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209 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

T/F: Primary shoulder OA is common

False: it is much less common than OA of major joints in the lower limbs

What movement is mostly affected by OA of the shoulder?

External rotation (but all movements are affected)

Name the common pathophysiological pathway of secondary OA of the shoulder

Major tear of the rotator cuff tendon

Confirmation of diagnosis of OA of the shoulder

Plain radiographs of the shoulder showing loss of joint space and osteosclerosis

Two typical management options of OA of the shoulder. When would each be performed? What's their impact on patient's function?

Total shoulder replacement


If there is reasonable bone stock and intact rotator cuff


Better results




Hemiarthroplasty


If glenoid cavity or rotator cuff are deficient


Reduces pain but ROM remains limited

Where do rotator cuff attach?

What is impingement syndrome?

Compression of the rotator cuff tendon between the acromion of the scapula and the humerus. 


This is typically due to inflammation of the subacromial bursa which often occurs after exercise in middle age individuals.

Compression of the rotator cuff tendon between the acromion of the scapula and the humerus.

Typical presentation of impingement syndrome

Pain on abduction of the shoulder from 45° to 120°

Management of impingement syndrome (3)

Natural resolution


Steroid injection


Surgical repair depending on underlying cause: Decompression of subacromial bursa or trimming of acromion by arthroscopy

Demographics affected by frozen shoulder

Middle age and elderly

Pathogenesis of frozen shoulder (2 words)

Capsular fibrosis

Clinical presentation of frozen shoulder

3 phases (6-12/12 each)


1) Pain and increasing stiffness


2) Stiff and less painful


3) Stiffness resolves

Think of a defrosting process

X-ray findings in frozen shoulder

None but seen on USS

How is the diagnosis of frozen shoulder made?

Clinically – Global loss of movements

Which movement is most affected in frozen shoulder?

External rotation (but all movements affected)




(Like OA)

Management of frozen shoulder (3)

NSAIDs


Physiotherapy


Local steroid injection

What does bilateral frozen shoulder suggest

Diabetes (think of icecream eaters)

23 year old presents with pain on abduction of the shoulder between 30 and 110° and reduced external rotation after a ski accident. Diagnosis?

Rotator cuff tear (more likely than impingement due to the hx of trauma)

One RF for frozen shoulder

Diabetes

Age group of OA, frozen shoulder and impingement syndrome

OA – Elderly


FS – Middle age and elderly


IS – Middle age

Direction of dislocation in Colles and Smith's fractures?

There is no dislocation

Direction of deviation and angulation in Colles and Smith's fractures

Colles – Radial and dorsal displacement and angulation




Smith – Volar displacement and volar angulation

T/F: Both Smith and Colles fractures are extra-articular

T

Fixation of Colles' fracture

Cast in palmar flexion and ulnar deviation with 3 point fixation

What is Barton's fracture?

Intra-articular fracture with radio-carpal dislocation

Management of torus fractures?

Innocuous ⟹ Splint

T/F: Salter-Harris type 1 fracture are much more common in children

T: Slipping occurs when growth plate has not fused

Most likely direction of dislocation of the hip, shoulder, knee and elbow

Shoulder – Anterior


Elbow – Posterior


Hip – Posterior


Knee – Anterior




Note that it is symmetrical since the anterior part of the lower limb is the posterior part of the upper limb

Define the different classes of haemorrhagic shock

Based on blood loss


Type 1 < 0.75L (15%)


Type 2 < 1.5L (30%)


Type 3 < 2L (40%)


Type 4 > 2L (40%)

How do the following markers typically evolve with the severity of an haemorrhagic shock:


HR


BP


Pulse pressure


RR


Urine output

HR increases


BP decreases


PP decreases


RR increases


Urine output decreases

Posterior elbow dislocation (see the olecranon)

First line management of open fracture (if not actively bleeding)

Sterile saline soaked dressing over it and photograph for medicolegal reasons

Most common septic joint in children. What is the likely organism? What imaging would you use? Management?

Septic hip


Staph aureus


USS


US-guided aspiration and broad spectrum ABx

Developmental dysplasia of the hip

Define Hilgenreiner's line

Line running between the inferior aspects of both triradiate cartilages of the acetabulums

Line running between the inferior aspects of both triradiate cartilages of the acetabulums

How is developmental dysplasia of the hip recognised on AP scan?

Small growth nucleus lies above the Hilgenreiner line

Small growth nucleus lies above the Hilgenreiner line

What gender is most at risk of developmental dysplasia of the hip?

Female because of more flexible ligaments

4 RF for developmental dysplasia of the hip

Extended breech
Family history
Oligohydraminos (not enough amniotic fluid)
Female

Breech


Family history


Oligohydraminos (not enough amniotic fluid)


Female


First born

5 signs of developmental dysplasia of the hip

Leg length discrepancy


Reduced abduction and flexion


Clunking


Barlow (out – pushing on joined knees and adducting slightly to see if you can dislocate the hip)


Ortalani (in – abduct the hip to tray and relocate the hip)



Distinguish Barlow's sign and Ortalani's sign


Both used to assess developmental dysplasia of the hip

What should be done if there is any suspicion of a developmental dysplasia of the hip

Confirm with USS (if before 4/12 of age) or X-ray (if after 4/12)

What is talipes equinovarus

Scientific name of club foot

Scientific name for club foot

Aetiology of club foot

Idiopathic – The one requiring treatment


Positional (due to position in uterus) – Can be passively brought back in place

4 signs of club foot

Cavus (midfoot)
Adducted (forefoot)
Varus (hindfoot)
Equimus (like a horse, foot pointing down)

Cavus (midfoot)


Adduction (forefoot relative to hindfoot)


Varus (hindfoot)


Equimus (like a horse, foot pointing down)

Treatment of club foot

Ponseti method


Progressive alternation of reductions and casting for up to 8 weeks followed by tenotomy of Achilles tendon




Passive repositioning


If positional club foot

Perthes disease – Avascular necrosis of femoral head

What is Perthes disease?

Emergency


Idiopathic avascular necrosis of the femoral head

Demographics at risk of Perthes disease

Primary school girls

(Think Perthes = Princess)

Presentation of Perthes disease (3)

Fatigue, pain (mostly knee), irritable hip with reduced ROM

How does Perthes disease present on X-ray?

Flattening of the femoral head

Flattening of the femoral head

Management of Perthes disease

Analgesia
Surgery

Rest


Surveillance (X-ray)


Surgery

2yo non weight bearing on right leg, T°C = 38.8, WCC=17 and ESR=42. Diagnosis?

Septic arthritis

Diagnostic criteria for septic arthritis

Kocher’s criteria


Non-weight bearing


T°C > 38.5


WCC>12


ESR>40




Points:


1 – 3%


2 – 40%


3 – 93%


4 – 99%

Note: 38.5°C is the same criteria as for paediatric sepsis.

Management of septic arthritis

Emergency washout (within 6 hours)

5 likely locations of primary tumour in bone mets

Prostate


Breast




Kidney
Thyroid
Lungs

Investigation of choice for secondary bone tumours

CT CAP

Common site of the following tumours:


– Osteosarcoma


– Ewing's sarcoma

Osteosarcoma – Metaphysis of long bones (mostly knee – 60%)


Ewing's sarcoma – Metaphysis and diaphysis of long bones (femur, tibia, humerus) and flat bones (eg pelvis)

Most common malignant tumour of bone

Metastatic carcinoma

Most common primary malignant tumour of bone

Osteosarcoma

Typical pt (epidemiology) with bone–forming tumour (osteoma, osteoid osteoma, osteosarcoma)

Male teen/young adult

Typical pt (epidemiology) with Ewing's sarcoma

Male child/teen

Symptoms of bone forming tumour

Pain worse at night


Swelling

22 ♂ found with a mass on the superior aspect of the thigh that is hard and painful (wakes him during the night) and has been growing for the last year. Cytogenetic analysis of the tumour reveals mutation to RB1 and TP23. Diagnosis?

Osteosarcoma

22 ♂ found with a mass on the superior aspect of the thigh that is hard and painful (wakes him during the night) and has been growing for the last year. Histology reveals osteoblasts with pleomorphism, areas of haemorrhage and necrosis. Diagnosis?

Osteosarcoma

14 ♂ presents with swelling around his arm near the shoulder that has been progressively worse for the past 2 weeks. The area is also painful (particularly at night). WCC ➚ and ESR ➚. What is the differential and how will you establish a diagnosis?

XR and thenBiopsy (to differentiate Ewing's sarcoma from osteomyelitis)

14 ♂ presents with swelling around his arm near the shoulder that has been progressively worse for the past 2 weeks. The area is also painful (particularly at night). WCC ➚ and ESR ➚. Biopsy and cytogenetics reveals a 11–22 translocation. Diagnosis?

Ewing's sarcoma

True or false: Ewing's sarcoma are high grade tumour

True (they are made of round cells)



Osteosarcoma



Osteosarcoma



Ewing's sarcoma

Which is what

Which is what



Three common features of Ewing's sarcoma on X-ray

Permeation (76%) – Poorly defined "holes" within bone


Laminated periosteal reaction (57%) – Onion skin


Sclerosis (40%)

Three common features of osteosarcoma on X-ray

Medullary and cortical destruction


Permeation – Poorly defined "holes" within bone


Aggressive periosteal reaction – Sunburst

T/F: periosteal reaction (sunburst vs onion skin) enables distinction of Ewing's sarcoma from osteosarcoma

True and False: both can present with both but Ewing's sarcoma most commonly present with onion skin while osteosarcoma most commonly present with sunburst

Swelling in the knee that has been growing for years in a teenager with night pain. Likely diagnosis

Osteosarcoma (60% occur in the knee)

What imaging is used for staging of osteosarcoma

Local staging by MRI (for skip lesions) prior to biopsy


Distant staging with bone scan and chest CT

Management of osteosarcoma

Aggressive surgical resection (often with amputation) followed by chemotherapy

Where do osteosarcoma metastasise (3)?

Lungs


Other bones


Lymph nodes

Management of Ewing's sarcoma

Chemotherapy ± Surgery/Radiotherapy depending of the location and size of the tumour

Which location of Ewing's sarcoma confer the worst prognosis?

Pelvis

Where do Ewing's sarcoma metastasise (2)?

Lungs


Other bones


(Not lymph nodes, unlike Osteosarcoma)

Name of the sign and disease where it occurs

Name of the sign and disease where it occurs

Codman's triangle


Most commonly occur in osteosarcoma (but also in Ewing's sarcoma)

Name of the sign and disease where it occurs

Name of the sign and disease where it occurs

Sunburst


Most commonly occur in osteosarcoma (but also in Ewing's sarcoma)

Name of the sign and disease where it occurs

Name of the sign and disease where it occurs

Onion skin


Most commonly occur in Ewing's sarcoma (but also in osteosarcoma)



Dupuytren's contracture

Pathogenesis of Dupuytren's contracture

Contraction of palmar fascia so that fingers (mostly little and ring fingers) cannot contract

Contraction of palmar fascia so that fingers (mostly little and ring fingers) cannot contract

What joints are affected by Dupuytren's contracture

MCP and sometimes PIP/DIP

Management of Dupuytren's contracture

Surgery (fasciotomy) if MCP contracture > 30° or PIP/DIP contracture > 10°




If caught too late, amputation of the fingers (that are on the way) can be considered

Demographic affected by Dupuytren's contracture

Males > 65

Ottawa rules for foot x-ray

Pain in the midfoot zone and any one of the following
A) Bone tenderness over base of 5th metatarsal 
B) Bone tenderness over navicular
C) Inability to bear weight both immediately and in the emergency department for four steps

Pain in the midfoot zone and any one of the following


A) Bone tenderness over base of 5th metatarsal


B) Bone tenderness over navicular


C) Inability to bear weight both immediately and in the emergency department for four steps

Ottawa rules for ankle x-ray

Pain in the malleolar zone and any one of the following
A) Bone tenderness along the distal 6 cm of the posterior edge of the tibia or tip of the medial malleolus 
B) Bone tenderness along the distal 6 cm of the posterior edge of the fibula or t...

Pain in the malleolar zone and any one of the following


A) Bone tenderness along the distal 6 cm of the posterior edge of the tibia or tip of the medial malleolus


B) Bone tenderness along the distal 6 cm of the posterior edge of the fibula or tip of the lateral malleolus


C) Inability to bear weight both immediately and in the emergency department for four steps

Ottawa rules for knee x-ray

Knee injury and any of the following
A) > 55
B) Tenderness in patella only
C) Tenderness at head of fibula
D) Inability to flex at 90°
E) Inability to bear weight both immediately and in the emergency department for four steps 

Knee injury and any of the following


A) > 55


B) Tenderness in patella only


C) Tenderness at head of fibula


D) Inability to flex at 90°


E) Inability to bear weight both immediately and in the emergency department for four steps

Patient presents with back pain. O/E there is saddle anaesthesia. Name one possible diagnosis, one other sign and two elements of immediate management.

Cauda equina syndrome


Reduced anal tone on PR


Urgent MRI and steroids

Where can you test dermatomes of L4, L5 and S1


L4 – Medial malleolus
L5 – 1st dorsal webspace on foot
S1 – Outside little toe/plantar side 



L4 – Medial malleolus


L5 – 1st dorsal webspace on foot


S1 – Outside little toe/plantar side

Patient with back pain and saddle anaesthesia is found to have lost sensation over the lateral aspect of his lower leg and over big toe but intact sensation over medial malleolus. Where is the lesion if this is cause by disc prolapse?

L4/5 prolapse impairing L5 but preserving L4 nerve roots.

L4/5 prolapse impairing L5 but preserving L4 nerve roots.

Where can you test the peripheral dermatomes of the radial, median and ulnar nerves?

Radial – 1st webspace (dorsal)
Median – Index (palmar)
Ulnar – Little (palmar)

Radial – 1st webspace (dorsal)


Median – Index (palmar)


Ulnar – Little (palmar)

T/F – Posterior interosseous nerve only carries sensory information

False: it only carries motor information

What structure is at risk when there is humeral fracture

Radial nerve

Name and describe two tests that can be used to diagnose carpal tunnel syndrome.

Phalen's test (displayed)
Hold in position for 1min
Positive if symptoms of CTS are exaggerated/elicited

Tinel's test
Tapping over the carpal tunnel causes paraesthaesia

Phalen's test (displayed)


Hold in position for 1min


Positive if symptoms of CTS are exaggerated/elicited




Tinel's test


Tapping over the carpal tunnel causes paraesthaesia

How can carpal tunnel syndrome be confirmed if in doubtM?

Nerve conduction study

10 causes of carpal tunnel syndrome

ICRAMPS (Cx2, Ax2, Mx3, Sx2)


Idiopathic
Cushing's, Colles
Rheumatoid arthritis
Acromegaly, Amyloid
Mass, Myxoedema, Mellitus (diabetes)
Pregnancy
SLE, Sarcoidosis

Dermatome and myotome of median nerve

1/2 LOAF 
Lumbricals 1 and 2 
Opponens pollicis 
Abductor pollicis brevis 
Flexor pollicis brevis

1/2 LOAF


Lumbricals 1 and 2


Opponens pollicis


Abductor pollicis brevis


Flexor pollicis brevis

Boundaries of the carpal tunnel

Floor – Carpus (scaphoid, trapezium, pisiform, hook hamate)

Roof – Flexor retinaculum

Floor – Carpus (scaphoid, trapezium, pisiform, hook hamate)




Roof – Flexor retinaculum

Content of the carpal tunnel

Median nerve
Flexor digitorum superficialis
Flexor digitorum profundus
Flexor pollicis longus

Median nerve


Flexor digitorum superficialis


Flexor digitorum profundus


Flexor pollicis longus

Management of carpal tunnel syndrome

From first line to third line


1) Night splint


2) Steroid injection


3) Orthopaedic referral for division of flexor retinaculum



Name the rotator cuff muscles, their peripheral innervation and nerve root(s)

Supraspinatus and Infraspinatus


Suprascapular nerve – C5,6




Subscapularis


Subscapular nerve – C5,6




Teres minor


Axillary nerve – C5,6



Pattern recognition


Structures at risk if you fall from height (2)

Calcaneus


Thoracic vertebrae

Pattern recognition


Structures at risk in dashboard injury (3)

Posterior hip dislocation
Posterior cruciate ligaments
Patellar fracture

Posterior hip dislocation


Posterior cruciate ligaments


Patellar fracture

Pattern recognition


Structure at risk in motorbike accident

Brachial plexus (upper trunk)

Signs of injury to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus

Erb's palsy

Erb's palsy

What fraction of hip replacement are functioning at 10 years? 20years?

90% at 10 years


80% at 20 years

Compare complications of hip and knee replacements (4)

Hip


Dislocation


Leg length discrepancy


Infection


Aseptic loosening




Knee


No dislocation


No leg length discrepancy


Infection


Aseptic loosening

What is aseptic loosening

Failure of the bond between an implant and bone in the absence of infection.

What does the ACL and PCL connect and what movements do they restrain?

ACL


Medial tibia to lateral femur


Prevents anterior translocation of tibia on femur




PCL


Lateral tibia to medial femur


Prevents posterior translocation of tibia on femur

T/F: ACL prevents posterior translocation of femur on tibia

True: this is equivalent to anterior translocation of tibia on femur

Name that sign. Why and when does it occur? Which side is affected?

Name that sign. Why and when does it occur? Which side is affected?

Trendelenburg's sign
Left leg is affected

Caused by weak left abductors that normally keeps the hip straight.

Trendelenburg's sign


Left leg is affected




Caused by weak left abductors that normally keeps the hip straight.

Which muscles enable normal abduction of the hip when walking? What is their innervation

Glutenus medius and minimus – Superior gluteal nerve (lesion to this nerve causes positive Trendelenburg's sign)

Glutenus medius and minimus – Superior gluteal nerve (lesion to this nerve causes positive Trendelenburg's sign)

What structures can be damaged when there is volar cut to the wrist (9)

Flexor tendons


Flexor digitorum superficialis


Flexor digitorum profundus


Flexor carpi ulnaris


Flexor carpi radialis


Flexor pollicis longus

Other tendon


Palmaris longus tendon (not always present)




NV


Ulnar nerve


Median nerve


Ulnar artery


(Radial artery runs deeper and more laterally)

Outline the motor, sensory, and autonomic symptoms of cauda equina syndrome

Motor


Flaccid leg weakness and decreased anal sphincter tone on PR




Reflexes


Absent in the leg




Sensory


Loss in root distribution and low back pain




Autonomic


Constipation, urinary retention, impotence (think PNS symptoms)

Most common aetiology of cauda equina

Herniated disc

Does cauda equina syndrome cause SNS lesion or PNS lesion symptoms? Why?

PNS lesion symptoms: constipation, urinary retention, impotence




Because the PNS nerves to the abdominal viscera emerge from S2–S4 which are part of the cauda equina whereas the most caudal SNS nerves emerge from L2 which is just at the upper limit of the cauda equina so unless the lesion is at the top of the cauda equina (very unlikely), no SNS nerve will be damaged while all PNS nerves may be affected. Remember also that the most likely cause for cauda equina syndrome is massive disc herniation and that the most likely discs to herniate are L4–L5 and L5–S1, both of which would affect all PNS.

What element of history (2) and examination (3) would suggest cauda equina in a patient with back pain?

Hx


Saddle anaesthesia


Sphincter dysfunction (urinary of faecal incontinence)




Examination


Severe or progressive lower limb neurological deficit


Unexpected laxity of the anal sphincter


Perianal/Perineal sensory loss

Where does the cauda equina begin?

L1/L2

Besides disc herniation, name 3 other causes of cauda equina syndrome

Spinal stenosis


Infection/Inflammation within spinal canal


Tumour


Spinal injury

Significance of bilateral signs in cauda equina syndrome

Central disc prolapse

Management of cauda equina syndrome

Emergency


MRI to confirm diagnosis


Urgent (asap) surgical decompression by removing the disc

Patient presents with a finger that appears perfectly normal. However, when flexing it, a click is heard and the finger is stuck in its flexed position. Name of the condition, pathogenesis, management.

Name
Trigger finger

Pathogenesis
Thickening of the flexor tendon so that tendon does not move freely in and out of the tunnel from palm to finger.

Management
Steroid injection
Surgical opening of the mouth of the tendon tunnel

Name


Trigger finger




Pathogenesis


Thickening of the flexor tendon so that tendon does not move freely in and out of the tunnel from palm to finger.




Management


Steroid injection


Surgical opening of the mouth of the tendon tunnel

3 RF for trigger finger

Repeated trauma to palm


RA


DM

T/F: the triggered finger can be brought back to its position by the other hand

Trye

Most common fingers to present with trigger finger (2)

Ring and middle

What triggers the development of frozen shoulder?

Strenuous use of the shoulder (eg painting a ceiling) or injury to shoulder

Pattern recognition


50 year old lady cannot move her shoulder following two days painting the ceiling

Frozen shoulder

Pattern recognition


Pain occurring in a limited arc of abduction of the shoulder without history of trauma (60–120°—painful arc syndrome)

Impingement syndrome

What causes impingement syndrome?

A) Inflammation of the subacromial bursa which often occurs after exercise in middle age individuals.


B) Beaking of the underside of the acromion due to aging.

What makes the repair of rotator cuff injury difficult?

They have poor blood supply so healing is often compromised

Pattern recognition


Trauma with painful arc

Rotator cuff tear

Pattern recognition


Diabetic middle age with hx of shoulder pain that is now stiff but no more painful

Frozen shoulder

What rotator cuff problem may occur following shoulder dislocation?

Rotator cuff tear

Investigation in rotator cuff tear

X-ray to rule out fractures


Then MRI or USS to delineate the tendons of the rotator cuff

Management of rotator cuff tear

Refer for orthopaedic surgery (open or arthroscopic)

How is developmental dysplasia of the hip corrected if caught early? if left to later in life?

Early
Splints that hold the hip in abduction and internal rotation so that the femoral head grows within the acetabulum

Late
Surgical repair

Early


Splints that hold the hip in abduction and internal rotation so that the femoral head grows within the acetabulum




Late


Surgical repair

In practice, how is developmental dysplasia of the hip diagnosed?

A) High risk babies (breech or family history) ⟹ Screening with USS in the first 2/12 of life


B) Part of the clinical screening of newborn


C) Undetected, presents with limp or frequent falls

Most common complication of Perthes disease

Early arthritis

Pattern recognition


14yo boy obese with pain at rest in the knee and a limp. What should you exclude?

Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE)

Pattern recognition


14yo boy tall and slim with pain at rest in the knee and a limp. What should you exclude?

Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE)

What is slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE)?

Femoral epiphysis slips with respect to the femur usually in a postero-inferior direction

Femoral epiphysis slips with respect to the femur usually in a postero-inferior direction

What movements are impaired in slipped upper femoral epiphysis?

Most hip movements, particularly abduction and internal rotation

How may the leg appear in a patient with slipped upper femoral epiphysis (2)?

Shortened and externally rotated

What demographics is mostly affected by SUFE?

Teenage boys (10-15)

Management of slipped upper femoral epiphysis

1) Confirm with X-ray


2) Surgical pinning or reconstructive surgery


3) Monitor other hip

3 complications of slipped upper femoral epiphysis

Avascular necrosis
Coxa vara 
Early osteoarthritis

Avascular necrosis


Coxa vara


Early osteoarthritis

Slipped upper femoral epiphysis on the left

T/F: Bilateral SUFE is common

True (20%)


Syndactyly

Management of syndactyly

Separation and skin grafting at 4y (only for cosmetic reasons)

Cerebral palsy

Define cerebral palsy

Injury of any sort (mechanical, hypoxic...) to immature brain (< 2y) resulting in upper motor neurone disease

How does cerebral palsy present (evolution)

1°) Floppy


2°) Slow development


3°) Spasticity of variable parts of the body

T/F: Intelligence is often affected in children with cerebral palsy

False: in many cases it is intact but motor retardation acts as a false positive

T/F: Cerebral palsy is a progressive disease

False: although its manifestations may change with development of the child

What is spasticity?

Increased tone that is velocity-dependent

Besides spasticity, what other 3 motor abnormality can be present in cerebral palsy?

Athetosis
Ataxia 
Rigidity 

Athetosis


Ataxia


Rigidity

Management of cerebral palsy at the spastic stage (2)

Stretching


Botulinum toxin




Most importantly: try to enable the child to get as much out of life as possible

Two long term complications of cerebral palsy and their management

Muscle shortening ⟹ Serial casting, botulinum toxin, muscle lengthening surgery




Secondary bone changes ⟹ Osteotomy



Outline the structure of vertebral discs. What prolapses in prolapse disc?

Nucleus pulposus prolapses through a rupture in the annulus

Nucleus pulposus prolapses through a rupture in the annulus

3 outcomes of disc herniation

Compression of a nerve root


Compression of the spinal cord


Compression of the cauda equina

How does compression of the nerve root present?

Radiculopathy – Shooting pain, numbness and weakness in the distribution of the affected nerve

What is sciatica?

Radiculopathy (due to compression of a nerve root) in the root supplying the sciatic nerve (L4-S3)

Describe the sensory, motor and reflex affected by compression of L4, L5 and S1.



Normal spine

Normal spine

Herniated disc

Herniated disc

Normal spine

Management of herniated disc

Analgesia


Investigate for cauda equina syndrome (confirm with MRI if needed)

75 year old man with leg pain that are worse on walking and standing and relieved by lying flat. Two differentials and how you will distinguish them

Claudication (abnormal vascular exam)


Spinal stenosis (normal vascular exam)

What causes spinal stenosis?

Combination of disc herniation and arthritis of the facet joints at the back of the spine

Combination of disc herniation and arthritis of the facet joints at the back of the spine

Pattern recognition


Leg pain when walking but better when walking in a supermarket

Spinal stenosis (leaning on the trolley helps opening the spinal canal)

Treatment of spinal stenosis (2)

Epidural steroid injection


or


Surgical decompression by laminectomy (removing back of one or more vertebrae)

Scoliosis

Significance of scoliosis that disappears on bending forward

Postural scoliosis: no clinical significance

3 clinical signs of scoliosis

Spinal curvature


Difference in shoulder height


Difference in space between trunk and upper limbs

Scoliosis with night pain. What should you do?

Suspect cancer ⟹ Refer urgently to orthopaedics

3 RF for scoliosis

Adolescent of tall parents who are growing fast

Management of idiopathic scoliosis

Depends on individual. Rule of thumb – Cobb angle

< 25° – Observe
25°-40° – Brace
> 40° – Consider surgery

Depends on individual. Rule of thumb – Cobb angle




< 25° – Observe


25°-40° – Brace


> 40° – Consider surgery

T/F : Scoliosis is curvature of the spine in the coronal plane

False, curvature occurs in all 3 planes: rotation (axial), lateral bending (coronal) and lordosis (sagittal)

Most common deformity observed in scoliosis

Right thoracic curve

Why is it difficult to assess scoliosis in patients? What can be done about it?

It tend to be compensated for thoracic bend by bending the lumbar spine.
Adam's forward bend eliminates this compensation

It tend to be compensated for thoracic bend by bending the lumbar spine.



Adam's forward bend eliminates this compensation

Bunion

What is hallux valgus?

Scientific term for bunion which also explains the pathogenesis: distal part of big toe bends laterally

Pathogenesis of bunion

Lateral bending of big toe leaving a prominent head of the metatarsal bone which forms a bursa
over it while the skin becomes inflamed 

Lateral bending of big toe leaving a prominent head of the metatarsal bone which forms a bursaover it while the skin becomes inflamed

Management of bunion

Conservative – Adapted shoewear




Surgery – Osteotomy through the metatarsal and removal of the bursa

RF for bunion

Women wearing narrow shoes

Claw toes

What are claw toes



What causes claw toes?

Inflammatory joint disease (eg RA) causing dorsal dislocation of the metatarso-phalangeal (MTP) joint and flexion of the PIP and DIP joints

Inflammatory joint disease (eg RA) causing dorsal dislocation of the metatarso-phalangeal (MTP) joint and flexion of the PIP and DIP joints

How do patients with claw toes present? Name the main symptom

Metatarsalgia 
Metatarsal heads become very painful to walk on ("It feels like walking bare foot on pebbles (cailloux)")

Metatarsalgia


Metatarsal heads become very painful to walk on ("It feels like walking bare foot on pebbles (cailloux)")

Management of claw toes

Surgery to straighten the toe and bring a thick pad of tissue over the metatarsal heads




+ Padded shoes

3 deformities present in claw toes

Extension of MTP
Flexion of DIP and PIP

Extension of MTP


Flexion of DIP and PIP

Beside claw toes, name 4 causes of metatarsalgia

Synovitis


Stress fracture


Sesamoid fracture


Injury

Define flat feet and describe a test to confirm it

Complete failure of the foot to form an arch 
Windlass test (picture) – Dorsiflex the toes (or ask patient to stand on toes). Positive if still no arch. 

Complete failure of the foot to form an arch


Windlass test (picture) – Dorsiflex the toes (or ask patient to stand on toes). Positive if still no arch.

Name and describe one congenital cause of flat feet

Tarsal coalition


Abnormal connections betweenbones of the foot resulting in rigid foot deformity:

Two most common forms of tarsal coalition and their presentation on radiographs

Calcaneonavicular coalition (40%) – Ant-eater


Talocalcaneal coalition (50%) – C-sign

C sign – Bony connection between talus and calcaneum in tarsal coalition

Ant-eater sign – Bony connection between navicular and calcaneum in tarsal coalition

T/F – Congenital tarsal coalition present in young children

False – During early childhood, cartilage is flexible and coalition is therefore silent. CTC thus mostly presents in 20s.

Investigation of congenital tarsal coalition

X-rays showing C-sign (Talocalcaneal coalition) or ant-eater sign (Calcaneonavicular coalition)

Management of tarsal coalition

Rest in a cast for 6 weeks to resolve ankle pain


If it fails, surgical resection of coalition