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223 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Rule for automatic acceptance in major trauma centre in poly trauma?

A, B or C


A) Haemodynamic instability


B) Visceral laceration ⊙ fractured (long bone/pelvis/spine)


C) Significant injury ⊙ Injury requiring specialty care at major trauma centre

Rule for automatic acceptance in major trauma centre in neuro trauma?

A or B


A) Penetrating head injury


B) Head injury with CT changes

Rule for automatic acceptance in major trauma centre in spine trauma?

A) Unstable spinal injury (any level)


B) Spinal injury with neurology


C) Open spin fracture

Rule for automatic acceptance in major trauma centre in thoracic trauma?

A) Penetrating chest injury


B) Flail chest in ≥3 segments


C) Rupture bronchus or diaphragm


D) Blood loss of >0.5L immediately following insertion of chest drain or 0.25L/hour for ≥3h


D) Suspected aortic transection


E) Cardiac tamponade

Rule for automatic acceptance in major trauma centre in pelvis trauma?

Haemodynamic instability


Pelvic or acetabular fracture requiring surgery

Rule for automatic acceptance in major trauma centre in extremities trauma?

De-vascularised limb


Open fracture of lower limb or (upper limb ⊙ requiring debridement/soft tissue cover)

Rule for automatic acceptance in major trauma centre in burns?

Multiple injuries ⊙ burn injury

How is the Major Trauma Centre contacted?

Call 2222 and state "Adult trauma call to JR ED Resus"

To whom is the call transferred when 2222 is called with "Adult trauma call to JR ED Resus" is activated and what is her/their role?

Crash bleep of...


Trauma FY2 (Scribe)


Trauma registrar (Primary survey)


ICU registrar (Airway)


General surgeon registrar


Surgery SHO


ED senior (Trauma Team Leader)

True or false: imaging can hopefully be acquired and analysed faster in a case of a trauma call because the radiographer and radiologist are also paged following 2222 call

True

Which number should be called to activate Major Haemorrhage Pack?

4444

Patient is actively bleeding large amounts. What should you do?

1) Administer tranexamic acid (TXA) - 1g bolus followed by 1g infusion


2) Call switchboard on 4444


3) Request MHP Pack 1


4) Take blood and send to lab while waiting: X-match, FBC, PT, aPTT, Fibrinogen, U&E, Ca (2 purple, 1 blue, 1 green)


5) Give MHP Pack 1


6) Reassess

What does the Major Haemorrhage Protocol Pack 1 contain?

6 units of RBC


4 units of FFP


Emergency O blood if required

What is the deadly triad of a patient who is bleeding?

Hypothermia


Acidosis


Coagulopathy

Why is it important to minimise movements in major trauma?

Avoid dislodging a clot which would cause haemorrhage

Patient with major trauma has been stabilised with ABC. What is the next step in investigation?

CT Trauma scan (head/neck/thorax/abdo/pelvis with contrast)

Patient has sustained trauma and has reduced consciousness level (GCS = 7). What do you do regarding airways?

Endotracheal intubation since airway reflexes have been lost 

Endotracheal intubation since airway reflexes have been lost

AVPU and GCS threshold for endotracheal intubtaion

AVPU ≤ P
GCS ≤ 8

What is triple immobilisation in trauma?

Cervical collar
Blocks placed on both side of the head
Tape across the forehead and chin

Cervical collar


Blocks placed on both side of the head


Tape across the forehead and chin

Name 6 chest emergency that may cause death due to impaired breathing

Airway obstruction (transection of bronchus)


Tension pneumothorax


Open pneumothorax


Massive haemothorax


Flail chest


Cardiac tamponade

Management of open pneumothorax

Close wound and chest drain




If not available: place a bandage and attach it at three corners creating a one-way valve allowing air to escape during expiration.

Diagnosis of cardiac tamponade

USS

What defines severe traumatic brain injury and moderate TBI?

Severe TBI: GCS ≤ 8


Moderate TBI: 9 ≤ GCS ≤ 12

Define cerebral perfusion pressure

Mean arterial pressure - ICP

Patient has a GCS of 7. You achieve endotracheal intubation and start ventilation. But the patient keeps deteriorating. What do you do?

Mannitol + Hyperventilation

What clinical sign may suggest coning?

Cushing's triad


Bradycardia


Hypertension


Irregular breathing

Describe the Glasgow Coma Scale



True or false: trauma is a disease

True since a disease is a particular abnormal condition, adisorder of a structure or function, that affects part orall of an organism.



Define fracture

Break or discontinuity in the cortex of a bone

Outline the 5 step description of fractures

1) Bone


2) Part of the bone


3) Type of fracture


a. Simple (spiral, oblique transverse)


b. Wedge


c. Complex


d. Intraarticular


4) Deformity


a. Translation


b. Angulation


c. Rotation


d. Shortening


5) Soft tissues and joints:


a. Open/Closed


b. Joint (dislocated, subluxated)


c. Neurovascular status

3 types of extra-articular fractures



3 types of partially articular fractures



3 types of articular fractures



For extra-articular fractures, name:


3 simple


3 wedge


3 complex fractures



5 broad approaches of fracture management

1) Non-surgical external immobilisation (eg POP)


2) Surgical external fixation (eg frames)


3) Internal fixation: extramedullary (eg plate)


4) Internal fixation: intramedullary (eg nail)


5) Replacement

3 ✔ and 3 ✘ of external immobilisation of fractures

✔ Cheap


✔ Quick


✔ No surgery




✘ Muscle disuse


✘ Joint stiffness


✘ Inability to weight bear

3 ✔ and 3 ✘ of surgical external fixation of fractures

✔ Reduced surgery


✔ Reduced soft tissue damage


✔ Increased rigidity




✘ Pin site infection


✘ Cosmetics


✘ Unable to weight bear


✘ Uncomfortable


✘ Long healing

4 main ✔︎ and 1 major ✘ of surgical approaches (internal fixation) of fractures

✔ Improved control and stability


✔ Improved restoration of anatomy


✔ Earlier return of function


✔ Cosmetics




✘ Infection

What is a patient with patent foramen ovale at risk of in fractures?

Fat emboli leading to strokes (embolus forms in the veins and bypasses the pulmonary circulation to go to systemic circulation)

Name 4 goals of fracture reduction from most to least urgent

1) Reduce pain


2) Avoid neurovascular compromise and prevent further fat emboli


3) Restore function


4) Cosmetic

4 steps in fracture reduction

1) Exaggerate the deformity
2) Reverse mechanism of injury
3) Reduce
4) Three-point fixation (2 on the side distal to injury)

1) Exaggerate the deformity


2) Reverse mechanism of injury


3) Reduce


4) Three-point fixation (2 on the side distal to injury)



Why is fracture of the pelvis particularly worrying?

Because up to 2L of blood can be lost. 

If the blood is lost from a vein, then a clot should form. But, if the pelvis opens at the pubic symphysis ⟹ Pelvic volume increases ⟹ Pelvic pressure decreases ⟹ Clotting decreases ⟹ First thing t...

Because up to 2L of blood can be lost.




If the blood is lost from a vein, then a clot should form. But, if the pelvis opens at the pubic symphysis ⟹ Pelvic volume increases ⟹ Pelvic pressure decreases ⟹ Clotting decreases ⟹ First thing to do is to close it asap to guarantee clotting




If the blood is lost from an artery (or too big a vein), then clots don't form.

Define open fracture

A break in the skin and underlying soft tissueleading directly into or communicating with thefracture and its hematoma

What is the Gustillo and Anderson classification useful for?

Prognosis of open fracture (Level I is best, IIIC is worst)

T/F: Inside-out open fractures are usually of better prognosis that outside-in

True

What is the periosteum?

Dense layer of vascular connective tissue enveloping the bones except at the surfaces of the joints

Dense layer of vascular connective tissue enveloping the bones except at the surfaces of the joints

Outline (roughly) the pathological features of the Gustillo and Anderson classification of open fracture

I – Inside-out injury


II – Outside-in


IIIa – II with extensive soft tissue laceration


IIIb – IIIa with periosteal stripping and bone exposure
IIIc – IIIb with major vascular injury

8 steps of open fracture management

1. Stop bleeding


2. Neurovascular assessment


3. Debride
4. Cover (bioclusive)


5. Antibiotics


6. Tetanus assessment and active + passive immunisation if non-immunised


7. Take a picture


8. Splint

Define compartment syndrome

Raised pressure within a closedosteofascial compartmentresulting in tissue ischaemia andnecrosis

Pathogenesis of compartment syndrome

Compartment pressure ➚ ⟹ Capillary blood flow ➘ ⟹ Oedema ⟹ Pressure ➚ even more ⟹ Venous flow and lymphatic drainage ➘ ⟹ Pressure ➚ even more ⟹ Arteriolar blood flow ➘ ⟹ Ischaemia and necrosis

Clinical criteria for the diagnosis of compartment syndrome

Compartment pressure between 30 and 45mmHg (upper limit set because higher pressure suggests the probe is misplaced)

or




|Compartment pressure - DBP| < 30mmHg

How often should the compartment pressure be assessed in compartment syndrome?

Every 30min

Treatment of compartment syndrome

Fasciotomy 

Fasciotomy

Early management of compartment syndrome while waiting for fasciotomy?

1) Elevate leg above the heart


2) Analgesia


3) Review compartment pressure in 30min


4) Ice


5) Anti-inflammatory


6) Give a lot of O2 to avoid acidosis


7) Monitor the required morphine as increasing PRN is a sign of compartment syndrome

Outline the compartments of the lower leg and their content



Outline the compartments of the thigh and their content



When should dislocated joint be reduced?

ASAP

In which direction do hip mostly dislocate? How about shoulder?

Hip – Posteriorly (90%)


Shoulder – Anteriorly (90%)

4 features of dislocated hip on XR

Femoral head lateral and superior to acetabulum

# posterior rim of acetabulum

Femur in internal rotation and adduction

Femoral head appear smaller due to magnification (AP scan)

Femoral head lateral and superior to acetabulum




# posterior rim of acetabulum




Femur in internal rotation and adduction




Femoral head appear smaller due to magnification (AP scan)

One common NV complication of hip dislocation and its clinical manifestation. Ho common is it?

Sciatic nerve injury (10% of dislocations)




Sensation – Foot, lower leg (apart from medial side)


Muscles – Flexion of the knee, foot inversion and plantar flexion
Reflex – Ankle jerk



Knee dislocation

What ligament(s) must be damaged to cause knee dislocation?

Typically all four: ACL, PCL, MCL, LCL

What NV structures are at risk of damage in knee dislocation (2)? For nervous structure, outline the clinical features.

Popliteal artery – 10% (40% in anterior/posterior dislocations)




Common peroneal nerve – 25%


Foot drop


Sensory loss in dorsum of foot

T/F: knee dislocation can occur with low energy ligament if there is an axial component

False: it mostly occurs in high-energy impact and occurs in low energy impact if there is rotational component

Patella dislocation

Which gender and which morphologies are most at risk of patella dislocation?

Tall females

Most likely direction of dislocation of patella

Laterally

How are patellar dislocations reduced?

Hyperextension of the knee and medialward pressure on patella

Indication for surgery in patellar dislocations

If it occurs with very minor (eg walking) indicating a structural defect

What forced movement causes anterior shoulder dislocation?

Abduction + External rotation

Patient complains of pain in the shoulder after seizure. Likely diagnosis

Posterior shoulder dislocation

Patient complains of pain in the shoulder after playing rugby. Likely diagnosis

Anterior shoulder dislocation (abduction + external rotation)

Patient complains of pain in the shoulder after FOOSH. Likely diagnosis

Anterior shoulder dislocation (abduction + external rotation)

Patient complains of pain in the shoulder after electric shock. Likely diagnosis

Posterior shoulder dislocation

Patient complains of pain in the shoulder. XR reveals light bulb appearance. Likely diagnosis

Patient complains of pain in the shoulder. XR reveals light bulb appearance. Likely diagnosis

Posterior shoulder dislocation

Why do electric shock and seizures cause posterior shoulder dislocation rather than the more common anterior shoulder dislocation?

Because they cause powerful pectoral muscles to contract, causing internal rotation of shoulder which puts it in a position to dislocate posteriorly.

Posterior shoulder dislocation (light bulb appearance)

Anterior shoulder dislocation

Common NV complication of anterior shoulder dislocation and its manifestations

Axillary nerve damage


Motor – Difficulty abducting shoulder after 15°


Sensation – Loss in regimental badge area

What two muscles are responsible for abduction of the shoulder?

Supraspinatus – 0-15°
Deltoid – 15-90°

Supraspinatus – 0-15°


Deltoid – 15-90°

Name 4 complications of shoulder dislocation. For each, state the condition in which they occur.

Bankart lesion
Injury of anterior (inferior) glenoid labrum
Condition: anterior shoulder dislocation
Similar condition: Bony Bankart when the region of the scapula around the glenoid is itself broken 

Hill-Sachs lesion
Depression in the cortex of...

Bankart lesion


Injury of anterior (inferior) glenoid labrum


Condition: anterior shoulder dislocation
Similar condition: Bony Bankart when the region of the scapula around the glenoid is itself broken

Hill-Sachs lesion


Depression in the cortex of the posterolateral head of the humerus


Condition: anterior shoulder dislocation




Greater tuberosity fracture




Axillary nerve damage

What complication of shoulder dislocation is demonstrated?

What complication of shoulder dislocation is demonstrated?

Fracture of greater tuberosity

What complication of shoulder dislocation is demonstrated?

What complication of shoulder dislocation is demonstrated?

Hill-Sachs lesion

What complication of shoulder dislocation is demonstrated?

What complication of shoulder dislocation is demonstrated?

Bony Bankart (look at the small fragment at the inferior aspect of the glenoid)

Name and describe two techniques for shoulder reduction

Modified Milch technique 
1. Analgesia: entonox (50% NO, 50% O2) ± lidocaine injection
2. Patient supine, surgeon stands on side of affected arm and apply traction gently until patient "gives". 
3.  Abduct and externally rotate arm into overh...

Modified Milch technique


1. Analgesia: entonox (50% NO, 50% O2) ± lidocaine injection


2. Patient supine, surgeon stands on side of affected arm and apply traction gently until patient "gives".


3. Abduct and externally rotate arm into overhead position
4. Gently push humeral head back into glenoid fossa with thumb

Oxford chair


Pull on arm hanging from chair (picture)



What is a perilunate dislocation? What articulation is affected?

Capitate dislocated wrt lunate but lunate-radius articulation is intact.

Red: Capitate
Blue: Lunate
Yellow: Radius

Capitate dislocated wrt lunate but lunate-radius articulation is intact.




Red: Capitate


Blue: Lunate


Yellow: Radius

What is a lunate dislocation? What articulation is affected?

Lunate dislocated with respect to both the capitate and the radius Red: Capitate
Blue: Lunate
Yellow: Radius

Lunate dislocated with respect to both the capitate and the radius

Red: Capitate


Blue: Lunate


Yellow: Radius

What condition often co-occurs with perilunate dislocation?

Trans-scaphoid fracture (60%)

How can the alignment of carpals be assessed in XR?

Gilula's lines
Blue – Proximal edge of scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum
 
Red – Distal edge of scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum

Yellow – Proximal edge of capitate and hamate

Gilula's lines must be smooth, otherwise, there is likely injury

Gilula's lines


Blue – Proximal edge of scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum



Red – Distal edge of scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum




Yellow – Proximal edge of capitate and hamate




Gilula's lines must be smooth, otherwise, there is likely injury

Which of lunate and perilunate dislocations are most common?

Perilunate

Perilunate

What aspirates can you aspirate in the elbow (3) and in the knee (4)

Elbow and knee


Blood


Pus


Fat




Knee


Turbid fluid (crystals)

Knee aspiration landmarks

Lateral or medial to patella

Lateral or medial to patella

Elbow aspiration landmarks

What is Haddon's matrix for road traffic collision prevention?



4E of prevention synthesis

Education (teach not to do)


Enforcement (makes it illegal)


Engineering (makes it impossible)


Economics (discourage)

4 types of non-accidental injury

Neglect


Physical


Sexual


Emotional

T/F: non-accidental injury is the commonest cause of injury in < 4y

T

T/F: the commonest cause of broken femur in a 9m old child is fall

False: it's non-accidental injury

Commonest cause of fractures in < 1y

Non-accidental injury

For each of the following level of investigation, name a feature consistent with non-accidental injury:


History


General exam


Exam of the injury

Hx – Inconsistent


Exam – Multiple bruises/injuries of differing ages


Exam of injury – Long bone #, corner # (=bucket handle #)

Management of non-accidental injury (5)

1) Tell senior and safeguarding lead


2) Check child protection register
3) Admit child


4) Paediatric review


5) Skeletal survey

What is IMPS

Injury minimisation programme for schools


A program in which pupils at school are taught to do CPR, rescue breaths and use defibrillators

T/F: as part of the IMPS, pupils are taught to do CPR, rescue breaths and use defibrillators

True

What is PTC

Primary Trauma Care


A foundation that provides training for trauma care in resource-poor environments

Define inclination of the hip. What's its normal value?

Normal: 130±7°

Normal: 130±7°

Define anteversion of the hip. What's its normal value?

Normal: 10±7°
Note: the angle displayed is the complementary angle

Normal: 10±7°



Note: the angle displayed is the complementary angle

Name the 4 arteries supplying the femoral head. Which one is the major contributor? Where is the latter located?

Medial femoral circumflex
Lateral femoral circumflex
Intramedullary supply
(Artery of ligamentum teres – Insignificant)

Medial femoral circumflex


Lateral femoral circumflex


Intramedullary supply


(Artery of ligamentum teres – Insignificant)

Define neck of femur and outline how # of the NOF can be classified based on their location and the impact on complication.

NOF – Up to 5cm inferior to the lesser trochanter

In intracapsular #, blood supply to the capsule is at risk.

NOF – Up to 5cm inferior to the lesser trochanter




In intracapsular #, blood supply to the capsule is at risk.

Dynamic hip screw

Intramedullary nail

Hemiprosthesis


Total hip replacement

Cannulated screw fixation

Treatment options for extracapsular fracture of the hip. How do we decide which to use?

Blood supply maintained ⟹ Preserve neck and head of femurDynamic hip screw – Most common

Intramedullary nail – If DHS unstable (torque in IMN is lower because the axis is not offset)

Blood supply maintained ⟹ Preserve neck and head of femur

Dynamic hip screw – Most common




Intramedullary nail – If DHS unstable (torque in IMN is lower because the axis is not offset)

Outline Garden's classification of intracapsular fracture of the hip. What is the impact on blood supply?



How would you treat Garden 4 intracapsular fractures in an otherwise healthy 19 year old? in a 91 year old?

19 – Repair (40% failure rate that will require a likely tolerated second operation)




91 – Replace (90% failure rate of repair would require a likely non-tolerated second operation)

T/F: Hip surgery in elderly with hip fracture may be delayed by a few days/weeks to increase the chance of a tolerated operation following trauma.

False: Benefits of early mobilisation cannot be overemphasised. Operate as soon as possible.

Surgical options for intracapsular hip fractures and which would you choose in the following scenarios:


1) Young (< 60) active patient


2) Active independent elderly


3) Non-active or dependent elderly

3 Screw fixation – Young active


Dynamic hip screw – Young active


Hemiprosthesis – Non-active/Dependent Elder


Total hip replacement – Active independent elder

Which operation(s) for hip # may cause leg length discrepancy?

THR
Hemiprosthesis

Which operation(s) for hip # may cause non-union?

Screws (varus malreduction)

Describe and name the cause

Describe and name the cause

Shorten and externally rotated leg ⟹ Fracture of neck of femur

What articulation enables foot dorsiflexion and plantar flexion?

Tibia-Talus



Name 6 important ligaments in the stability of the ankle (and their insertions)

Medial


Deltoid – Medial malleolus to talus




Lateral


Calcaneofibular – Lateral malleolus to calcaneus


Talofibular – Lateral malleolus to talus




Tibia to fibula


Syndesmosis of tibia and fibula – This is different from interrosseous membrane which runs along the entire length


Anterior inferior tibiofibular


Posterior tibiofibular

What should you never forget on examination of the ankle (2)?

Examine medial side


Examine proximal fibula (Maisonneuve #)

What is a syndesmosis? Why is it relevant in ankle?

An immovable joint in which bones are joined by connective tissue (e.g. between the fibula and tibia at the ankle)

An immovable joint in which bones are joined by connective tissue (e.g. between the fibula and tibia at the ankle)

How are ankle fracture typically classified?

Weber classification (based on level of fibula #)
Weber A – # distal to syndesmosis
Weber B – # at syndesmosis
Weber C – # above syndesmosis

Weber classification (based on level of fibula #)


Weber A – # distal to syndesmosis


Weber B – # at syndesmosis


Weber C – # above syndesmosis

Emergency management of ankle fracture (3)

Rebax


1) Reduce


2) Backslab (cast with moulding) to correct talar shift


3) Xray

One absolute and 3 relative indications for surgery in ankle injury

Absolute – Open injury


Relative – Unstable fracture, Displacement, Talar shift

Most common operation fix for ankle fracture. Name 4 other operations that can be used.

Plates and screws


Nails (calcaneus, talus, tibia or fibula)


Syndesmosis sutures




External:


Ring fixator


Mono-lateral frame ("ex-fix")

Why is it important to examine the proximal fibula in ankle injury?

Weber C fracture can present with proximal fibula fracture (Maisonneuve #)




If tender around the area, X-ray


If non-tender, report it in the notes (sue-protection)

What is a Maisonneuve fracture?

Spiral # of the proximal third of the fibula associated with a tear of the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis and the interosseous membrane.




Associated with medial malleolus # or rupture of the deep deltoid ligament

Treatment of Maisonneuve # (4)

Rebax + Referral


1) Reduce


3) Backslab cast with moulding to correct talar shift


3) X-ray


4) Refer to ortho for syndesmosis screws

What is wrong with this X-ray?

What is wrong with this X-ray?

Always reduce ankle fractures first (this X-ray should never have been acquired)

Name of the two grooves

Name of the two grooves



Name of the surface at which the ulna and radius articulate 

Name of the surface at which the ulna and radius articulate

Sigmoid notch



What do volar refer to?

Synonym of palmar in hand

Normal angles of radius to interpret X-ray

Rule of 11
11° of volar tilt
11mm of dradial offset
22° of radial inclination

Rule of 11


11° of volar tilt


11mm of dradial offset


22° of radial inclination

Characterise this fracture (3) and name one situation in which it occurs

Characterise this fracture (3) and name one situation in which it occurs

Dorsally angulated (dinner fork deformity)


Dorsal displacement
Extra-articular



Situation – FOOSH




Note: Colles' fracture in osteoporosis presents like that

Characterise this fracture (3) and name one situation in which it occurs

Characterise this fracture (3) and name one situation in which it occurs

Volarly angulated


Volarly displaced


Extra-articular




Situation – Falling on flexed wrist




Note: Smiths' fracture presents like that

Characterise this fracture (3) and name one situation in which it occurs

Characterise this fracture (3) and name one situation in which it occurs

Volarly displaced


Extends into radiocarpal joint




Situation – Fall on flexed wrist

One non-surgical and 4 surgical management option of wrist fracture

Non-surgical


POP




Surgical


Manipulation under anaesthesia + POP


Manipulation under anaesthesia + Percutaneous K wires


Plates


External fixation

Percutaneous K wires

1) How would you decide to operate on a wrist fracture?




2) How would you decide on which surgical management to choose from in a wrist #)?

1) Difficult decision based on:


- Severity (articular involvement?)


- Patient's characteristics




2) K-wires as effective as plates but much cheaper (Drafft trial)

Number of cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae

7C


12T


5L

Specific early management (3) of spine in trauma (and how it integrates with the classical ABCDE)

C spine triple immobilisation (during A of ABCD)




ASIA chart for neuro exam during D




Log-roll after ABCDE to look for


◾︎ Penetrating injuries


◾︎ Spinal process tenderness


◾︎ Asymmetry


◾︎ PR (tone, sensation and squeeze)

What imaging is used as part of the primary survey in ATLS? What if spinal injury is suspected?

CT




If spinal injury suspected and neurological deficit, then MRI as well.

What is the first vertebra that we can clearly see on a lateral X-ray of the spine

C1

What is the first vertebra that we can clearly see on an AP X-ray of the spine

C3

How can we see C1 in an AP film?

Through the mouth with mouth open

Through the mouth with mouth open

How do you clinically rule out C spine injury?

If all of A-F, then assess G-J and if they are all positive then cervical spine is cleared


A) Patient fully alert and oriented.


B) No head injury


C) No drugs or alcohol


D) No neck pain


E) No abnormal neurology


F) No distracting injury




In the neck


G) No bruising


H) No deformity


I) No tenderness


J) Pain-free range of active movements

How do you clinically rule out T and L spine injury?

A+B+C


A) Cooperative patient


B) Non tender on log roll


C) No tenderness at rest

Some percentages. What fraction of trauma patients have spine fractures? Which of those have C spine fracture? Where do most of the latter occur (1st and 2nd most likely location)?

4% of all trauma patients


55% in C spine


55% at C5/6, 20% at C1/2

What is the atlas in relation to spine?

C1

What fracture are patients diving in shallow water at risk of (2)?

Jefferson fracture – Burst at C1 due to axial loading 

Jefferson fracture – Burst at C1 due to axial loading




Flexion tear drop fracture

What is Jefferson fracture? Mechanism? Example of a cause?

Burst fracture of C1 caused by
direct axial loading i.e. diving into shallow water

Burst fracture of C1 caused bydirect axial loading, eg diving into shallow water

What is the axis in relation to spine?

C2

What are C1 and C2 also called?

C1 – Atlas


C2 – Axis

Most common fracture of C2? Name another fracture occurring at C2 and its mechanism.

Odontoid process # = Peg # = Dens #Most common

Hangman's fracture
(Picture below)
Lateral part of C2 in the pars interarticularis 
Mechanism: hyperextension

Odontoid process # = Peg # = Dens #
Most common




Hangman's fracture


(Picture below)


Lateral part of C2 in the pars interarticularis


Mechanism: hyperextension

What does subluxation mean?

Partial dislocation

A patient underwent flexion distraction injury and rapidly develops neurology. X-ray is displayed. Likely diagnosis?

A patient underwent flexion distraction injury and rapidly develops neurology. X-ray is displayed. Likely diagnosis?

Unifacet dislocation/subluxation (one vertebra dislocating anteriorly to its inferior neighbor) 

Unifacet demonstrates < 50% displacement while bifacet demonstrates > 50% displacement

Unifacet dislocation/subluxation (one vertebra dislocating anteriorly to its inferior neighbor)




Unifacet demonstrates < 50% displacement while bifacet demonstrates > 50% displacement

Diagnosis

Diagnosis

Bilateral facet dislocation (> 50% displacement of vertebra)

Bilateral facet dislocation (> 50% displacement of vertebra)

Why is the difference between bilateral and unilateral facet dislocation clinically relevant?

Bilateral ⟹ High risk of cord injury

Diagnosis, likely mechanism and prognosis

Diagnosis, likely mechanism and prognosis

Spinous process fracture


(aka clay shoveler's fracture)

Mechanism: extension or avulsion (process pulled away forcedly)

Prognosis: stable

Diagnosis, most likely location, likely mechanism, and possible structure at risk of damage

Diagnosis, most likely location, likely mechanism, and possible structure at risk of damage

Compression wedge fracture

C4-C6

Flexion and compression

Posterior longitudinal ligament may rupture.

Compression wedge fracture




C4-C6




Flexion and compression




Posterior longitudinal ligament may rupture.

What is clay shoveler's fracture?

Spinous process fracture

Spinous process fracture

Coup du lapin in English

Whiplash

Most severe injury of the C spine. Mechanism of injury

Flexion teardrop fracture

Violent flexion and compression (eg diving head first, car collisions)

Flexion teardrop fracture




Violent flexion and compression (eg diving head first, car collisions)



Flexion teardrop fracture 

Flexion teardrop fracture

What is peculiar about patients with ankylosing spondylitis when it comes to trauma?

Don't immobilise as a normal C spine as the fused bones may break.

Difference between adults and children skeleton and its clinical significance

Physis (growth plate) between the metaphysis and epiphysis

This is where most fractures occur

Physis (growth plate) between the metaphysis and epiphysis




This is where most fractures occur

What is the periosteum?

Dense layer of vascular connective tissue enveloping the bones except at the surfaces of the joints

T/F: the periosteum in the paediatric skeleton is thinner

False: it is thicker

T/F: the treatment of this # in a 6 year old is plating. 

T/F: the treatment of this # in a 6 year old is plating.

False: remodelling is very effective

False: remodelling is very effective

Name two fracture morphologies that occurs only in children

Torus following axial compression due to viscoelasticity of the bone

Greenstick (displayed)

Torus following axial compression due to viscoelasticity of the bone




Greenstick (displayed)

Diagnosis and likely mechanism of injury

Diagnosis and likely mechanism of injury

Torus fracture due to axial compression

How can we perform a neurological assessment of an injury in a toddler?

Sensation


Autonomic – Rub pen along the skin. If it slides easily, then the skin is dry and is not sweating

What classification do you know of that helps make a prognosis of epiphyseal fractures?

Salter-Harris classification (higher means worse) 

Salter-Harris classification (higher means worse)

Draw the metaphysis, physis and epiphysis of a generic bone and outline the fracture morphology in each class of the Salter-Harris classification

SALTR

Slipped (I)
Above the physis (II)
Lower than the physis (III)
Through the physis (IV)
Rammed together (V)

SALTR




Slipped (I)


Above the physis (II)


Lower than the physis (III)


Through the physis (IV)


Rammed together (V)

Most common morphology of epiphyseal fracture in children?

Salter-Harris II (75% of all)

Salter-Harris II (75% of all)

Salter-Harris class?

Salter-Harris class?

Lower than the physis (when looked upside down) ⟹ SH III




SALTR

Salter-Harris class?

Salter-Harris class?

Rammed together (tibial physis narrowed see bubble) ⟹ SH V

SALTR

Rammed together (tibial physis narrowed see bubble) ⟹ SH V




SALTR

Salter-Harris class?

Salter-Harris class?

Slipped ⟹ SH I


SALTR

Salter-Harris class?

Salter-Harris class?

Above the physis (when looked upside down) ⟹ SH II


SALTR

Salter-Harris class?

Salter-Harris class?

Through the physis ⟹ SH IV




SALTR

What is depicted and what is a possible cause?

What is depicted and what is a possible cause?

Lateral displacement of the carpus towards the radius due to growth arrest of the radius.

Possible cause: Salter-Harris V fracture

What do you see? What is the cause?

What do you see? What is the cause?

Fat pad sign


X-ray sign of an otherwise hidden fracture, caused by inflammation around the synovial membrane pushing the fat pads away from the bone (the pattern is therefore Grey ➙ Fat ➙ Grey ➙ Bone)

Note that it can be due to other causes of inflammations in the elbow such as infection.

What do you see? What is the cause?

What do you see? What is the cause?

Normal anterior fat pad, not displaced (Grey ➙ Fat ➙ Bone rather than Grey ➙ Fat ➙ Grey ➙ Bone)

T/F: a posterior fat pad on lateral XR of elbow is always abnormal

True (even if it doesn't appear displaced)

T/F: an anterior fat pad on lateral XR of elbow is always abnormal

False

Most likely cause of posterior fat pad sign in a child? adult?

Child – Condylar fracture of the hymerus


Adult – Radial head fracture

8 year old. Diagnosis, likely mechanism and possible complications (2)

8 year old. Diagnosis, likely mechanism and possible complications (2)

Supracondylar fracture




FOOSH from height




Complication:


Brachial artery tear and compartment syndrome


Median nerve injury


Radial nerve injury

T/F: supracondylar fracture may appear subtle on XR (only as posterior fat pad sign) but then its prognosis is better.

True: this is Gartland class 1 and confers better prognosis while the obvious displacement (displayed) is Gartland class 3 and has high risk of NV damage requiring urgent surgery

True: this is Gartland class 1 and confers better prognosis while the obvious displacement (displayed) is Gartland class 3 and has high risk of NV damage requiring urgent surgery

T/F: Lateral mass/condyle fracture has a better prognosis than supracondylar fracture

False: it is usually worse ans is a "not-to-miss" fracture of the elbow in children

Name 3 fractures of the elbow that may occur in children

Supracondylar fracture


Lateral mass fracture (= lateral condyle fracture)


Medial epicondyle fracture

Lateral mass # (= lateral condyle #)

Lateral mass # (= lateral condyle #)

Likely mechanism of lateral mass #

FOOSH

What is it and why is it challenging to diagnose?

What is it and why is it challenging to diagnose?

Medial epicondyle fracture




Difficult because the broken epicondyle resembles a centre of ossification ⟹ It is essential to know the order of ossification centres (when they appear)

Name the 6 ossification centres in the elbow and the age at which they appear

CRITOE
Capitellum – 1y
Radial head – 3y
Internal (medial) epicondyle – 5y
Trochlear – 7y
Olecranon – 9y
External (lateral) epicondyle – 11y 

CRITOE


Capitellum – 1y


Radial head – 3y


Internal (medial) epicondyle – 5y


Trochlear – 7y


Olecranon – 9y


External (lateral) epicondyle – 11y

4 year old

4 year old

Medial epicondyle fracture (T appears at 7y)

8 year old

8 year old

Trochlear ossification centre (T appears at 7y)

A 46 year old man involved in a road traffic collision is found to have acute dyspnoea. Likely cause

Posterior sternoclavicular joint dislocation




⟹ Clavicle pressed against mediastinum


⟹ Compression of trachea

Name 3 possible signs and symptoms (besides injury) of posterior sternoclavicular joint dislocation

Dyspnoea


Dysphagia


Paraesthesia of upper limb

Posterior sternoclavicular joint dislocation

A patient presents with a swollen shoulder, pain and paraesthesia in the right arm as well as absent right radial and brachial pulses. He was sent to trauma following a road traffic collision. The X-ray is shown. State what you see on the X-ray a...

A patient presents with a swollen shoulder, pain and paraesthesia in the right arm as well as absent right radial and brachial pulses. He was sent to trauma following a road traffic collision. The X-ray is shown. State what you see on the X-ray and give the diagnosis.

Scapulothoracic dissociation


Laterally displaced scapula (edge of scapula displaced by > 1cm from spinous process compared to other side)

NV complications of scapulothoracic dissociation (4)

Nervous


Brachial plexus


Axillary nerve




Vascular


Subclavian artery




Compound


Flail upper limb (complete loss of sensory and motor functions)

What artery is most likely involved in scapulothoracic dissociation?

Subclavian

Bases of treatment of scapulothoracic dissociations

NV repair


± ORIF (open reduction internal fixation)

PC


A 34 year old complains of persistent pain in the midfoot.




PMH


Unremarkable apart from a bad fall from a tree on that foot when he was 32 (XR was unremarkable then).




O/E


Deformity




Name and describe a possible cause.

Lisfranc injury 
Tarsometatarsal fracture-dislocation often missed.

Lisfranc injury


Tarsometatarsal fracture-dislocation often missed.

Outline the management of Lisfranc fracture

No weight bearing for 8/52 (cast)


ORIF + Non-weight bearing for 3/52

Outline the scaphoid structure based on areas. Which area is most likely fracture?

Waist is most likely to fracture (65%)

Waist is most likely to fracture (65%)

Main worry in scaphoid fracture. What is the biggest RF for it in scaphoid fracture?

Avascular necrosis


More likely if # more proximal (due to retrograde blood flow)

Most common mechanism of scaphoid fracture and one example where it occurs

Axial load across hyper-extended and radially deviated wrist




Example: contact sports

Blood supply to scaphoid



4 clinical signs of scaphoid fracture

Snuffbox tenderness dorsally


Scaphoid tubercle tenderness volarly


Pain with resisted pronation


Pain when thumb is loaded axially

Imaging in suspected scaphoid fracture

X ray scaphoid view


(30° wrist extension, 20° ulnar deviation)




If negative and high level of suspicion, repeat X ray after 2/52

Treatment of scaphoid fracture (3)

Cast


Stable, non-displaced or no X-ray sign but high level of suspicion

ORIF


Unstable




Bone graf


If non union

What does ATLS stand for?

Advanced Trauma Life Support

Define distracting injury

Another injury which may 'distract' the patient from complaining about a possible spinal injury