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222 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Define, identify, and explain the purpose for each of the following dosage forms: Scored tablets
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Tablet that may be cut into a smaller dose.
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Define, identify, and explain the purpose for each of the following dosage forms: Capsule
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containers made of gelatin and glycerin that house medications (liquids or powers). Can’t be broken down.
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Define, identify, and explain the purpose for each of the following dosage forms: Elixir
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A hydroalcoholic liquid that contains sweeteners, flavorings, and a medicinal agent.
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Define, identify, and explain the purpose for each of the following dosage forms: Emulsion
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Oily substances dispersed in an aqueous medium with an additive that stabilizes the mixture.
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Define, identify, and explain the purpose for each of the following dosage forms: Suspension
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Usually separate after a long shelf life and must be shaken well before use to provide a uniform dose.
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What are the “5 Rights” of drug administration?
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Right patient. Right drug. Right dose. Right route. Right time and frequency.
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Boluses are used in the treatment of ______________ animals and are administered with a ________________.
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Large, Balling gun
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Describe how medications are administered using the following routes. Oral administration of liquids.
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Through a syringe with the needle removed, orogastric or nasogastric tube or in drinking water.
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Describe how medications are administered using the following routes. Parenteral administration of injectable medications. SC
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Injected at a 45 degree angle in the subcutaneous tissue
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Describe how medications are administered using the following routes. Parenteral administration of injectable medications. IM
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Injected at a 90 degree angle into the muscle layer
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Describe how medications are administered using the following routes. Parenteral administration of injectable medications. ID
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Injected just below the outer layer of skin (epidermis)
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Describe how medications are administered using the following routes. Parenteral administration of injectable medications. IV
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Injected directly into a vein.
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Describe how medications are administered using the following routes. Parenteral administration of injectable medications. Intra-articular
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Injected within a joint.
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Describe how medications are administered using the following routes. Parenteral administration of injectable medications. Intra-arterial
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Injected within an artery.
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Describe how medications are administered using the following routes. Parenteral administration of injectable medications. Intracardiac
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Injected within the heart.
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Describe how medications are administered using the following routes. Parenteral administration of injectable medications. Intramedullary
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Injected within the medulla oblongata, the spinal cord or the marrow cavity of a bone.
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Describe how medications are administered using the following routes. Parenteral administration of injectable medications. Epidural
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Injected into the epidural space of the spine.
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What is extravasation?
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The leakage of intravenous drugs from the vein into the surrounding tissue.
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What can be the result of extravasation of a medication?
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Damage may include nerves, tendons, and joints. It may involve full skin thickness lose.
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What is the first line of treatment if this occurs?
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Remove as much of the offending fluid as possible. Application of DMSO topically to reduce inflammation.
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After a needle has been used for an injection, it should be discarded in what type of container?
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Sharps container.
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Oral drugs should never be used in animals that are ______________ .
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Vomiting.
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What is the benefit of administering medications IV?
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The most rapid and effective drug administration.
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What is the benefit of placing an IV catheter?
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For animals for need repeated injections it lessens vein damage and pain for the animal.
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Where are the most common sites to place an IV catheter?
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Cephalic vein, jugular vein, the lateral saphenous vein, and occasionally the femoral veins.
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How often should an indwelling IV catheter be replaced in a patient?
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Every 72 hours.
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Why should medications that are given by injection not be stored or kept in a syringe?
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some drugs may be absorbed into the plastic makeup of the syringe, resulting in an inadequate dose.
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What signs may the patient show that could indicate an allergic or adverse reaction is occurring?
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Swelling around the face or extremities, dermatitis, swelling and edema, excessive salivation.
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T or F. A technician may administer medications that have been authorized by the examining veterinarian of the patient.
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True.
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T or F. A technician may prescribe medication for treatment of a condition in a patient.
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False.
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What is an OTC medication?
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A medication available without a prescription.
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How is an OTC different than a prescription medication?
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OTC meds can be purchased by anyone.
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Compendial or official name
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The name of an article for which a monograph is provided in an official compendia (e.g., United States Pharmacopeia, National Formulary, or Homeopathic Pharmacopeia) recognized by the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. An article may be an official substance or official preparation.
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Proprietary or brand name
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The exclusive name of a drug substance or drug product owned by a company under trademark law regardless of registration status with the PTO.
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Generic
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An official or unofficial designation by which a drug is commonly available, unprotected by a trademark.
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List and describe the basic purpose of the Central Nervous System.
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Control system of the nervous system (monitor, convey, and process signals from receptors throughout the body. Consists of the brain and spinal cord.
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What is a receptor and what role does it play in the nervous system?
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A target cell that is excited or inhibited by the neurotransmitter.
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What is a neurotransmitter?
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A chemical substance released from the axon terminal of a presynaptic neuron.
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What is the role of the Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)?
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Monitor and control internal body functions such as digestive processes, blood volume, cardiac output and kidney function.
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Within the ANS, list the 2 major neurotransmitters that exist in mammals.
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Acetylcholine (Ach) and noreprinephrine (NE).
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What is the primary neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system?
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NE.
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What is the primary neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system?
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Ach.
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How does the body respond to a sympathetic response to a stimulus? (How does the body react to the fight-or-flight response?)
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Heart rate increases, bronchioles are dilated for better ventilation, and blood vessels to the heart and skeletal muscle dilate to increase blood supply.
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How does the body react in a parasympathetic response?
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Heart rate slows, bronchioles constrict to restrict airways, and blood vessels constrict in the heart and skeletal muscle.
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How will drugs used in the ANS affect the neurotransmitters?
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May mimic or block all or selected effects of the NT, or they may alter the synthesis, storage, release, or degradation, and uptake of the transmitter.
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How do cholinomimetic agents work in the nervous system?
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They mimic the stimulatory effects of Ach.
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Sympathomimetic and sympathyolytic agent block which neurotransmitter?
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NE
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List and briefly describe the cholinomimetic agents discussed in this section of your textbook.
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Bethanechol –gastric atony or stasis and urinary retention. Adverse side effects include vomiting, diarrhea, salivation, and anorexia. Neostamine – gastric atony or gut stasis, urinary retention and to reverse certain neuromuscular blocking agents used during surgery. Adverse side effects –gastrointestinal effects, ophthalmic effects, cardiovascular effects, muscle cramps and weakness.
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List the differences between muscarinic and nicotinic receptors.
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Muscarinic receptor are predominant in smooth muscle, heart, and glands. Nicotinic receptors are predominatly at the end plates of skeletal muscle and autonomic ganglia.
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According to your textbook, which anticholinergic is most commonly used in veterinary practice?
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Atropine.
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List the effects of Atropine on: Salivation and bronchial secretions
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Decreased.
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List the effects of Atropine on: Eye
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Dilation.
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List the effects of Atropine on: Gastrointestinal tract
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Decreased motility and tone.
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List the effects of Atropine on: Urinary tract
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Decreased motility and tone.
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List the effects of Atropine on: Organophosphates
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Antidote.
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Briefly describe the use of neuromuscular blocking agents in veterinary medicine.
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An adjuvant in surgical anesthesia to obtain relaxation of skeletal muscles, particularly of the abdominal wall and in orthopedic surgery.
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What adverse side effects may indicate overdose of neuromuscular blocking agents?
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Increased risk of hypotension, histamine release, and prolonged muscle blockade.
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How are sympathomimetic agents used in veterinary medicine?
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Allergic reactions, bronchospasm, cardiac effects, local hemostasis, prolongation of the effects of local anesthesia.
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Which drug may be used to treat cardiac arrest and anaphylactic shock?
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Epinephrine.
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How are sympatholytic agents used in veterinary medicine?
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Preoperative drugs and drugs used in anesthetic emergencies.
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How are phenothiazine tranquilizers used in veterinary medicine?
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Antihistimes, anti emetics, and anti-motion sickness.
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List examples of phenothiazine tranquilizers:
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Chlorpromazine, acepromazine
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What are some of the adverse side effects of phenothiazine tranquilizers?
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Drop in blood pressure, paralysis of the retractor penis muscle in horses, and lowering of the seizure threshold in dogs.
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How are alpha2 agonists used in veterinary patients?
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Analgesia and sedation.
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List at least 2 examples of alpha2 agonists.
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Propofol, Yohimbine.
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If Xylazine and Detomidine are alpha2 agonists and the effects can be blocked with Yohimbine and Antipamezole, these drugs are alpha2
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Antagonists
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Propofol is becoming more widely utilized in veterinary practice. What are some of the effects of Propofol?
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Respiratory depression, increased vasodilation and negative inotropy when used in conjunction with preanesthetic agenst such as acepromazine or opiates.
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When should this product be used with caution in a patient? (i.e. compromised body systems, shock, etc.)
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Preexisting cardiopulmonary disease, in shock, suffering from trauma.
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True or False. Seizures or convulsions in ALL dogs may be controlled with the use of anticonvulsants.
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False.
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How are anticonvulsants used in veterinary patients?
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Seizures, premedication for surgery.
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List examples of drugs that are anticonvulsants.
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Benzodiazepine, Midazolam.
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List the drug class for Midazolam
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Anticonvulsants
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List the drug class for Antipamezole hydrochloride
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Adrenergic Blocking Agent/Sympatholytics
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List the drug class for Neostigmine
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Chloinergic/Cholinomimetics
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List the drug class for Vecuronium
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Neuromuscular Blocking Agent
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List the drug class for Atropine
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Anticholinergics
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List the drug class for Xylazine
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Adrenergic Blocking Agent
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List the drug class for Guaifenesin
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Neuromuscluar Blocking
Agent |
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List the drug class for Diazepam
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Anticonvulsants
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List the drug class for Yohimbine
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Adrenergic Blocking Agent
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List the drug class for Acepromazine
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Phenothiazine
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List the drug class for Epinephrine
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Sympathomimetic
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List the drug class for Pentobarbital
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Anticonvulsants
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List the drug class for Detomidine
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Adrenergic Blocking Agent/ Sympatholytic
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List the drug class for Chlorpromazine
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Phenothiazines
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List the drug class for Phenobarbital sodium
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Anticonvulsants
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List the drug class for Timolol
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Adrenergic Blocking Agent/ Sympatholytic
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List the drug class for Phentolamine
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Adrenergic Blocking Agent/ Sympatholytic
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List the drug class for Norepinephrine
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Sympathomimetic
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List the drug class for Glycopyrrolate
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Anticholinergics
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Which of the following is NOT ideal for canines used for creating a technique chart?
A) clean short hair coat B) moderate muscling C) sedated D) average conformation |
Sedated
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Which of the following does NOT require a 50% increase in mAs?
A) pleural fluid B) plaster cast C) neonatal patient D) radiographic contrast media |
c/ neonatal patient
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True or false. Some pathogenic conditions including ascites and cardiomegaly require an increase in mAs of up to 75% to increase radiographic density
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False.
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A variable _________ chart is the most popular technique chart used by veterinarians
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kVp
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It is recommended that a grid is used in 10 cm thickness and above due to an increase in:
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scatter radiation
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Any body part exceeding this measurement requires the use of a grid to reduce fog-producing scatter radiation
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10 cm
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In selecting the best film during a technique chart development, the films should be compared for consistent ___________ between exposures
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density
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Using Santes' rule, calculate kVp with the following information:
Tissue thickness= 12 cm Grid factor= 14 SID= 40 inches |
78
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True or false. If you change focal- film distance, the technique chart will no longer be correct
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True.
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True or false. Incorrect diagnosis have been made as a result of screen artifacts
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True.
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When selecting a canine for developing a technique chart, the average weight should be ______ pounds
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50
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The purpose of the x-ray film is to provide a permanent record containing diagnostic information for
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present use and future evaluation.
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To absorb backscatter, the back of most cassettes is lined with
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lead.
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The greater the number of silver halide crystals that are converted to metallic silver, the _________ the film will be once developed
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blacker
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Intensifying screens allow a ____________ to be used
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lower mAs
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At ______ kV and higher, the increase of kilovoltage should be in steps of 3 kV per centimeter
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80
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A technique chart is formulated by subtracting ____ kV for each decrease in centimeter of thickness
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2
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True or false. A latent image is an invisible image is exposed to ionizing radiation before processing
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true
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True or false. Combination of variable kilovoltage and mAs technique charts are best
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True.
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It is recommended that a grid is used in 10 cm thickness and above due to an increase in
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scatter radiation
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Which of the following should remain constant during trial exposures?
A) type of cassette B) focal-film distance C) x-ray film type D) all of the above |
d) all of the above.
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For trial exposure, a normal dog with a lateral measurement of ________ should be selected
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8 - 10 cm.
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The main disadvantage of rare earth screens is
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cost
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Which of the following film-screen systems is MOST commonly used in veterinary medicine?
A) high-speed systems B) low-speed system C) medium-speed system D) fastest system possible |
c) medium - speed system
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True or false. Technique charts, once made, can be used on different x-ray machines as long as they are from the same manufacturer
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False.
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Which of the following is NOT recommended for screen cleaning use.
A) commercial solutions B) vinegar C) soap and water D) ethyl alcohol |
b) vinegar
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Large crystals= __________ screens, ___________ detail, ___________ grain
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faster; less; higher
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When visible light interacts with the silver halide crystal, a/an ____________ image is formed
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invisible
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A variable _________ chart is the most popular technique chart used by veterinarians
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kVp
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If a radiograph is too light after taking a view of the lateral abdomen, what change may be recommended
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Increase mAs 30% - 50%
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A processed film that has not been exposed to ionizing radiation or visible light will appear
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clear.
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True or false. Non-screen films are sensitive to wavelengths of light emitted from intensifying screens
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False.
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True or false. Technique charts are developed for a specific focal-film distance, film, cassette screen, and development process
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True.
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Small areas of cassettes shielded from the primary beam are intended for
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film identification.
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True or false. A technique chart is formulated by a series of trial and error
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True.
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A technique chart promotes safety for the patient and personnel by
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prevents need for second radiographs
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20 mA x 1/2 sec = ____ mAs
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10 mAs
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Which of the following increases radiographic density?
A) Thinner bone structures and tissues B) Increased mAs C) Decreased kVp D) Increased density of the body part being radiographed |
b) increased mAs
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The visible different between blacks, whites, and grays of a structure on a radiograph is referred to as
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radiographic contrast
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To prevent magnification and distortion of the object being radiographed, the patient must
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be as parallel to the film as possible and be as close to the film as possible
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True or false. When completing a radiographic exposure, if you double the mAs, you will double the radiographic density
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True.
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Ways to increase penetrating power of x-rays include
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increasing kVp
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The primary exposure factor that controls scatter radiation is
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kVp
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300 mA x 1/40 sec = ____ mAs
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7.5 mAs
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When completing soft tissue radiographs, such as thoracic examinations, use
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higher kVp, lower mAs
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True or false. The quality of an x-ray beam is determined by its ability to penetrate through tissues or structures
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True.
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The mA setting controls
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the amount of x-rays produced at the target area
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The distance from the focal spot of the x-ray tube to the image receptor is the
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Source Image Distance
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Which of the following would be required to x-ray bone structures?
A) higher kVp; higher mAs B) lower kVp; higher mAs C) lower kVP; lower mAs D) higher kVP; lower mAs E) These are not exposure factors when radiographing bone structures |
b) lower kVp; higher mAs
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A higher kVp setting allows for a _____ mAs and _______ exposure time
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lower; faster
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When preparing to take a radiograph, which of the following must be selected:
A) Length of exposure (time) B) Kilovoltage C) Millamperage D) All of the above E) None of the above |
d) all of the above.
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The primary exposure factor that controls scatter radiation is:
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kVp
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Being able to see the defined edge of an anatomic structure on a radiograph is referred to as the
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radiographic detail
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kVp settings affect the
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scale of contrast
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When the mA increases, density, or film blackness will
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increase
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The focal-film distance in veterinary practices normally ranges:
A) is directly proportional to the intensity of the x-radiation B) must be considered each time the control panel is set C) changes only a few inches between patients and is negligible. D) most commonly ranges from 36-40 cm in veterinary practices. E) all of the above. |
e) all of the above.
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True or false. When completing a radiographic exposure, if you double the mAs, you will double the radiographic density
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True.
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True or false. If you increase the film distance from the x-ray source, you will also decrease the x-ray bean intensity
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True.
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When completing soft tissue radiographs, such as thoracic examinations, use
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higher kVp, lower mAs
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The most common cause of poor contrast on a radiograph is
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incorrectly set exposure factors
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When radiographing skeletal, or bone, structures, use
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lower kVp, higher mAs
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When the mA increases, density, or film blackness will
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increase.
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True or false. The quality of an x-ray beam is determined by its ability to penetrate through tissues or structures
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True.
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True or false. When completing a radiographic exposure, if you double the mAs, you will double the radiographic density
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True.
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The distance from the focal spot of the x-ray tube to the image receptor is the
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Source Image Distance
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True or false. If you increase the film distance from the x-ray source, you will also decrease the x-ray bean intensity
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True.
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"Scale of Contrast" refers to the
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number of shades of gray that can be seen
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mAs is the exposure factor that has the greatest influence on
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density
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Which of the following increases radiographic density?
A) Thinner bone structures and tissues B) Increased mAs C) Decreased kVp D) Increased density of the body part being radiographed |
b) mAs
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Which of the following may affect radiographic density?
A) Scatter radiation B) Thickness of the structures being radiographed (tissue density) C) Penetrating power of the x-ray D) Film type E) Developing time F) Type of tissue being radiographed (bone vs. muscle) |
b) Thickness of the structures being radiographed (tissue density)
c) Penetrating power of the x-ray e) Developing time f) Type of tissue being radiographed (bone vs. muscle) |
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kVp settings affect the
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scale of contrast
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True or false. If you increase the film distance from the x-ray source, you will also decrease the x-ray bean intensity
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True.
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The mA setting controls
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the amount of x-rays produced at the target area
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The source-image distance
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must be considered each time the control panel is set.
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True or false. When completing a radiographic exposure, if you double the mAs, you will double the radiographic density
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False.
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The quantity of x-rays produced during an exposure depends on:
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the exposure time set
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Radiographic detail refers to
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degree of sharpness of the edges on the anatomic structures radiographed
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The most common cause of poor contrast on a radiograph is
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incorrectly set exposure factors
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. The source-image distance
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must be considered each time the control panel is set
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The distance from the focal spot of the x-ray tube to the image receptor is the
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Source Image Distance
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Define each of the following and describe their purpose and use in radiology:
x-ray cassette |
A lightproof encasement designed to hold x-ray film and intensifying screens in close contact.
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Define each of the following and describe their purpose and use in radiology:
intensifying screen |
Sheets of luminescent phosphor crystals bound together and mounted on a cardboard or plastic base.
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Define each of the following and describe their purpose and use in radiology:
screen speed |
Pertains to its ability to convert absorbed x-ray energy into visible light. Governed by crystal size, phosphor layer thickness, reflective layer efficiency, and dyes in the phosphor layer.
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Define each of the following and describe their purpose and use in radiology:
nonscreen film |
Film that is more sensitive to ionizing radiation than to florescent light.
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Define each of the following and describe their purpose and use in radiology:
reflective layer |
A layer of an intensifying screen that reflects the light from the phosphor layer toward the film.
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Define each of the following and describe their purpose and use in radiology:
screen film |
Film with silver crystals that is more sensitive to florescent light emitted from intensifying screens than to ionizing radiation.
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Describe the 2 types of cassettes that may be used in veterinary medicine?
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Nonscreen type (direct exposure type) and the image intensifying screen placed in a rigid cassette.
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Which cassette is the most common?
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The image intensifying type is the more conventional.
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Describe the benefits of using intensifying screens?
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Reduces the amount of radiation exposure required to produce a diagnostic radiograph. Lowers the mAs, thus decreasing dose of radiation to patient and the chance of motion on the radiograph and helps prolong the life of the x-ray tube.
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How often should intensifying screens be cleaned?
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At least monthly or whenever screen artifacts are noted on a radiograph.
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What precautions need to be taken with intensifying screens?
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After cleaning, screen must be thoroughly dry before insertion or fill will stick to screens; stains will cause artifact, spilled or splashed darkroom chemicals on the surface may ruin them.
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Describe “screen speed” and how it may affect radiographic detail.
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Relative term used to describe the amount of radiation required by that screen to produce a film of diagnostic radiographic density. The faster the screen the poorer the radiographic detail or resolution.
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Discuss the advantages of rare earth screens.
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Reduced exposure time, reduced motion artifacts, decreased tube voltage (improved contrast), decreased tube current (prolongs life of tube), reduced production of heat in x-ray tube, reduced patient radiation dose.
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What is the normal life span of a rare earth screen?
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10-12 years of regular use.
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9) Which of the following statements is true?
a) Screen film is more sensitive to ionizing radiation. b) Nonscreen film produces poorer detail. c) Nonscreen film is highly sensitive to fluorescent light emitted from intensifying screens. d) Nonscreen film requires greater exposure. |
d) nonscreen film requires greater exposure.
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Describe the components of x-ray film.
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Polyester base coat on both sides with a light-sensitive emulsion containing silver halide crystals and a supercoat.
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Which of the components of x-ray film will provide greater image detail?
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Silver halide.
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What is film latitude?
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The exposure range over which acceptable densities are produced.
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How should unexposed film be stored and handled?
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On end so the film is vertical, temperature between 10-15 degrees C, low relative humidity of 40 – 60%, not near any source of ionizing radiation or vapors from formalin, hydrogen peroxide, or ammonia can reach it, watch expiration dates.
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A processed film that has not been exposed to ionizing radiation or visible light will appear:
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clear
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What is a Technique Chart and how is it used in radiography?
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A chart based on tissue thickness and anatomic part that can be consulted for predetermined machine settings.
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What is Santes’ rule?
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Calculation for determining an approximate amount of kVp necessary for a given anatomic area on the basis of measurement and the grid being used.
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How does Santes' rule apply to producing a radiograph and what is the formula?
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(2 x tissue thickness in cm) + source image distance + grid factor = kVp
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What type of patient should be used for creating a technique chart? Describe the physical characteristics.
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A cooperative mature dog with average confirmation (neither obese or emaciated), about 50 pounds, clean hair coat that is medium to short length.
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If an initial radiograph is too light, how should the kVp and mAs be adjusted?
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Increase mAs 30% - 50% or kVp 10% - 15%.
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If an initial radiograph is too dark, how should the kVp and mAs be adjusted?
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Decrease mAs 30% - 50% or kVp 10% - 15%.
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X-rays are capable of penetrating what types of material?
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Opaque or solid substances, ionizing gases and tissues through which they pass.
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T or F. X-rays are visible.
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False.
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The source of x-rays used in radiology is:
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the X-ray tube
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List the steps that occur in the x-ray tube to produce an x-ray.
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The filament is heated to a critical temperature and the electrons boiled off, forming an electron cloud within the focusing cup, then electrons are accelerated very rapidly towards the positively charged anode. The collision of the speeding electrons into the anode results in production of heat and x-rays.
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What does the “kilovoltage circuit” control?
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The electric potential between the anode and the cathode. . This controls the speed of electron acceleration and the energy level or penetrability of the resulting x-ray beam.
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What does the “Milliamperage circuit” control?
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The electrical potential across the filament and affects the volume of electrons created and thus the number of volume of x-rays created.
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Why is tungsten used as a target material?
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High atomic number, high melting point, low vapor pressure, reasonable cost.
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Describe the differences between the stationary anode and the rotating anode.
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Stationary is more portable and used for large animal in the field as well as dental x-rays, is effective for extremities but limited for thorax and abdomen. Rotating have shorter exposure times and smaller focal points.
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What is the “Heel Effect” and how does it affect radiographs?
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X-ray beam is more intense at the cathode side than at the center or anode side of the beam.
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Where should the thickest part of the area being x-rayed be placed?
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Towards the cathode
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When is an x-ray produced?
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When all of the energy packed in extremely rapidly moving electrons come to an abrupt stop on encountering the target.
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What is scatter radiation?
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Lower energy x-ray photons that have undergone a change in direction after interacting with the structures in the patients body.
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Why is scatter radiation a concern?
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Film quality is decreased and there is increased exposure to the person taking the radiograph.
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How can scatter radiation be reduced?
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Careful collimation, correct kVp settings, compression radiography and grids can help.
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What are the 3 variables to be set to create/provide a diagnostic radiograph?
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Milliamperage and time, Kilovoltage, distance.
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Why should you always use the highest mA setting and the lowest time setting available when calculating mAs?
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To avoid blurring of the film from the patient’s possible movement.
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Calculate mAs for the following: 20 mA x ½ sec =
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10 mAs
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What happens if you increase the FFD?
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Increase the number of x-rays reaching the film
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What happens if you decrease the FFD?
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Decrease the number of x-rays reaching the film.
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How would you increase radiographic density?
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Either increase the mAs or the kVp.
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What are some factors that may affect radiographic detail?
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Focal – film distance, movement, size of the focal spot, overexposure factors.
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Please define the following: Radiographic detail
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The degree of sharpness that defines an anatomical structure.
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Please define the following: Radiographic contrast
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The density or opacity difference between two areas on a radiograph.
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Please define the following: Radiographic density
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The degree of blackness of the film.
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Which exposure factor has the greatest influence on radiographic contrast?
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Kilovoltage.
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Which exposure factor has the greatest impact on radiographic density?
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The mAs setting.
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