QA program?

Back 65

An assessment of the unit’s ability to perform key logistics processes ensuring standardized, repeatable,

technically compliant process execution, while promoting a culture of professional excellence and personal

responsibility.

Front 66

How is the self-inspection program conducted and performed?

Back 66

According to local guidelines and using established checklists for each area.

Front 67

What is the purpose of a customer support visit?

Back 67

To determine if customers are receiving quality support; and if not, where support is unsatisfactory

Front 68

Who is responsible for submitting, controlling, and monitoring DIREPs?

Back 68

AFMC SCM-R Quality Assurance Activity.

Front 69

List the four DIREP categories.

Back 69

(1) Major impact.

(2) Severe problem.

(3) Chronic problem.

(4) Cosmetic error.

Front 70

What category DIREP is normally corrected immediately?

Back 70

Category I—Major impact.

Front 71

What personnel are recommended to submit a thoroughly researched and documented DIREP?

Back 71

The user, ADPE materiel management systems monitor, and DIREP monitor.

Front 72

What is the analysis program designed to do?

Back 72

To determine the materiel management account’s effectiveness

Front 73

What are the three types of analysis?

Back 73

Trend analysis, problem analysis, and special studies

Front 74

What analysis method is used to satisfy a one-time requirement, or to solve a specific problem?

Back 74

Special studies.

.

Front 75

Define the term “management indicator.”

Back 75

A performance measure that represents a key result.

Front 76

What is mandatory after an assessment and there are deviations or deficiencies due to lack of job

proficiency, training, and compliance with technical data or instructions?

Back 76

Reviewing training requirements.

Front 77

What program is used to pass analyzed information to the commander?

Back 77

Materiel management analysis program.

Front 78

What does the term degraded operation mean?

Back 78

Describes the procedures used when the materiel management computer is down.

Front 79

Who is responsible for ensuring that customer support does not end when the computer is down?

Back 79

Each individual.

Front 80

What does a separate distribution system accomplish during degraded operations?

Back 80

Makes certain that all degraded operations documents are available for quality control.

Front 81

What is the objective of conducting an inventory?

Back 81

To ensure the materiel management systems records agree with the physical on-hand balance.

Front 82

What are listings used for during degraded operations?

Back 82

To account for every item loaded and to maintain integrity of the assets.

Front 83

Which Tex code is used on issue request when assets are available during degraded operations?

Back 83

6.

Front 84

Why is sequencing important once the computer comes back on-line?

Back 84

This is done to prevent rejects and incorrect data from being processed.

Front 85

How do you perform a QC check?

Back 85

By comparing the source document with the DCR

Front 86

What information on source documents must be compatible with the DCR for QC?

Back 86

Document number, stock number, quantity, unit of issue, and system designator

Front 87

What document file code is used to indicate a source document is to be filed? Destroyed?

Back 87

F. D.

Front 88

If a document is still missing after it appears on three daily listings, what is the first step taken?

Back 88

Conduct a search in your work space for the document.

Front 89

What is the final step in resolving a delinquent document?

Back 89

Obtain a duplicate or prepare a replacement.

Front 90

How long does document control maintain a copy of the D04 on disk?

Back 90

Two years.

Front 91

What product is used as an historical document showing the status of the materiel management

system database after establishing a new materiel management account?

Back 91

The Conversion Audit List (R22).

Front 92

How long does document control keep the cover letter and 1WC listing in the file?

Back 92

Two years.

Front 93

How is the shipment loss analysis (M16) filed?

Back 93

By fiscal year.

Front 94

Within what period must the M10 be filed?

Back 94

Within 30 days of the date it was prepared.

Front 95

What is the purpose of the shipment-suspense program?

Back 95

To ensure that an item has been shipped.

Front 96

When is a shipment-suspense detail created?

Back 96

When shipments and transfers process through the LRS.

Front 97

What are two purposes of the shipment-suspense detail?

Back 97

To provide a medium for recording transportation data applicable to the shipment and to allow the

computer to respond automatically to shipment follow-ups on directed shipments.

Front 98

Without CMOS, what input is used to update a shipment-suspense detail?

Back 98

TRIC SSC.

Front 99

How are SSC inputs made to the materiel management system by bases operating with the CMOS

interface?

Back 99

By electronic interface with the traffic management flight

Front 100

What listing is used to monitor delinquent shipment-suspense details?

Back 100

R40.

Front 101

What elements are responsible for processing record reversal inputs?

Back 101

Document control, repair cycle support, inventory, and customer service.

Front 102

What activity assigns freeze code Q and notifies the activity responsible for the initial input on a

reverse-post?

Back 102

The activity finding the error.

Front 103

What is the purpose of processing a freeze code Q to the item record?

Back 103

Prevents further transaction processing against the item record during the time you are researching and

preparing input for the record reversal action.

Front 104

What transactions may be reverse-posted using automated RVP procedures?

Back 104

Only transactions that have been converted to CTH records

Front 105

What information is required to process an automated RVP?

Back 105

TTPC, date, and serial number of the transaction being reverse posted

Front 106

What must you do with all prefilled data on the automated RVP screen before input?

Back 106

Review for accuracy.