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235 Cards in this Set

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hCG = 1000mIU/ml, Hct 32%, TVUS shows no IUP, no adnexal mass, no free fluid. Patient stable Next step in management?
Repeat hCG in 2 days. Inappropriate rise in hCG levels (<50% increase in 48h) or levels which don't fall with D&C is consistent w/ ectopic. Alternatively, US should show fetal pole outside uterus and should show a hCG > 2000.
Patient w/ LLQ pain, spotting 2 days prior. Stable vitals. hCG 400mIU/ml, US negative for IUP at this time, adnexal masses or free fluid. Most likely dx?
Unable to establish. hCG below discriminatory zone and US was negative. Could be ovarian torision, early IUP, missed abortion and ectopic pregnancy.
17 yo G3P0 LMP 7 weeks ago hCG 2500, US adnexal mass. +CVM, hx of chlamydia x2, in 8/10 pain. Anemic. Next step in management.
Exlap! patient has ruptured ectopic until proven otherwise. Serial examinations/ repeat hCG levels is dangerous and she could bleed out. MTX is not appropriate as she has acute abdomen.
Healthy 19yo G2P1 LMP 6 weeks ago, hCG 48 hrs ago 1500, today 3100. Prog 26 ng/ml. No CVM tenderness or adnexal masses. TVUS should show...
viable IUP. hcG above discriminatory zone and doubled in last 48 hrs. Progesterone > 5 (less than this is range of failing pregnancy).
20 yo G1PO w/ LMP 6.5 weeks and +home pregnancy test. hCG 48hrs ago 750, today its 760, progesterone 3.2 ng/ml. hct 37%. TVUS shows no fetal pole or masses. Next step?
D&C. no rise in hCG of at least 50% in 48 hrs and progesterone < 5 ng/ml indicating failing. D&C is both diagnostic and therapeutic. afterwards, hCG should be drawn and 24 hrs later. if not decreased, ectopic diagnosis.
G3P2 w/ acute abdomen, +CVM tenderness, hx of BTL and hCG 4000mIU/ml and TVUS showing right ovarian mass and fluid in pelvis. dx?
ectopic pregnancy diagnosis is made when either 1) fetal pole outside of uterus or 2) hCG> 2000 and no IUP on U/S or 3) hCG doesn't fall by 50% after D&C.
MTX indications for Ectopic Pregnancy?
hemodynamic stability, non-ruptured ectopic pregnancy (no signs and sx of acute abdomen), ectopic mass < 4cm w/o FHR.
35 yo G5P3 hx of ectopic preg w/ peritoneal signs, hypovolemia signs and TVUS shows fetal pole outside of uterus. next step?
laparoscopy
19 yo G1P0 @ 6 weeks by LMP presents w/ vaginal spotting. hCG 750, prog 3.8. physical exam normal. next step?
recheck in 48 hrs. still could be a viable pregnancy. progesterone suppositories will nto help because progesterone level is below viable level.
19 yo G1P0 LMP 6 weeks ago c/o spotting. hCG 2000 48 hrs ago, today its 2100. TVUS shows empty uterus and thin endometrial stripe and no adnexal masses. next step?
MTX. this is an abnormal pregnancy as shown by hCG levels. TVUS r/o IUP and a diagnosis is ectopic!!! no evidence of rupture (no peritoneal signs) thus MTX.
Define Threatened abortion.
vaginal bleeding before 20 weeks gestation w/o passage of POC and a closed cervix.
Define incomplete abortion
passing some but not all POC. complete abortion is passing all POC.
Define missed abortion
those who have experienced fetal demise w/o cervical dilatation or passage of POC. Recurrent abortion refers to 3 successive SAB
What accounts for majority of first trimester spontaneous abortions?
conceptus genetic anomalies. ~50-60% of embryos and early fetuses that are SAB contain chromosomal abnormalities.
Which chromosomal abnormality is most often associated w/ first trimester SAB?
autosomal trisomy (~40-50% of cases). Next is triploidy 15%, tetraploidy 5%. Monosomy X (45X, 0) is seen in 15-25% of losses.
A women w/ hx of type I DM, Chronic HTN and prior TAB has a 1st trimester SAB. What is most likely the cause of SAB?
DM type I. systemic diseases are associated w/ early pregnancy loss. risk appears to be 2/2 metabolic control. HTN or TAB do not increase risk of first trimester loss.
T/F: environmental factors such as smoking, alcohol and radiation are causes of SAB.
True.
T/F: Hx of Pre-ecclampsia w/ previous pregnancy increases risk of SAB.
False. Isolated hx of pre-E doesn't increase risk.
22 G1P0 presents to ED @ 8 weeks gestation w/ heavy VB, dilated cervix, H&H of 7/21. hypotensive and tachy. Next step?
D&C. active bleeding and anemia requires immediate treatment. She is not hemodynamically stable therefore can't use expectant management or misoprostol (+UC and dilation of cervix).
Patient experience missed abortion @ 6 weeks. physical exam normal. She wishes to "let nature take its course." What is the best advice?
She doesn't need any treatment of next couple of weeks. she is hemodynamically stable and expectant management is appropriate.
29 yo G3P0 presents @ 8 weeks gestation. Prior pregnancies secondary to cerivical incompetence. sonohysterogram shows normal uterine anatomy. Game plan for patient?
cerclage @ 14 weeks gestation. Delay cerclage till 2nd tri since 1st trimester preg not at risk w/ incompetent cervix. While prophylactic progesterone is used by some to prevent PTL, no evidence supports it use.
32 yo G3P0 @ clinic for preconception counseling. prior 3 1st trimester losses. Which test should be ordered?
lupus anticoagulant! r/o systemic disease in patient w/ recurrent abortions. In these cases test DM and thyroid as well as parental chromosomes.
What is the risk of SAB in patients w/ prior history of 1 TAB in first trimester.
Does not predispose mother to subsequent SAB.
What complications are babies with type I DM mothers at risk for?
Insulin-dependent diabetes have increased rates of SAB and congenital malformations. Overt type I at risk for fetal growth restriction. Others: polyhydramnious, preterm, HTN.
of the following drugs, which is contraindicated in pregnancy: levothyroxine, labetalol, acyclovir, lisinopril, amitriptyline?
LInsinopril. The rest are safe. ACE inhibitors use beyond 1st trimester associated w/ oligohydramnious, growth retardation, renal failure, hypotension, pulmonary hypoplasia and death.
What management option would best decrease the risk of perinatal transmission of HIV in HIV+ mother w/ CD4 600 @ 36 weeks gestation.
IV Zidovudine (AZT) at time of delivery always offered regardless of CD4/HIV RNA. Best protocol: start at 14 weeks thru delivery and treatment of neonate. CS also recommeneded.
MCC of sepsis in pregnancy?
acute pyeloneprhitis. However, pneumonia and chorioamnionitis should be in differential?
T/F: DKA is a usual complication of uncontrolled gestational DM.
False.
24 yo G2P1 @ 18 weeks w/ hix of asthma presents w/ worsening of asthma sx and use of albuterol. afebrile, NAD, Pulm: good air movement mild wheezing, no rales. Next step?
inhaled corticosteroids. Patient has worsening asthma in pregnancy. (40% of asthmatics during pregnancy). If short acting beta agonists use > 2x/week, move to inhaled corticosteroids or cromolyn sodium.
34 yo G4P3 @ 19 weeks presents to ED in thyroid storm (maternal mortality > 25%). What therapy is contraindicated at this time?
131I: concentrates in the fetal thyroid causing congenital hypothyroid. PTU, propranolol, NaI, and dexamethasone can be used.
18 yo G1P0 presents for PNC @ 16 weeks gestation. +FTA and allergic to penicillin. correct treatment?
Desensitization and Penicillin!. Syphilis transmission rates 50-80% and no alternatives to pencillin. Confirm anaphylaxis risk w/ skin testing. Erythromycin has 11% failure rate and Doxycycline in contraindicated.
Describe White's classification of diabetes
Class A(1 or 2): Gestational diabetes, during pregnancy only. Class B: diagnosed at age over 20 yo, diagnosed <10 years. Class C: diagnosed at age before 20yo, carried diagnoses more than 10 y. Class D: had disease over 20 years and diagnosed under age of 20. Class F: nephropathy, diagnosed any age.
Most appropriate management in patient diagnosed w/ gardenella type bacterial vaginosis. Patient's partner?
Not known, but oral flagyle probably equally as effective. Treat ASAP to reduce incidence of PTL. No treatment for partner recommended
What is the concern for 33 you G2P1 diagnosed with pulmonary HTN?
Mortality rate > 25%. decreased venous return --> decreased RV filling.
19 yo G1P0 @ 18 weeks gestations c/o 3 mo h/o palpatations and intermittent chest pain. she has 2/6 systolic ejection murmur. ECG normal. ECHO pending. Best treatment?
beta blockers. Patient may have MVP or stenosis. use beta blockers do decrease risk of arrhythmias. If asx + systolic murmur 2/6 = no treatment if ECG is normal.
Besides cough, pleuritic chest pain and fever, what is essential for diagnosis of pneumonia in a 27 yo G1P0 @ 32 weeks?
CXR. (does not accurately predict etiology of PNA)
18 yo nulliparious black woman is suffering from renal infection (US: calculi obstruction in right ureteral) refractory to broad spectrum abx x 4 days. Next step?
pass a double J ureteral stent. If hydration and abx don't work after 72 hrs, place a stent. if that doesn't work, percutaneous nephrostomy.
5'4'' 220lbs @ 12 weeks gestation and nullparious wants to know how her size may effect pregnancy. MC problem...
HTN. Increased maternal morbidity results from obesity and includes HTN, Gestational DM, pre-E, macrosomia and high rates of post partum complications. w/ BMI of 38 she is @ increaesd risk of Pre-E and HTN.
16 yo G1P0 black woman @ 8 weeks gestation presents for PNC. hgb 8 and microcytic. Most likely diagnosis?
Anemia during pregnancy and in puerperium (time after delivery) MCC are iron deficiency and acute blood loss.
27 yo G1P0 @ 22 weeks h/o SLE c/o malaise, joint aches and fever. What is first line therapy for severe manifestation of SLE in prego?
steroids. Lupus has variable presentation. If arthralgia and serositis only, can use NSAIDs, otherwise steroids.
What is NOT a recommended therapy for breast adenocarcinoma during pregnancy?
Radiation. If young, can present w/ more advanced aggressive cancer (usually mets if diagnosed during prego). surgery + chemotherapy recommended.
Which of the following psych meds is contraindicated: paroxetine, sertraline, fluoxetine, nortyptyline, bupropion.
paroxetine (paxil). MC used antidepressants are SSRIs but paxil has increased risk of fetal cardiac malformation and pulm HTN. Older SSRI okay. TCA and wellbutrin okay also.
Patient presents w/ severe itching and slightly yellow skin @ 32 weeks gestation. Best treatment?
antihistamines. patient has pruitus gravidarum (mild variant of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy). Cholestyramine causes decrease in fat soluble vitamins absorption and limited effectiveness. Ursodeoxycholic acid is not first line.
27 yo G2P1 presents to ED w/ f/n/v and abdominal pain. decreased BS and ride ab tenderness. best next step?
Graded compression ultrasound (not abdominal or pelvic u/s). A large uterus shifts appendix upward and outward toward the flank so pain may not be RLQ. CT is high rads exp.
17 yo prmigravida presents @ 37 weeks w/ no complaints. BO 138/89 and 144/91 on repeat. UA negative and CBC and CMP normal. dx?
Gestation HTN. she lacks other defining criteria for preecclampsia. 25% of women w/ gHTN develop pre-E
17 yo @ 34 weeks has bp 155/99, 440mg/dl/24hrs protein and swelling in hands and face. Dx? If 39 weeks, what would treatment be?
Mild pre-E. >300mg/dL/24 hrs + BP b/w 140-160/90-100. If @ 39 weeks, deliver is treatment. Mag sulfate during labor and 24 hrs post partum is indicated to lower seizure threshold.
40 yo G1P0 @ 34w3d has grand mal seizure and dx of pre-E. ABCs secure. next best step in treatment?
Mag sulfate. treatment of choice for ecclampsia. second line agents include valium hydantoin and phenobarbital.
which of the following IS NOT associated w/ increased risk of preeclampsia: 1. hx of pre-E 2. chronic HTN 3. multfetal pregnancy 4. age 5. previous SAB
previous SAB. other risk factors: molar pregnancy, systemic diseases, triploidy in mom.
22 yo G1P1 undergoing treatment for severe Pre-E. hx of previous CS 2/2 NRFHRT. oliguric, lethargic, no DTR b/l. mag 11mq/L. What condition can magnesium tox result in?
Respiratory depression. A therapeutic mag level is b/w 4-7 mEq/L. Respiratory depression occur above 12. Cardiac arrest above 15.
What are contraindications for expectant management of severe preeeclampsia remote from term (<32w)?
thrombocytopenia (under 100k), HTN refractory to max doses of 2 antihypertensives, NRFHRT, LFTs elevated x 2, eclampsia (seizure!).
T/F: severe preecclampsia remote from term mother is being treated w/ expectant management. at f/u visit her labs are normal except for elevated uric acid and hct. Its safe to deliver now.
False. hemoconcentration and uric acid are markers of pre-E but not indications to deviate from expectant management if all other labs/vitals are normal
T/F: it is possible to have HELLP syndrome w/o RUQ pain, hemolysis (bilirubin and anemia).
True. especially if diagnosis is made early!. HELLP is a severe manifestation of severe pre-ecclampsia
T/F: acute fatty liver almost always manifests late in pregnancy
True. Sx develop over days to weeks: malaise, anorexia, n/v/epigastric pain and jaundice. there is usually severe liver dysfunction (albumin, cholesterol, increased coags) and marked hypoglycemia.
36 yo G5P4 w/o PNC presents in active labor. BP 170/105 w/ 3+ proteinuria. FHT 170s/dec variability/sinusoidal pattern. BRB per vaginal x 1hr. eitiology of VB?
Abruptio placenta. look for tachysytole on tocometer and evidence of fetal anemia (tachycardia and sinusoidal heart pattern) on HRT. HTN and pre-E are risk factors for abruption.
27 yo P1 @ 36 weeks w/ severe pre-E. BP 200/105. what diastolic BP are you aiming for w/ antihypertensive rx?
90-100. atnihypertensive treatment is indicated if >160/>105. first line agents hydralazine or labetalol. Goal is not normal BP but reduce diastolic BP into safe range to prevent stroke or abruption.
28 yo G2P1 presents @ 20w0d w/ anti D titer 1:64. Normal amniocentesis. Previous C/S 2/2 abruption. Mom is Rh negative. Source of Rh senstization.
Placental abruption caused transplacental hemorrhage of fetal rh+ RBC into mom. other ways this can happen, amniocentesis, CVS, ectopic, pre=E, antepartum hemorrhage, C/S.
What is the most likely volume of feto-maternal hemorrhage that occurs during a rh sensitization pregnancy.
<0.1cc is all it takes!. 75% of gravidas have evidence of transplacental hemorrhage.
Name a non-invasive test used to detect severe fetal anemia.
middle cerebral artery peak systolic velocity (doppler).
anti-D antibodies detected in G2P1 mom @ 10w gestation. What ultrasound findings would be most explained by presence of Rh disease?
Fetal hydrops is easily diagnosed via US. It develops in presence of decreased hepatic protein production. Defined as collection of fluid in +2 body cavities (ascites, pericardal effusion and/or pleural fluid and scalp edema).
what amount of fetal blood is neutralized by 300mcg of RhoGAM?
30 cc of fetal blood is neutralized by 30 mcg of RhoGAM. This is equivalent to 15cc of fetal RBC. At 28 weeks this dose is routinely adminstered after testing for sensitization w/ an indirect Coomb's test (mother's serum). Administration is given following amniocentesis at any gestational age.
What is the current recommendation for preventing Rh isoimmunization?
Administration for Rh-negative patients w/ no Rh antibodies at 28 weeks. RhoGAM (anti-D Ig) prevents isoimmunization.
What is recommendation for RhoGAM?
@ 28 weeks in Rh negative patients w/o Rh antibodies @ 28 weeks. w/in 27 hrs of delivery of Rh +, following SAB/TAB, antepartum hemorrhage, amniocentesis or CVS.
How can one accurately and immediately estimate the decree of fetal-maternal hemorrhage?
Kleihauer-Betke test is an acid elution test. using acid elution, mother's RBC become pale while fetal cells (different Hgb) remain stained.
Amniotic fluid gathered from amniocentesis for fetus that is affected by Rh disease, is sent for OD450 measurement. What does this value represent in amniotic fluid.
Bilirubin. amniotic fluid in presence of eryhtroblastotic fetus will be yellow.
At 30 weeks gestation, the delta OD450 results plot on the liley curve in zone 3. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Intrauterine IV fetal transfusion. zone 3 = severe hemolytic disease w/ hydrops and death in 7-10 days. @ 30 weeks, try to give more time in utero. If transfusion not possible, maternal plasmapheresis can be attempted.
24 yo G2P1 is sensitized to D and C antigens despite RhoGAM her first delivery. What best explains these findings?
Rh negative woman will be sensitized despite prophylaxis on rare occasions. The amount of feto-maternal hemorrhage was more than previously estimated (1 dose for 30 cc fRBCs), sensitization to non-D ag, or if not receiving RhoGAM after procedure. RhoGAM only confers protection against D ag.
25 yo G2P1 @ 16w3d by 1st tri U/S has 22cm fundal height and MSAFP is elevated. Most likely cause of abnormal result?
Twin Gestation. AFP are elevated and should be ~2x v singleton. Additional clue: FH > GA (weeks).
Besides twins, what other things should be considered in woman w/ elevated AFP and FH>GA?
other causes of elevated MSAFP are errors in dating, NT defects, pilonidal cysts, cystic hygroma, teratoma, fetal abdominal wall defects and death.
What ultrasound marker is suggestive of dizygotic (fraternal twins)?
Two separate placentas (anterior and posterior), dividing membrane > 2mm, twin peak (lambda). Dizygotic conceptions ALWAYS have dichorionic placentas.
What is the variable which decides whether monozyotic conceptions may have monochorionic or dichorionic placentation?
Time of division of zygote.
What time frame of division will produce diamniotic-dichorionic? Di-mono? Mono-mono- Conjoined twins?
di-di: prior to morula state (3> days post fertilization). di mono: 4-8d; mono-mono: 8-12d; conjoined twins: after day 13 post fertilization.
T/F: twin infant death rate is 5x higher than that of singleton.
True. Important information in couples using ART. Risk of CP in twins 5X greater, higher incidence of IUGR. 85% of twins deliver prematurely (~35w)
T/F: Congenital anomalies are increased in twins.
True. particularly in monzygotic twins.
What intervention can be recommended to reduce risk of preterm, low-birthweight infant in mother w/ di-di gestation?
early, good weight gain. adequate weight gain in the first 20-24w is important to reduce risk of PTL and low BW babies. Aids in development. 24lbs by 24 weeks is recommended.
What kind of twins are required in TTTS?
monochorionic, monozygotic. (can be mono or di amniotic). U/S look for different size twins and/or differences in AFI. after establishing monochorionic monozygotic.
T/F: neurologic sequelae increased in the donor twin (TTTS) versus recipient twin.
False. in any surviving infants. increased rates of CP.
Name some complications of the donor twin in TTTS.
anemia, hypovolemia and subsequent growth retardation. Either twin can develophydrops. The donor twin has anemia and high output failure and becomes hydroptic
Name some complications of the recipient twin in TTTS.
excessive volume can lead to cardiomegaly, Tricuspid regurgitation, ventricular hypertrophy and hydrops. This twin becomes pleothroic (red), hypervolemic and macrosomic.
What is the most concerning complication for a multiple gestation?
Preterm delivery! it increases risk of M&M, increasing w/ higher orders of multiples. 50% twins, 90% in triplets. PTD is associated w/ RDS, incracranial hemorrhage, CP, low birth weight.
T/F: IUGR, IU Demise, miscarriage and congenital anomalies are all more common w/ multiple gestations as are complications of pre-E, DM and placental anomalies.
True.
Twin A breech (2800g) and twin B vertex (3200g). Appropriate delivery option for mother?
Elective Cesarean Section. When A is in breech, same problems can occur as in singletons (cord prolapse, head entrapment).
Twin A vertex, Twin B breech. Best mode of delivery.
Controversial.
What is the single most likely cause for increase in number of multiple gestations in recent years?
Assisted reproductive technologies (ART). However, its all about the quality of eggs (younger > older).
What is the most likely karyotype found in spontaneous abortions in 1st trimester? Most common chromosomal aneuploidy?
Autosomal trisomy. Trisomy 16.
At what gestational age would the fetus be most susceptible to developing mental retardation w/ sufficient doses of radiation?
The risk of developing microcephaly and severe MR is greatest 8-15 weeks. No risk of MR has been documented w/ doses of 50 rads @ less than 8 weeks or >25 weeks. X-ray is about 5 rads. However, this doesn't include malformation (organogenesis) or growth restriction.
What is the MC inherited thrombophilic disorder affecting white women in USA? obstetric complications
FVL. AD associated w/ stillbirth, preeclampsia, placental abruption and IUGR. Look for young patient w/ hx of DVT w/ or w/o OCP use.
Name the MC birth defects associated w/ uncontrolled DM during organogenesis.
NT defects (spine) and heart defects. exposure to high glucose levels have increased growth and polyuria --> polyhydramnious.
20 yo G1P0 @ 26w by 1st trimester U/S has FH 20cm. Normal pregnancy to date w/ PNC. w/o LOF/VB Most likely diagnosis?
Fetal demise. FH <GA is a sign of demise if no PPROM. If patient has PNC and U/S regularly, wrong dating is less likely.
26 yo G1 w/ LMP 10 wk ago presents for 1st PNV. +VB x 2d. U/S c/w IUP @ 9wks and no cardiac activity. Next lab value to check?
Maternal blood type. ALWAYS check on women w/ vaginal bleeding during pregnancy unless documented previously. If Rh(-), RhoGAM would be indicated @ this time.
27 G1 has fetal demise @ 34 wks. No PNC, Vitals normal, not in labor. No VB or ROM. What untreated condition is most likely cause?
Diabetes. Type I: FD and FGR (and macrosomnia). Other risks: polydramnious, malformations, PT delivery, HTN.
After a fetal demise a couple typically shows coping responses. After denial, what is expected?
Denial --> Angerl --> Bargaining --> Depression --> Acceptance
During D&C, "fatty tissue" is noted to be coming through the curette. Next best step in management?
Laparoscopy! Most likely omental tissue and may include bowel. Turn off suction and convert. COnsider laprotomy. Don't Delay is the main idea.
33 yo G2P1 w/ twin gestation presents @ 24 weeks c/o nosebleed x2d. U/S shows demise of one twin @ 21 weeks. Next step?
Maternal Fibrinogen level. If dead fetus in utero 3-4 weeks, fibrinogen levels may decrease leading to coagulopathy. Must r/o . Consider monitoring but may be induced after BMTZ.
What is spalding's sign"
Abdominal X-ray which shows overlapping of fetal skull bones suggesting fetal demise. Usually U/S can confirm w/o this.
major causes of higher Cesarean delivery rates?
VBAC rates decreased due to studies that showed increased risk of uterine rupture. Other causes: fewer docs willing to perform vaginal breech deliveries and reluctance to use instrumental deliveries.
15 yo G1P0 at 40w is in latent phase of stage I for 6hrs with contractions q5-6minutes. Next step?
Begin Pitocin to increase frequency and strength of contractions. If not cervical change afterwards, do an IUPC.
does ambulation facilitate delivery?
Nope.
G2P1 @ 40 weeks w/ hx of NSVD wants induction because her back hurts. SVE 0/20%/-2. Next step?
Adminster Cytotec. Uncomfortable and in pain @ term with unfavorable cervix. Cytotec (misoprostol) adminstration is appropriate before pitocin indiction. Cannot AROM or foley bulb w/ a closed cervix!
Labor indications for misoprostol?
Women scheduled for induction w/ a non-favorable cervix. PGE1 (cytotec) is recommended for ripening. Side effects: uterine tachysystole and FHR changes
Associated with breech presentation?
Prematurity, multiple pregnancy, genetic disorders, polyhydramnious, hydrocephaly, anencephaly, placenta previa, uterine anomalies and fibroids (this was the choice).
Define prolonged latent phase. Treatment?
>20 hours nulliparas and > 14 hours for multiparas. Although tedious, recommend counseling and rest if not beyond time frame. Afterwards, treat w/ augmentation of labor.
Greatest risk factor for shoulder dystocia?
Gestational diabetes. Fetal macrosomia, maternal obesity, post-term, prior dystocia delivery and prolonged 2nd stage.
25 yo G1 @ 41w c/o painful contractions q4min. SVE 5/90/not vertex. Body part palpable on cervical exam. What's most likely palpated?
buttocks. Frank breech is most common in breech presentation.
30yo G2P1 @ 38w in active phase for past 4 hrs and unchanged SVE for past 2 (7/100/0). FHTR. Next step?
Amniotomy as patient has secondary arrest of dilation (no cervical change after 2 hrs, should move 1.5cm/hr in multiparous). If no adequate contractions are AROM, try pitocin.
>2hrs second stage in 25 G2P1. FHTR and patient feels strong contractions q3min. Next step?
continued monitoring as long as CPD or macrosomia not suspected.
T/F: increased # of previous C/S is inversely proportionate to success of VBAC.
yup! also indications for previous C/S may affect VBAC. previa and breech have better VBAC success v CPD's VBAC.
19 yo G1 @ 25w c/o of VB x 1hr. Recent intercourse, +FM. Uncomplicated pregnancy so far. FHT 150s. Abd/uterus nontender. Next step? What should you r/o?
Pelvic ultrasound. r/o abnormal placentation. A placenta previa must be r/o before vaginal exam because risk of injury to placenta. previa is often w/o warning or pain!
23 yo G2P1 @ 36w p/w 2nd episode of heavy VB. Known placenta previa. No pain, no contractions. S=D, FHTR. U/S: cephalic presentation. Next step?
Cesarean section. catastrophic bleeding can occur 2/2 disruption of blood vessels as cervix dilates in a NSVD. Kids close to term. do it!
38 yo G5P4 @ 36w p/w VB x 1 hr. Hx of 4 C/S and a current low anterior placenta. No other abnormalities on H&P. She is at greatest risk for what complication?
Placeta accreta. the scar tissue from previous surgery prevents proper implantation of the placenta. In accreta, placenta grows into myometrium.
In a patient w/ 1500ml loss in postpartum. Team decides on FFP. Why?
FFP contains fibrinogen as well as clotting factors V and VIII. Cryoprecipitate contains fibrinogen, factor VIII and vWF.
18 yo G1 @32 c/o abd pian and VB. +TOB/+cocaine. Uterus tender, U/S: fundal placenta, cephalic. FHRT: 160s/poor variability/+decels. Dx?
Placental abruptions: abd pain, bleeding, uterine hypertonus. Risk factors: TOB, Cocaine, HTN, trauma and prolonged PROM. Rx: CS
Next step in patient w/ suspected abruption w/ NR FHRT.
CS. Mother at risk for hemorrhage, DC and hysterectomy. Fetal risks neuro injury from anoxia.
What's a double set-up examination?
Trial of Vaginal delivery w/ C/S team scrubbed and ready just in case.
Smoking increases the risk of what obstetric complications?
placenta abruption, previa, growth restriction, pre-ecclampsia and infection.
32 yo G3P2 @ 40w1d p/w regular contractions q5min. Bright, red bloody discharge for past 30 min. Funda placenta/ cephalic presentation. no ROM. cervix 5cm dilated, is friable and bleeds easy. Source of blood?
Blood show. cervix is extremely vascular and bleeding occurs w/ dilation. need to r/o abruption and previa though.
17 yo G1P0 at 24w p/w VB. Denies pain/dysuria. Intercourse 3 weeks ago. VSSAF. U/S fundal placenta and viable. Cervix closed but is friable with blood in vault. cause of bleeding?
cervicitis caused by C&G or trich can p/w VB. r/o other previa, abruption w/ U/S. No bloody show as cervix is NOT dilated.
When does threatened abortion occur?
first trimester
45 yo G4P3 p/w VB. +urine pregnancy test. +TOB x 20 y. Vaginal exam: 3cm posterior lip lesion on cervix. Bleeds and hard. Cause?
cervical cancer. r/o abortion, infection and trauma.
Most frequent cause of PTL?
Idiopathic. Dehydration and uterine distortion (2/2 to fibroids or structural malformations) are associated.
20 yo G1 @ 32w c/o contractions q4min. cervix long, closed and posterior. Not dehydrated. UA normal. Next step?
observe. 50% of PT contractions resolve spontaneously. No tocolysis (CCB, indomethacin, terbutaline, Mg sulfate) since no preterm labor (no cervical change)
20 yo G2P1 @ 32w p/w contractions q4min. T 38.1 HR 120. SVE 2/50%. FHTR, WBC 18000. Next step?
aminiocentesis to r/o intraamniotic infection, which is on DDx if unexplained fever and leukocytosis in prego.
Most appropriate tocolytic in 26yo G2P1 in PTL @ 33w? (Hx of PTL, IDDM and myasthenia gravis, BP 140/90) Why?
CCB. Terbutaline and ritodrine (B-agonist) are C/I in DM, Mag C/I in myasthenia gravis and indomethacin is C/I @ 33w d/t risk for premature PDA closure (via constriction)
By what mechanism of action does Magnesium sulfate work as a tocolytic?
Competes w/ calcium for entry into cells (thats why Mag toxicity resembles hypocalcemia i.e. loss of DTR, AND RESPIRATORY DESPRESSION)
By what mechanism does indomethacin work as a tocolytic?
PG syntetase inhibitor --> decrease PG --> decrease contractions
How do CCB work as tocolytics?
block calcium entry into muscle cells by inhibiting transport
Side effects of terbutaline?
Beta-2 adrenergic agents cause tachycardia, hypotension (reflex), anxiety.
What usually develops before cardiac and respiratory depression in magnesium toxicity?
loss of deep tendon reflexes
At what GA does indomethacin exposure pose a serious risk?
After 34w.
Possible fetaleffect of betamethasone therapy?
Decreased incidence of intercerebral hemorrhage and necrotizing enterocolitis in newborn (in addition to preventing RDS)
What is the strength of using a fetal fibronectin test in patients w/ preterm contractions? (statistics)
NPV 99.2%. fFN is an ECM protein thought to act as an adhesive b/w fetal membranes and deciduus. Used in women w/ sx of PTL 24-35w or asx b/w 22-30w.
29 G1P0 @ 31 GA p/w LOF x several hours. Uncomplicated PN course. VSSAF. Next step?
PTL test: pooling, nitrazine test of vaginal fluid (posterior fornix) and evaluation of ferning.
What is the role of tocolysis in a 29yo G1P0 @ 31w p/w PPROM?
To attempt to delay delivery in order to administer steroids. (its role is controversial)
What is the primary risk factor for preterm rupture of membranes?
genital tract infection, especially BV. Other risk factors: short cervical length, oligohydramnious, smoking and prior hx of PPROM.
How is GA related to PROM?
the time from PROM to labor is inversely related to GA.
What medication will prolong the latency period by ~7days in woman w/ PPROM?
Antibiotic therapy. Corticosteroids and toclytics can prlong pregnancy, but not 7days.
What are indications for delivery in a 24yo G1P0 @ 32w p/w PPROM but no contractions?
maternal signs of chorioamnionitis or evidence of intra-amniotic infection. signs include tender uterus
PPROM @ 20w, which is before viability (24w), is at greatest risk for what neonatal complication?
pulmonary hypoplasia
What amniotic fluid test result is indicative of intraamniotic infection?
Amniotic glucose < 20mg/dL. Other findings: elevated IL-6.6Presence of leukocytes has low predictive value for infection.
What is the recurrent risk of PPROM in a 22 yo G2P1 w/ hx of PPROM @ 28w?
30%
G2P1 @ 36w w/ PROM. No complications. EFW 2700g. Next step?
induction of labor. after 34w, risks (infection) of expectant management w/ PROM is outweighed by benefit of delivery after lung maturity.
29 G1P0 @ 41w for PNC. +TOB, +chlaymydia culture (treated) and pap LGSIL. BP 128/76; afebrile. SVE 1/50/-2. Next step?
NST.
When is a vibroacoustic stimulation test indicated?
when NST is non-reactive.
What does a contraction stress test assess?
uteroplacental insufficiency and identifies persistent late decelerations after contractions (3/10min).
19yo G3P0020 w/ SROM. 102F, FHRT 180/poor variablity. regular contractions. Most likely cause of fetal tachy?
chorioamnionitis. fever, Regular contractions and fetal tachy in presence of ROM are most likely 2/2
Define variable decelerations.
an acute fall in FHR, w/ a rapid down slope and a variable recovery phase.No consistent relationship to a contraction
Define etiology of variable deccelerations.
reflex mediated (baroreceptor) usually associated w/ umbilical cord compression as a result of cord wrapped around parts or oligohydramnious.
What kind of deccerlations are defined by symmetric fall in FHR, beginning at or after the peak of contraction and returning to baseline only after contraction ended.
Late deccels. associated w/ uteroplacental insufficiency.
Name causes for uteroplacental insufficiency.
decreased uterine perfusion or placental function leading to fetal hypoxia and acidemia.
What effect does uterine hyperstimulation have on the fetal heart?
prolonged bradycardia
29 yo @ 42w p/w intermittent contractions. uncomplicated pregnancy. BP 140/96 EFW 2900g. Cervix 0/25%/-2. FHRT shows decels. Next step?
Initial measures to evaluate and treat fetal hypoperfusion: LL position, oxygen mask, STOP PITOCIN, consider IU resuscitation w/ tocolytics and fetal scalp pH. consider aminoinfusion. DO NOT DIRECTLY PROCEED TO CS.
29 G1P0 @ 41w for PNC. +TOB, +chlaymydia culture (treated) and pap LGSIL. BP 128/76; afebrile. SVE 1/50/-2. Next step?
NST.
When is a vibroacoustic stimulation test indicated?
when NST is non-reactive.
What does a contraction stress test assess?
uteroplacental insufficiency and identifies persistent late decelerations after contractions (3/10min).
19yo G3P0020 w/ SROM. 102F, FHRT 180/poor variablity. regular contractions. Most likely cause of fetal tachy?
chorioamnionitis. fever, Regular contractions and fetal tachy in presence of ROM are most likely 2/2
Define variable decelerations.
an acute fall in FHR, w/ a rapid down slope and a variable recovery phase.No consistent relationship to a contraction
Define etiology of variable deccelerations.
reflex mediated (baroreceptor) usually associated w/ umbilical cord compression as a result of cord wrapped around parts or oligohydramnious.
What kind of deccerlations are defined by symmetric fall in FHR, beginning at or after the peak of contraction and returning to baseline only after contraction ended.
Late deccels. associated w/ uteroplacental insufficiency.
Name causes for uteroplacental insufficiency.
decreased uterine perfusion or placental function leading to fetal hypoxia and acidemia.
What effect does uterine hyperstimulation have on the fetal heart?
prolonged bradycardia
29 yo @ 42w p/w intermittent contractions. uncomplicated pregnancy. BP 140/96 EFW 2900g. Cervix 0/25%/-2. FHRT shows decels. Next step?
Initial measures to evaluate and treat fetal hypoperfusion: LL position, oxygen mask, STOP PITOCIN, consider IU resuscitation w/ tocolytics and fetal scalp pH. consider aminoinfusion. DO NOT DIRECTLY PROCEED TO CS.
What is the MCC of postpartum hemorrhage?
Uterine atony!
precipitous labor, multiparity, general anesthesia, oxytocin use in labor, prolonged labor (hint), macrosomia, hydramnious and chorioamnionitis are risk factors for what?
Uterine atony
When is Methylergonovine, a uterotonic agent, contraindicated in women?
It is an ergot alkaloid which is used for smooth muscle constrictions, however, because of its vasoconstrictive properties it should be avoided in women w/ pre-ecclampsia or hypertension.
What uterotonic agent should be avoided in post-partum hemorrhaging patient w/ steroid-dependent asthma and with VSSAF?
Prostaglinadin F2. It is a smooth muscle constrictor however it also has bronchio-constrictive effect.
29 yo G2P1 p/w ROM and delivers in 35 min (2650g male). A pale mass appears at the introitus when delivering the placenta. Etiology?
uterine inversion (uncommon etiology of post-partum hemorrhage).
MCC risk factor for uterine inversion
excessive traction (iatrogenic) on umbilical cord during 3rd stage of delivery.
How is postpartum hemorrhage defined?
> 500 cc after vaginal delivery or in excess of 1000 cc after a Cesarean delivery.
37 yo w/ poorly controlled HTN presents @ term. delivers 3500g males s/p oxytocin induction. postpartum develops massive bleeding. BP 130/84, P 84, afebrile. placenta intact, uterus firm. next step?
exploration for lacerations.
ensuring a well contracted uterus, making sure there is no retained placental tissue and looking for lacerations are all part of the first management of what?
postpartum hemorrhage
30 yo G5P4 @ 24w p/w anterior placenta w/ a previa and hx of 3 prior CS. Most serious complication that can lead to obstetric hemorrhage?
placenta accreta.It is a abnormally firm attachment of the palcenta to uterine wall. in the presence of low lying anterior placenta always keep in DDx. incidence increasing w/ more CS. Treatment: hysterectomy 2/2 to intractable bleeding
28 G2P1 delivers at term, a 3500g male after oxytocin augmentation. 30 min later, placenta not delivered. PMHx: leiomyoma uteri and male factor infertility. Most likely risk for retained placenta.
leiomyoma. other risks: prior CS, uterine curettage hx, and succesturiate lobe of placenta.
37 yo G4P3 delivers normally after oxytocin augmentation. postpartum, 2000cc blood loss. No lacs and uterus is floppy. Next step?
PG F2 IM or directly into uterine.
which uterotonics should never be adminstered intravenously? Why?
PGF2 and methylergonovine can lead to bronchoconstriction and stroke respectively.
In a women w/ intractable bleeding post partum, you proceed w/ ex lap, what is the most appropriate next step?
hypogastric artery ligation (internal iliac artery). If this fails, proceed w/ hysterectomy.
20 yo G1P1 delivered 24 hrs ago. Epidural placed at labor. c/o ha/ photophobia and nausea. denies bleeding. tachy, febrile. Pain w/ neck movement. uterus nontender. No extremity edema. next step?
lumbar puncture.
In addition to ampicillin, what would be another antibiotic of choice for endomyometritis?
Gentamycin to cover for gram negative since the infection is polymycrobial.
What organism is most likely to cause acute cystitis?
E coli!. Others, K pneumoniae, P mirabilis, S faecalis and S agalactiae.
In a women 2 days postpartum w/ fever, w/o any clinical signs of infection other firm and tender breasts (no erythema), what is the most likely cause
Breast engorgement. It is an exaggerated response to lymphatic and venous congestion associated w/ lactation. If baby is not feeding well after milk let down, it can cause low grade fever. Rx: use breast pump!
In addition to breast engorgement, what else is on the DDx for postpartum fever?
endometritis, cystitis and mastitis.
In a Pfannenstiel incision w/ erythema and purulent, bloody drainage, what is the next step in management?
open drainage of wound. mixed bacteria originating from the skin, uterus and vagina cause wound infections after CS. Rx: check for dehicscence and drainage. Pack until healed from bottom up. Start abx.
32 yo G2P2 delivered 5 days ago uncomplicated. Woke up middle of last night w/ RUQ pain and chills. Febrile. Elevated LFTs. eitiology?
cholecystitis. pregnancy puts women at risk for cholithiasis. sx n/v/dyspepsia and UQ pain after fatty foods.
22 yo s/p CS 5 days ago. fever refractory to broad specturm abx. No clinical signs or symptoms. Most likely cause of fever?
septic pelvic thrombophlebitis. thrombosis of venous system of pelvis. Diagnosis of exclusion. Sometimes a CT can help. Rx: anticoagulations + abx.
Rx for septic thrombophlebitis?
short-term anticoagulation and antibiotics.
4th degree laceration + fever. laceration site repaired after delivery 2 days ago: perineum erythematous, swollen and the laceration edges grey. lac site is nontender and w/o feeling. tenderness of surrounding tissue. etiology of fever?
necrotizing fasicitis. caused by gas formers (clostridium) which cause sepsis. look for fever, pain and induration wound. Rx? abx and debridement of necrotic tissue.
28 yo G1P1 delivered 4w ago c/o difficulty sleeping, anxiety and thoughts of suicide. Dx?
Postpartum depression, more pronounced than "blues" (sx > 2w). No evidence of visual or auditory hallucinations to indicate psychosis
23yo G1P1 diagnosed with postpartum depression (including suicidal ideation) x 3mo. Next step in management?
Inpatient psychiatric admission. suicidal ideation makes inpatient best idea.
What FDA category is sertraline (zoloft) in?
Categroy C drug. animal studies showing adverse effect but not well-controlled studies in humans.
Category __ Drugs have well-controlled studies in pregnant women and have not shown an increased risk of fetal abnormalities to the fetus in any trimester.
A
Category __ Drugs have well-controlled studies in animals that no evidence of harm to fetus. adequate well controlled studies in pregnant women have failed to show increased risk to the fetus in any trimester.
B
Category ___ drugs have well-controlled or observational studies in pregnant women and are known risks to fetus.
D
Category __ drugs should not be used in pregnancy because adequate well-controlled or observational studies in animals or pregnant women have demonstrated positive evidence of fetal abnormalities. or risk
X
In a women w/ hx of psychiatric disorder, what is she at most increased risk for in postpartum period?
PP depression
23 yo G1P0 @ 24w treted for pression. No other complications. Begins fluoxetine. Most common side effects of drug?
SSRI is an antidepressant whose most common side effect is insomnia. Others: sexual dysfunction
Postpartum taking sertraline (zoloft), an SSRI, wants to breastfeed. Next step in management?
Continue meds. SSRIs are safe during lactation.
When are anti-depressants appropriate in pregnant or postpartum women?
when it begins to interfere with patient's ability to function. Before this, establish a good support system.
27 yo w/ no significant PMHx c/o low energy, anhedonia, early awakening and difficulty concentrating. Next best step?
ask about suicidal ideation. Most depressed patients are relieved to be asked about it.
22yo patient w/ regular menses c/o tension, depression and decreased productivity at end of cycle. No PMHx or FMHx. No drugs. Next best step?
get more details on timing of symptoms each month. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder occur in the luteal phase and are absent in the beginning of the follicular phase.
28 yo G1P1 delivered 4 days ago and c/o crying, trouble sleeping, anxiety and irritability. She feels better today. Dx?
PP Blues. Affects 50% of women 3-6d postpartum. Insomnia, crying, depression, poor concentration, labile affect and anxiety. last a few hours/day. less pronounced than PP depression.
what GA would define postterm pregnancy?
any pregnancy that has progressed past 42w or 294d.
29yo G1 @ 42w. what factor is most liekly to be associated w/ postterm pregnancy?
placental sulfatase deficiency (X-linked ichthyosis) - absence or reduction in production of unconjugated estrogens. Other risks: fetal adrenal hypoplasia, anenecephaly, inaccurate dates.
20 yo G2P1 @ 41w. PNC uncomplicated. what complications is most likely to occur?
Macrosomnia. Other associations w/ postpartum pregnancy: oligo, meconium aspiration, uteroplacental insufficiency and dysmaturity.
32 yo G@P1 @41w odes not report contractions but good FM. desires NSVD. Next step?
perform NST and AFI q2/week with induction for labor for a NRNST or oligohydramnious
T/F: ~50% of patients w/ a history of postterm pregnancy will experience prolonged pregnancy with next gestation.
True. Diagnosis of PTP is based on accurate GA dating.
24 yo G2P1 @ 42w in early labor. At amniotomy, there is thick meconium. What FHRT is indication?
repetitive variable deccelerations (indicative of uterine cord compression)
Etiology of meconium staining in postterm pregnancy?
3-4x more common due to 1) greater amt of time in utero to activate mature vagal system (increased passage fecally) and 2) fetal hypoxia.
32yo G2P1 @ 42w. cervix 4cm/100%. No contractions, +FM. Next step?
induction! because her cervix is favorable (unfavorable cervix and induction increase risk for CS).
22 yo G1P1 w/o PNC delivered 2100g "old man baby." GA estimated at 43w. List findings associated w/ dysmature postdate infant.
Peeling skin, meconium stained, long nails and fragile. These infants are at great risk for stillbirth.
Best inducer to ripen cervix in 22yo G1 @ 42w.
PGE1. PG applied locally are the most commonly used cervical ripening agent.
In a 36yo G1 @ 33w w/ PMHx HTN, Class F diabetic (nephropathy) w/ reveals limited fetal growth over past 3 weeks, EFW 1900g (10th percentile), what is most likely etiology of IUGR.
uteroplacental insufficiency 2/2 to systemic vascular diseases (HTN and DM) --> decreased substrate to fetus.
36yo G1 @ 35w w/ PMHx HTN and DM type 2 w/ limited fetal growth over past 3 w (10th percentile). next most appropriate step?
AFI, Doppler of umbilical artery, NST.AFI - to search for oligohydramnious. doppler to assess vascular resistance (increased S/D ratio and common in IUGR).
36 yo G1 w/ type I DM diagnosed w/ IUGR @ 33w. Next step?
Antenatal testing. fetus needs to be evaluated periodically for evidence of well-being. 1-2 weekly NST and BPP.
Most reliable method of confirming GA at term?
1 of the following: FHT documented x 20w, 36w since +hCG. Then either an crown-rump length b/w 6-12w SUPPORTS GA >39w and U/S b/w 13-20w CONFIRMS GA > 39w.
34yo Chronic HTN G1 @ 34w p/w S<D. Biparietal consistent w/ 34w but abdominal circumference of 28w & EFW < 10 percentile. Most likely cause of IUGR?
uteroplacental insufficiency can lead to asymmetric growth pattern seen in 3rd tri.
IUGR is associated with...
oligohydramnious, fetal demise, perinatal demise, meconium aspirations and PCV.
T/F: Fetus w/ IUGR is at risk for CVD, HTN, COPD, DM and Osteoporosis as an adult.
False. Osteoporosis is not increased.
Between a type 2 DM mom w/ benign retinopathy and mom w/ gestational diabetes wich is more likely to deliver a macrosomic infant?
GDM! a diabetic patient w/ nephropathy or retiniopathy is more likley to have IUGR 2/2 to uteroplacental insufficiency.
a fetus w/ marcosomia (> 90 precentile) is at greatest risk for what complications during birth?
birth trauma (including shoulder dystocia and brachial plexus injury)
28 yo G1 presents for PNC. Menses irregular. Uterus is 10w size and no adnexal masses. Best way to date pregnancy?
ultrasound - crown rump length b/w 6-12w. considered most reliable (+/- 5d) in first tri.
laceration involves rectal sphincter and rectal mucosa
4th degree
laceration involving only vaginal mucosa
1st degree
laceration involving vaginal fascia and perineum
2nd degree
laceration involves the rectal partial or complete transection of rectal sphincter
3rd degree.
What structure does a mediolateral episiotomy avoids?
external anal sphincter
T/F: uterine fibroid in the lower segment may obstruct labor and is an indication for CS
True.
Define macrosomia
> 4000g in a diabetic and 4500 in non-diabetic
22yo G1 @ 28w is in active labor. fetus @ +4 station. Epidural in and pushing effectively x 3 hrs. Exhausted. Next step?
Forceps/vacuum assist.
What the requirements for a instrument assisted vaginal delivery?
complete dilation, head engagement, vertex presentation, clinical assessment of fetal size and maternal pelvis, known position of fetal head, adequate pain control and ROM
what is less likely to occur w/ vacuum assist versus forceps assist?
maternal lacerations
complications of vacuum assist?
lacerations at edges of vacuum cup which can lead to cephalohematoma and place fetus at risk for jaundice.
19yo G1 @ 41w p/w f/SROM/no contractions. Febrile, tachy. U/S shows oligohydramnious and placeta previa. Why perform C/S
Patient has chorioamnionitis (delivery indicated if @ term), but cannot be induced 2/2 previa.
left sacrum anterior is code for what position?
breech. therefore perform a c-section
symmetric fetal growth restriction in the presence of polyhydramnious is associated with ________. Next step.
trisomy 18. get amniocentesis to get fetal karyotype, can allow for FISH (aneuploid conditions) --> trisomy 13, 18 and 21.
When would a therapeutic amniocentesis be indicated.
for respiratory compromise or preterm labor (both caused by polydramnios)
What two tests are useful for assessing abruption?
maternal fibrinogen level and Kleihauer-Betke levels.
CVS v amniocentesis
CVS - detect genetic and chromosomal abnormalities. Loss rate 0.5-3%. performed b/w 10-12 w.