Study your flashcards anywhere!

Download the official Cram app for free >

  • Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off

How to study your flashcards.

Right/Left arrow keys: Navigate between flashcards.right arrow keyleft arrow key

Up/Down arrow keys: Flip the card between the front and back.down keyup key

H key: Show hint (3rd side).h key

A key: Read text to speech.a key


Play button


Play button




Click to flip

462 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
calcium channel blocker associated with accelerated progression of CHF?
drug to slow ventricular response in Wolff-Parkinson White?
hypersensitivity angiitis or microscopic polyarteritis nodosa (can be caused by penicilin)
leukocytoclastic angiitis
in which part of the systemic circulation does the greatest decrease in blood pressure occur?
vasodilator with lupus-like syndrome as side effect?
mechanism of hydralazine?
increases cGMP - smooth muscle relaxation; vasodilates arterioles > veins; reduces afterload
what calcium channel blocker is most selective for peripheral vasculature?
mechanism of calcium channel blockers?
block voltage-dependent L-type calcium channels of cardiac and SM and thereby reduce contractility
which calcium channel blocker is not used to treat arrhythmias?
what is the goal of antianginal therapy?
reduce myocardial O2 consumption by decreasing 1 or more of the determinants of MVO2: EDV, BP, HR, contractility, ejection time
what do nitrates affect in antianginal therapy?
what happens to contractility and HR in nitrate therapy?
increase - reflex response
what do beta blockers affect in antianginal therapy?
how do nitrates affect ejection time and MVO2?
how do beta blockers affect ejection time?
increase it
what do beta blockers do to EDV?
increase it
what do beta blockers do to BP, contractility, and HR?
decrease them
what is digitoxin used for?
CHF (increases contractility) and atrial fibrillation (decreases conduciton at the AV node)
toxicities of digitoxin are increased by what?
renal failure, hpokalemia, and quinidine
blurry yellow vision is side effect of what?
what is the antidote for digitoxin?
slowly normalize K+, lidocaine, cardiac pacer, anti-dig Fab fragments
lupus-like syndrome is associated with what class IA antiarrythmic?
what are the class IA antiarrythmics?
Na+ channel blockers: quinidine, amiodarone, procainamide, disopyramide (queen amy proclaims disco pyramids)
this class IA antiarrhythmic can cause cinchonism (headache, tinnitus, thrombocytopenia), torsades de pointes (due to increased QT interval)
what class of antiarrhythmics are contraindicated post-MI
class IC - proarrhythmic
what beta blocker is very short acting?
what is the antiarrhythmic action of beta blockers?
decrease cAMP and calcium currents; suppress abnormal pacemaker by decreasing slope of phase 4 - AV node particularly sensitive - increased PR interval
toxicity of amiodarone?
pulmonary fibrosis, hepatotoxicity, hypo/hyperthroidism;corneal deposits, skin deposits resulting in photodermatitis, neuro effects, constipation, bradycardia, heart block, CHF
K+ channel blockers that can cause torsades de pointes
soltalol, ibutilide
K+ channel blocker that can cause new arrhythmias and hypotension?
wha type of cells do Ca2+ channel blockers primarily affect?
AV nodal cells
what type of antiarrhythmics are used for prevention of nodal arrhythmias?
class IV - Ca2+ channel blockers
what class IV antiarrhythmic can cause torsades de pointes?
what is the drug of choice for diagnosing/abolishing AV nodal arrhythmias?
what depresses ectopic pacemakers, especially in digitoxin toxicity?
Mg+ is effective for treating what?
torsades de pointes and digitoxin toxicity
drug for hypertension in patient with PKD?
ACE inhibitor
anti-hypertesive for pregnant woman?
in patients with wolff parkinson white and atrial fibrillation, what can digitoxin do?
enhance transmission through accessory pathways that can predispose to v tac
when is mannitol contraindicated?
anuria, CHF
clinical use of mannitol?
shock, drug overdose, decrease intracranial/intraocular pressure
how does mannitol work?
increases tubular fluid osmolarity, producing increased urine flow
mechanism of acetazolamide?
carbonic anhydrase inhibitor - causes self-limited NaHCO3 diuresis and reduction in total body HCO3- stores
where does acetazolamide act?
proximal convoluted tubule
toxicity of acetazolamide?
hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis, neuropathy, NH3 toxicity, sulfa allergy
clinical use of acetazolamide?
glaucoma, urinary alkalinization, metabolic alkalosis, altitude sickness
mechanism of furosemide?
sulfonamide loop diuretic - inhibits NKCC of thick ascending limb; abolishes hypertonicity of medulla, preventing concentration of urine
what effect does furosemide have on calcium excretion?
increases it - Loops Lose calcium
clinical use of furosemide?
edematous states (CHF, cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome, pulmonary edema), hypertension, hypercalcemia
toxicity of furosimide?
OH DANG: ototoxicity, hypokalemia, dehydration, allergy (sulfa), nephritis (interstitial), gout
drug for diuresis in patients allergic to sulfa drugs?
ethacrynic acid
diuretic that can be used in hyperuricemia, acute gout?
ethacrynic acid
mechanism of hydrochlorothiazide?
inhibits NaCl reabsorption in distal convoluted tubule, reducing diluting capacity of the nephron, decreases calcium excretion
clinical use of hydrochlorothiazide?
hypertension, CHF, idiopathic hypercalciuiria, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
diuretic used in nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?
toxicity of hydrochlorothiazide?
hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis, hyponatremia, hyperGlycemia, hyperLipidemia, hyperUricemia, and hyperCalcemia (sulfa alergy)
what are the potassium sparing diuretics?
Spironolactone, Triamterene, Amiloride, eplercone (the K+ STAys)
mechanism of spironolactone?
competitive aldosterone receptor antagonist in cortical collecting tubule
how do triamterene and amiloride act?
cortical collecting tubule - block Na+ channels
clinical use of K+ sparing diuretics?
hyperaldosteronism, K+ depletion, CHF
toxicity of K+ sparing diuretics?
hyperkalemia, endocrine effects (e.g. spironolactone causes gynecomastia, antiandrogen effects)
diuretics causing acidosis?
carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, K+ sparing diuretics
diuretics causing alkalosis?
loop diuretics, thiazides
diuretic that increases urine calcium?
loop diuretics
diuretics that decrease urine calcium?
name 3 ACE inhibitors
captopril, enlapril, lisinopril
mechanism of Losartan?
AT II receptor antagonist - not ACE inhibitor and so doesn't cause cough
toxicity of ACE inhibitors?
CATOPRIL: cough, angioedema, proteinuria, taste changes, hypOtension, pregnancy problems (fetal renal damage), rash, increased renin, lower angiotensin II; hyperkalemia
serious cardiac arrhythmias/torsades de pointes can occur with erythromycin and what?
what type of drug are omeprazole, lansoprazole?
proton pump inhibitors
action of misoprostol?
PGE1 analog - increases production and secretion of gastric mucous barrier, decreases acid production
drug that can be used to prevent NSAID-induced peptic ulcers, maintain a PDA, and induce labor
action of pirenzepine, propantheline?
muscarinic antagonists - block M1 receptors on ECL cells (decrease histamine secretion) and M3 receptors on parietal cells (decrease H+ secretion) - used for peptic ulcer
monoclonal antibody to TNF-alpha
combination of sulfapyradine (antibacterial) and mesalamine (antinflammatory) activated by colonic bacteria; Rx for Crohn's and UC
mechanism of ondansetron?
5-HT3 antagonist - powerful central-acting antiemetic
overuse of aluminum hydroxide?
constipation and hypophosphatemia
overuse of magnesium hydroxide?
overuse of calcium carbonate?
hypercalcemia, rebound acid increase
all antacids can cause what metabolic disturbance?
antiemetic that can cause Parkinsonian symptoms?
how does cimetidine impact P-450 system?
potent inhibitor
H2 blocker with antiandrogenic effect that can decrease renal excretion of creatinine?
A patient presents with HA, tinnitis, vomiting,and confusion … you are concerned about and overdose of what common medication?
Aspirin overdose will manifest as a respiratory _____ and a metabolic ______?
Aspirin overdose will manifest as a respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis
At a [CO] of 30% a patient will experience HA, and SOB because of hypoxia of what area of the brain?
gray matter
at a [co] of 50% there is hypoxia of the globus pallidus leading to what symptoms and signs?
loss of conciousness, convulsions, and coma
which mushroom is typically lethal, amanita muscaria or amanita phalloides?
phalloides - the toxin inhibits RNA polymerase and can lead to ab pain, vomiting, diarrhea, and fulminant hepatitis with extensive liver necrosis
"garlic scented breath"
arsenic poisioning
what are Mees lines?
transverse band on fingernails that may indicate chronic arsenic poisioning
what are the long term complications of chronic arsenic poisioning?
squamous cell carcinoma of lungs and skin
what is the most common chrnoic metal poisioining in the united states?
lead poisionign ALWAYS involves
CNS toxicity
what is the mechanism of lead toxicity?
lead interferes with heme production by inhibiting d-aminolevulinic acid dehydratase and ferrochelatase
A patient presents with wrist and foot drop, microcytic anemia with basophillic stippling, and dark lines on their gums … you suspect …
lead poisioning
"bitter almond" scented breath
cyanide poisioing
what is the mechanism of cyanide poisioning
blocks cellular respiration by binding cytocrhome oxidase
what are the top 3 causes of death in smokers
1. heard disease, 2. lung cancer, 3. copd
T or F: stopping smoking for 15 years will reduce the risk of dying to almost the level of a non-smoker
a patient presents with a perforation in the nasal septum and dilated cardiomyopathy … you suspect chronic use of what chemical?
what causes "track marks" of a IVDU
the healing of skin abscesses
mechanism of amantadine?
blocks viral penetration/uncoating; may buffer pH of endosome. also causes the release of dopamine from intact nerve terminals
clinical use of amantadine?
prophylaxis and treatment for influenza A; Parkinson's disease
toxicity of amantadine?
ataxia, dizziness, slurred speech
mehcanism of zanamivir, oseltamivir?
inhibit influenza neuraminidase
clinical use of zanamivir & oseltamivir?
both influenza A & B
mechanism of ribavirin?
inhibits synthesis of gruanine nucleotides by competitively inhibiting IMP dehydrogenase
clinical use of ribavirin?
RSV, chronic hepatitis C
toxicity of ribavirin?
hemolytic anemia, severe teratogen
mechanism of acyclovir?
preferentially inhibits viral DNA polymerase when phosphorylated by viral thymidine kinase; guanine analog
clinical use of acyclovir?
HSV, VZV, EBV; mucocutaneous and genital herpes lesions; prophylaxis in immunocompromised patients
toxicity of acyclovir?
delerium, tremor, nephrotoxicity
mechanism of ganciclovir?
phosphorylation by viral kinase; preferentially inhibits CMV DNA polymerase
clinical use of ganciclovir?
CMV, especially in immunocompromised patients
toxicity of ganciclovir?
leukopenia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, renal toxicity; more toxic to host enzymes then acyclovir
mechanism of foscarnet?
viral DNA polymerase inhibitor that binds to the pyrophosphate binding site of the enzyme; does not require action by viral kinase
clinical use of foscarnet?
CMV retinitis in immunocompromised patients when ganciclovir fails; acyclovir-resistant HSV
toxicity of foscarnet?
nephrotoxicity, hypoglycemia, hypomagnesia
saquinavir, ritonavir, indinavir, nelfinavir, and amprenavir are what type of drugs?
protease inhibitors - used in HIV therapy
mechanism of protease inhibitors?
inhibit assembly of new virus by blocking protease enzyme
toxicity of protease inhibitors?
GI intolerance (nausea, diarrhea), hyperglycemia, lipid abnormalities
protease inhibitor that can cause thrombocytopenia?
zidovudine, didanosine, zalcitabine, stavudine, lamivudine, and abacavir are what type of drug?
nucleoside RT inhibitors
nevirapine, delaviridine, and efavirenz are what type of drug?
non-nucleoside RT inhibitors
mechanism of reverse transcriptase inhibitors?
preferentially inhibit RT of HIV; prevent incorporation of viral genome into host DNA
toxicity of RT inhibitors?
bone marrow suppression (neutropenia, anemia), peripheral neuropathy
what type of reverse transcriptase inhibitors can cause lactic acidosis?
nucleosides - zidovudine, didanosine, zalcitabine, stavudine, lamivudine, and abacavir
what type of RT inhibitors can cause rash?
non-nucleosides -nevirapine, delaviridine, and efavirenz
nucleoside RT inhibitor that can cause megaloblastic anemia?
AZT (zidovudine)
what HIV drug is used during pregnancy to reduce the risk of fetal transmission?
interferon-alpha is used for what?
chronic hepatitis B andC, Kaposi's sarcoma
interferon beta is used in what disease?
interferon gamma is used in what disease?
NADPH oxidase deficiency
toxicity of interferons?
these are glycoproteins from human leukocytes that block various stages of viral RNA and DNA synthesis
drug used for giardiasis, amebic dysentery, bacterial vaginitis, trichomonas?
drug used for giant roundworm (asarcis), hookworm (necator/ancylostoma), and pinworm (enterobius)?
pyrantel pamoate
drug used for trematode/fluke (schistosomes, paragnimus, clornorchis), and cysticercosis?
drug used for cestode/tapeworm (e.g. diphyllobothrium latum, taenia species) infections except cysticercosis?
drug used for onchocerciasis?
ivermectin (rIVER blindness)
drug used for nematode/roundworm (e.g. pinworm, whipworm) infections?
block cell wall synthesis by inhibition of peptidoglycan cross-linking
penicillin, ampicillin, ticarcillin, piperacillin, imipenem, aztreonam, cephalosporins
block peptidoglycan synthesis
bacitracin, vancomycin, cycloserine
disrupt bacterial/fungal cell membranes
disrupt fungal cell membranes
amphotericin B, nystatin, fluconazole/azoles
block nucleotide synthesis
sulfonamides, trimethoprim
block DNA topoisomerases
block mRNA synthesis
block protein synthesis at 50S ribosomal subunit
chloramphenicol, erythromycin/macrolides, lincomycin, clindamycin, streptogramins (quinupristin, dalfopristin), linezolid
block protein synthesis at 30S ribosomal subunit
aminoglycosides, tetracyclines
bacteriacidal antibiotics (6)
penicilin, cephalosporins, vancomycin, aminoglycosides, fluoroquinolones, metronidazole
penicillin mechanism
bind PBPs, block transpeptidase cross-linking of cell wall; activate autolytic enzymes
penicillin toxicity
hypersensitivity reactions, hemolytic anemia
mechanism of methicillin, nafcillin, dicloxacillin
bind PBPs, block transpeptidase cross-linking of cell wall - penicillinase resistant because of bulkier R group
methicillin toxicity
interstitial nephritis
ampicillin, amoxicillin toxicity
hypersensitvity, ampicillin rash (esp. in pts. w/ mono), pseudomembranous colitis
ticarcillin, carbenicillin, piperacillin usage
pseudomonas (Takes Care of Pseudomonas)
mechanism of cephalosporins
beta-lactam drugs that inhibit cell wall synthesis - less susceptible to penicillinases
antibiotic for penicillin-allergic patients and patients w/ renal toxicity who can't tolerate aminoglycosides
aztreonam (synergistic w/ aminoglycosides)
drug of choice for enterobacter
antibiotic that can cause seizures at high plasma levels
mechanism of vancomycin
inhibits cell wall mucopeptide formation by binding D-ala D-ala portion of cell wall precursors
mechanism of resistance to vancomycin
amino acid change of D-ala D-ala to D-ala D-lac
vancomycin toxicity
well tolerated in general - does NOT have many problems: nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, thrombophlebitis
streptomycin, gentamicin, tobramycin, amikacin - bacteriacidal
mechanism of action of aminoglycosides
inhibit 30S subunit - inhibit formation of initiation complex and cause misreading of mRNA
are aminoglycosides effective agains anaerobes?
no! require O2 or uptake
aminoglycosides cause nephrotoxicity especially when used in combination with _________
aminoglycosides cause ototoxicity especially when used with_________
loop diuretics
are aminoglycosides safe to use in pregnancy?
no! teratogenic
which tetracycline can be used in patients with renal failure?
doxycycline because it is fecally eliminated
can you take tetracyclines with milk?
no! nor atacids or iron-containing preparations because divalent cations inhibit its absorption in the gut
tetracycline toxicity
discoloration of teeth and inhibition of bone growth in children, photosensitivity
mechanism of action of macrolides
inhibit protein synthesis by blocking translocation - bind to 23S rRNA of the 50S subunit
name 3 macrolides
erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin
when can sulfonamides cause hemolysis?
G6PD deficiency
most common cause of noncompliance with macrolides
GI discomfort
macrolides increase the serum concentration of what drugs?
theophyllines, oral anticoagulants
acute cholestatic hepatitis & eosinophilia are toxicities of which class of antibiotics?
clinical use of chloramphenicol
meningitis - H. flu, neisseria, strep pneumo
why does chloramphenicol cause gray baby syndrome?
because infants lack liver UDP-glucoronyl transferase
is the aplastic anemia seen with chloramphenicol dose dependent?
no! the anemia is, however
mechanism of action of chloramphenicol
inhibits 50S peptidyltransferase
what is the clinical use of clindamycin?
treatment of anaerobic infections - B. frag, C. perfringfens
clindamycin toxicity
pseudomembranous colitis - destroys normal GI flora
mechanism of action of sulfonamides (sulfamethoxazole, sulfisoxazole, triple sulfas, etc.)
PABA antimetabolites inhibit dihydropteroate synthase
what side effect can sulfonamides cause in infants?
mechanism of action of trimethoprim
inhibits bacterial dihydrofolate reductase
trimethoprim toxicity
megaloblastic anemia, leukopenia, granulocytopenia (may alleviate with supplemental folinic acid)
mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones
inhibit DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II)
what class of antibiotics can cause cartilage damage in kids?
what drug is associated with a disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol and a metallic taste
what can prevent the neurotoxicity associated with INH?
pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
INH toxicity
hemolysis if G6PD deficient, neurotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, SLE-like syndrome
mechanism of action of rifampin
inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
what drug delays resistance to dapsone when used for leprosy?
resistance mechanism for penicillins/cephalosporins
beta-lactamase cleavage of beta lactam ring
resistance mechanism for aminoglycosides
modification via acetylation, adenylation, or phosphorylation
resistance mechanism for chloramphenicol
modification via acetylation
resistance mechanism for macrolides
methylation of rRNA near erythromycin's ribosome binding site
resistance mechanism for tetracycline
decreased uptake or increased transport out of cell
resistance mechanism for sulfonamides
altered enzyme (bacterial dihydropteroate synthetase), decreased uptake, or increased PABA synthesis
mechanism of action of amphotericin B
binds ergosterol (unique to fungi); forms membrane pores that allow leakage of electrolytes and disrupt homeostasis
drug of choice for systemic mycoses
amphotericin B
amphotericin B toxicity
fever/chills, hypotension, nephrotoxicity, arrhythmias, hypochromic normocytic anemia
do ketoconazole and ampho B act synergistically?
no - they antagonize each other's actions, so should never be used together
which has greater oral availability - amoxicillin or ampicillin?
spectrum of ampicillin, amoxicillin
HELPS kill enterococci: h. flu, e. coli, listeria, proteus, salmonella, enterococci
cefazolin and cephalexin are what generation cephalosporins?
coverage of cefazolin and cephalexin?
proteus, e. coli, klebsiella and gram +
cefoxitin, cefaclor, cefuroxamine are what generation?
coverage of cefoxitin, cefaclor, cefuroxamine?
h. flu, enterobacter, neisseria, proteus, e. coli, klebsiella
ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, and ceftazidime are what generation?
use of ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, and ceftazidime?
serious gram-negative infections resistant to other beta lactams; meningitis; ex. ceftazidime for pseudomonas, ceftriaxone for gonorrhea
cefepime, cefpiramide belong to what generation?
use of cefepime, cefpiramide?
increased activity against pseudomonas and gram-positive organisms
serum-like sickness in infants and kids can be seen with what cephalosporin?
ceflacor (2nd generation)
this is an inhibitor of renal dihydropeptidase I
cilastin - decreases inactivation of imipenem in renal tubules
why are aminoglycosides ineffective against anaerobes?
require O2 for uptake
drug used for bowel surgery?
this tetracycline is an ADH antagonist - acts as a diuretic in SIADH
clinical use of tetracyclines?
VACUUM THe BedRoom: vibrio cholerae, acne, chlamydia, ureaplasma urealyticum, mycoplasma, tularemia, h. pylori, borrelia burgdorferi, rickettsia
this drug treats anaerobes above the diaphragm
these drugs can cause leg cramps and myalgias in kids
used for anaerobes below the diaphragm
how does nystatin work?
binds to ergosterol, disrupting fungal membranes (too toxic for systemic use)
mechanism of the -azoles?
inhibit fungal steriod (ergosterol) synthesis
toxicities of -azoles?
hormone synthesis inhibition (gynecomastia), liver dysfunction (inhibition of P450), fever, chills
this antifungal inhibits DNA synthesis by conversion to fluorouracil, which competes with uracil
toxicity of flucytosine
nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, bone marrow suppression
mechanism of caspofungin?
inhibits cell wall syntehsis
use of caspofungin?
invasive aspergillosis
toxicity of caspofungin?
GI upset, flushing
this antifungal inhibits the fungal enzyme squalene epoxidase
use of terbinafene?
used to treat dermatophytoses (especially onychomycosis)
mechanism of griseofulvin?
interferes with microtubule function; disrupts mitosis; depostis in keratin-containing tissues (e.g. nails)
clinical use of griseofulvin?
oral treatment of superficial infections; inhibits growth of dermatophytes (tinea, ringworm)
toxicity of griseofulvin?
teratogenic, carcinogenic, confusion, headaches, increases warfarin metabolism
actions of insulin/insulin-like drugs?
TK activity: liver (increase glucose stored as glycogen), muscle (increase glycogen and protein synthesis, K+ uptake), fat (aids TG storage)
what type of drug: tolbutamide & chlorpropamide?
first generation sulfonylureas
what type of drug: glyburide, glimepiride, glipizide?
second generation sulfonylureas
mechanism of action of sulfonylureas?
close K+ channel in beta cell membrane so cell depolarizes, triggering of insulin release via Ca2+ influx
what are sulfonylureas used for?
stimulate release of endogenous insulin in type 2 DM; require some islet function so useless in type 1
side effects of first generation sulfonylureas?
disulfiram-like reactions
side effect of second generation sulfonylureas?
what is the most grave side effect of metformin?
lacti acidosis
can metformin be used in patients without islet function?
action of pioglitazone and rosiglitazone?
increase target cell response to insulin
action of acarbose and miglitol?
alpha glucosidase inhibitors - inhibit intestinal brush border alpha glucosidases; delayed sugar hydrolysis and glucose and glucose absorption lead to decreased postprandial hyperglycemia
mechanism of propylthiouracil, methimazaole?
inhibit organification and coupling of thyroid hormone synthesis - used for hyperthyroidism
toxicity of propylthiouracil, methimazole?
skin rash, agranulocytosis (rare), aplastic anemia
what are orlistat and dsibutramine used for?
obesity management (orlistat is long-term)
use of glucocorticoids?
Addison's disease, inflammation, immune suppression, asthma
mechanism of finasteride?
5 alpha reductase inhibitor
mechanism of flutamide?
nonsteroidal competitive inhibitor of androgens at the testosterone receptor
mechanism of leuprolide?
GnRH analog with agonist properties when used in pulsatile fashion and antagonist properties when used in continuous fashion
mechanism of clomephine?
partial agonist at estrogen receptors in hte pituitary - prevents normal feedback inhibition and increases release of LH and FSH from the pituitary, which stimulates ovulation
drug of choice for women with estrogen receptor + breast cancer?
tamoxifen - competitively inhibits estradiol at estrogen receptors
treatment for polycystic ovarian syndrome?
ketoconazole, spironolactone
drugs with what type of solubility in blood have rapid induction and recovery times?
decreased solubility
drugs with what solubility in lipids have increased potency?
increased solubility
the greater the MAC, the what?
greater the concentration needed to produce anesthesia
what inhaled anesthetic is associated with hepatotoxicity?
what inhaled anesthetic is associated with nephrotoxicity?
what inhaled anesthetic is a proconvulsant?
what is the Rx for malignant hyperthermia?
this class of intravenous anesthetics causes decreased cerebral blood flow and is therefore desirable for patients with cerebral edema
this IV anesthetic class can cause exacerbation of intermittent porphyria
what is the most common anesthetic used for endoscopy?
this class of IV anesthetics can cause severe post-op respiratory depression, decreased BP, and amnesia? what do you treat this with?
benzodiazepenes; flumazenil
this class of anesthetics are PCP analogs that act as dissociative anesthetics
arylcyclohexamines, e.g. ketamine
these anesthetics can cause disorientation, hallucination, and bad dreams
arylcyclohexamines (ketamine) - also increase cerebral blood flow
what reverses the CNS and respiratory effects of opiods?
this IV anesthetic has less post-op nausea than thiopental
this IV anesthetic is used for rapid anesthesia induction and short procedures
procaine, cocaine, tetracaine belong to what class of local anesthetic?
lidocaine, mepivacaine, bupivacaine belong to what class of local anesthetic
amides - amides have 2 i's in name
how do local anesthetics work?
block Na+ channels by binding to specific receptors on inner portion of cannel; tertiarty amines penetrate membranes in uncharged form, then bind to ion channels in charged form
why do you need more local anesthetic in infected tissues?
infected tissues is acidic, so anesthetics are charged and cannot penetrate membrane effectively
what is the order of loss with local anesthetics?
pain > temperature > touch > pressure
what local anesthetic has severe CV toxitcity?
what local anesthetic is associated with hypertension, hypotension, and arrhythmias?
what is the mechanism of action of dantrolene?
prevents the release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle
what kind of drug is succinylcholine?
depolarizing NM blocker
what is the antidote for phase I NM block?
none - block is potentiated by cholinesterase inhibitors
what is the antidote for phase II NM block?
cholinesterase inhibitors, e.g. neostigmine
how do you reverse nondepolarizing NM blockade?
neostigmine, edrophonium, and other cholinesterase inhibitors
what class of drugs do tubocurarine, atracurium, mivacurium, pancuronium, vercuronium, rapacuroniumm belong to?
nondepolarizing NM blockers
what type of NM blockers compete with ACh for receptors?
antiarrhythmic causing hemolytic anemia?
antineoplastic agent causing hemorrhagic cystitis?
notable toxicity of cisplatin?
nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity
toxicity of vincristine?
dose-limited neurotoxicity
treatment of choice for legionella?
what type of drug is hexamethonium?
ganglionic blocker
neuromuscular blocker that initially causes fasciculations?
what enzyme does warfarin inhibit?
epoxide reductase - converts vitamin K into its active quinone form
what does zileuton inhibit?
what is the active ingredient in rat poisoning?
diuretic that can increase blood glucose in diabetics?
what is the mechanism of dantrolene?
prevents the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, thereby reducing skeletal muscle contractions (Rx for malignant hyperthermia)
what is pralidoxime?
an AChE reactivating agent
what is tyramine?
an indirect-acting sympathomimetic
what is the mechanism of opiod analgesics?
act as agonists at opiod receptors to modulate synaptic transmission
what opiod works at the mu receptor?
what opiod works at the delta receptor?
what opoid workds at the kappa receptor?
how do you treat opiod toxicity?
naloxone or naltrexone (opiod receptor antagonists)
what is contraindicated in morphine overdose?
O2 - might contribute to respiratory failure
toxicity of opiods?
respiratory depression, miosis (pinpoint pupils), additive CNS depression with other drugs, constipation, addiction
how do NSAIDs work?
reversibly inhibit COX-1 and COX-2; block prostaglandin synthesis
what is used to close a PDA?
toxicity of NSAIDs?
renal damage, aplastic anemia, GI distress, ulcers
how do celecoxib, valdecoxib work?
selectively inhibit COX-2, which is found in inflammatory cells and mediates inflammation and pain
why should COX 2 inhibitors not have the corrosive effects of other NSAIDs on the GI lining?
spares COX-1, which helps maintain the gastric mucosa
what are COX 2 inhibitors used for?
rheumatoid and osteoarthritis
what is the mechanism of acetominaphen?
reversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase, mostly in CNS; inactivated peripherally
what is the antidote for acetominaphen toxicity?
what drug is used for acute gout?
this gout drug depolymerizes microtubules, impairing leukocyte chemotaxis and degranulation
what acute gout drug is less toxic than colchicine and therefore is used more frequently?
this drug is used for chronic gout - it inhibits resorption of uric acid
what gout drug inhibits secretion of penicillin?
what is the mechanism of allopurinol? what is it used for?
inhibits xanthine oxidase, decreasing conversion of xanthine to uric acid; used for chronic gout (when under control)
what gout drug is also used in lymphoma and leukemia to revent tumor lysis-associated nephropathy?
what is etanercept?
recombinant form of human TNF receptor that binds TNF-alpha
what is etanercept used for?
RA, psoriasis, ankylosing spondylitis
what is infliximab?
TNF-alpha antibody
what is infliximab used for?
Crohn's disease, RA, ankylosing spondylitis
this drug binds to cyclophilins, and the complex blocks the differentiation and activation of T cells by inhibiting calcineurin, thus preventing production of IL-2 and its receptor
when is cyclosporine used?
suppresses organ rejection after transplantation; selected AI disorders
the nephrotoxicity associated with cyclosporine is preventable with what?
mannitol diuresis
what toxicity is associated with cyclosporine?
predisposes to viral infections and lymphoma
what is the mechanism of action of tacrolimus (FK-506)? what drug is it similar to?
binds to FK-binding protein, inhibiting secretion of IL-2 and other cytokines; similar in action to cyclosporine
what is tacrolimus used for?
potent immunosuppressive used in organ transplant recipients
what toxicities are associated with tacrolimus?
significant nephrotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypertension, pleural effusion, hyperglycemia
this drug is an antimetabolite derivative of 6-mercaptopurine that interferes with the metabolism and synthesis of nucleic acids; it is toxic to proliferating lymphocytes
when is azathioprine used?
kidney transplants; AI disorders including glomerulonephritis and hemolytic anemia
toxic effects of this drug may be increased by allopurinol
azathioprine - active metabolite mercaptopurine is metabolized by xanthine oxidase
what is the major toxicity associated with azathioprine?
bone marrow suppression
acetomeniphen metabolite depletes what in the liver?
glutahione and forms toxic tissue adducts
low doses of uricosuric agents and salicylates do what to the serum uric acid concentration?
increase it
action of carbachol, pilocarpine
glaucoma drugs - activates ciliary muscle of eye (open angle), pupillary sphincter (narrow angle); resistant to AChE
neostigmine, pyridostigmine, edrophonium, physostigmine, and echothiophate all do what?
increase endogenous ACh
this extremely short acting anticholinesterase is used for hte diagnos of myasthenia gravis
this anticholinesterase is used for post-op and neurogenc ileus and urinary retention, MG, and postop reversal of NM blockade
this anticholinesterase is used for glaucoma and atropine OD
symptoms of cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning
diarrhea, urination, miosis, bronchospasm, bradycardia, excitation of skeletal muscle and CNS, lacrimation, sweating, and salivation
antidote for parathion/cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning?
atropine (muscarinic antagonist) plus pralidoxime (chemical antagonist used to regenerate active cholinesterase)
how do atropine, homatropine, and tropicamide affect the eye?
produce mydriasis and cycloplegia (cholinoreceptor blockers)
actions of atropine?
muscarinic antagonist - blocks SLUD
toxicity of atropine?
inccreased body temp, rapid pulse, dry mouth, dry, flushed skin, cycloplegia, constipation, disorientation
mechanism/selectivity of epinephrine?
direct general agonist (alpha 1/2, beta 1/2)
mechanism/selectivity of NE?
alpha 1/2, beta 1
mechanism/selectivity of isoproterenol?
beta 1 = beta 2
mechanism/selectivity of dopamine?
D1=D2 > B > a
mechanism/selectivity of dobutamine?
B1 > B2
mechanism of amphetamines?
indirect general agonist, rerleases stored catecholamines
mechanism of ephedrine?
indirect general agonist, rerleases stored catecholamines
mechanism/selectivity of phelylephrine?
a1 > a2
mechanism/selectivity of albuterol?
B2 > B1
mechanism of cocaine?
indirect general agonist, uptake inhibitor
mechanism of clonidine, alpha-methyldopa?
centrally acting alpha agonist, decreases central adrenergic outflow
name three a1 selective blockers
prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin
what kind of drug is mirtazapine?
alpha 2 selective blocker, used for depression
what are alpha 1 blockers used for?
hypertension, urinary retention in BPH
which is reversible: phenoxybenzamine or phentolamine?
wwhat are phenoxybenzamine and phentolamine used for?
nonselective alpha blockers used for pheochromocytoma
what are the B1 selective blockers?
A BEAM: acebutolol (partial agonist), betaxolol, esmolol, atenolol, metoprolol
what is a short-acting B1 blocker?
what two nonselective beta blockers are partial agonists?
pindolol, labetalol
how does timolol work in glaucoma?
decreases secretion of aqueous humor
what is the only irreversible alpha blocker?
P450 inducers?
Queen Barb takes Phenphen and Refuses Greasy Carbs: quinidine, barbiturates, phenytoin, rifampin, griseofulvin, carbamazepine
P450 inhibitors?
inhibitors stop cyber kinds from eating grapefruit: isoniazid, sulfonamides, cimetidine, ketoconazole, erythromycin, grapefruit juice, st. john's wort
what is inhibited by disulfiram?
acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
antibiotic causing ototoxicity in pregnancy?
antibiotic that can cause acute cholestatic hepatitis in mom?
antibiotic that can cause mutagenesis?
loading dose?
Cp x Vd/F
(Cp = target plasma concentration)
maintenance dose?
Cp x CL/F
half life?
(0.7 x Vd)/CL
volume of distribution?
amount of drug in body/plasma drug concentration
rate of elimination of drug/plasma concentration of drug
Parkinson's drug that selectively inhibits MAO-B
epilepsy drug that can cause agranulocytosis
what do you use to treat benzodiazepine overdose?
flumazenil (competitive antagonist at GABA receptor)
seizure drug that can cause SLE-like syndrome
what is the mechanism of dilantin/phenytoin?
use-dependent blockade of Na+ channels
chronic use of this anti-epileptic can cause gingival hyperplasia in kids, peripheral neuropathy, hirsutism, megaloblastic anemia, and malignant hyperthermia
mechanism of action of barbiturates?
facilitate GABA action by increasing duration of Cl- channel opening, thus decreasing neuron firing
what seizure drug is contraindicated in porphyria?
barbiturates do what to the P-450 system?
induce it
what epilepsy drug is associated with hepatotoxicity and neural tube defects?
valproic acid
what drug is used to treat neuroleptic malignant syndrome (rigidity, myoglobinuria, autonomic instability, hyperprexia)
dantrolene and dopamine agonists
tardive dyskinesia can result from long-term use of what class of drugs?
neuroleptics (antipsychotics) - thioridazine, haloperidol, fluphenazine, chlorpromazine
schizophrenia drug that can cause agranulocytosis
side effects of lithium?
polyuria (ADH antagonist causeing nephrogenic diabetes insipidus), hypothyrodism
what is the mechanism of action of atypical antipsychotics (clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone)
block 5-HT2 and dopamine receptors
what is 'serotonin syndrome'?
can occur when SSRIs are given with MAOI's - hperthermia, muscle rigidity, CV collapse
fluoxetine, sertaline, paroxetine, and citalopram are what type of drugs?
how do TCAs work?
block reuptake of NE and serotonin - imipramine, amitrptyline, desipramine, nortriptyline, clomipramine, doxepin
what TCA can be used for bedwetting?
which TCA is the least sedating?
which class of antidepressants has convulsions, coma, arrythmias, respiratory depression as potential toxicities?
tricyclics can cause confusion and hallucinations in elderly due to anticholinergic side effects - what do you use?
which of the SSRIs inhibits the P-450 system?
which atypical antipsychotic can also be used to treat OCD, GAD, depression, mania?
what is the mechanism of antipsychotic drugs?
block dopamine D2 receptors
this parkinson's drug agonizes dopamine receptors
mechanism of action of amantadine? what is it used for?
increased dopamine - parkinson's
entacapone and tolcapone are parkinson's drugs that inhibit what?
COMT - prevent dopamine breakdown
this parkinson's drug curbs excess cholinergic activity
benztropine - antimuscarinic, improves tremor and rigidity but has littel effect on bradykinesia
mechanism of l-dopa
increased level of dopamine in brain
what is l-dopa administered with and why?
carbidopa - a peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor - increases the bioavailability of l-dopa in the brain and to limit peripheral side effects
what is sumatriptan and what is it used for?
5-HT1D agonist - causes vasoconstriction; used for acute migraine & cluster headache attacks
sumatriptan is contraindicated in patients with what? why?
can cause coronary vasospasm, so contraindiicated in pts. with CAD or prinzmental's angina
which 2 epilepsy drugs can cause stevens-johnson syndrome?
lamotrigine, ethosuximide
what is the first line drug for absence seizures?
what is the first line drug for acute status epilepticus?
benzodiazepines (diazepam or lorazepam)
what is the first line drug for prophylaxis of status epilepticus?
what is the first-line seizure drug for pregnant women, children?
this drug is a first-line treatment for tonic-clonic seizures and trigeminal neuralgia
what is the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines?
facilitate GABAa action by increasing frequency of Cl- channel opening
this class of antidepressants can cause sedation, alpha-blocking effects, atropine-like effects (tachycardia, urinary retention)
what is the mechanism of action of venlafaxine?
heterocyclic antidepressant - inhibits serotonin, NE, and dopamine reuptake
mechanism of action of mirtazapine?
alpha2 agonist - increases release of NE and serotonin, and potent 5-HT2 and 5-HT3 receptor antagonist
this heterocyclic antidepressant blocks NE reuptake
what is the clinical use of MAOIs?
atypical depression (i.e. with psychotic or phobic features(, anxiety, hypochondriasis
MAOIs are contraindicated with what two classes of drugs?
SSRIs and beta blockers (prevent serotonin syndrome)
what is a sensitive indicator of alcohol use?
serum gamma-glutamyltransferase
disinhibition, emotional lability, slurred speech, ataxia, coma, and blackout are signs of what type of intoxication?
tremor, tachycrdia, hypertension, malaise, nausea, seizures, agitation, hallucinations are signs of withdrawal from what?
CNS depression, nausea and vomiting, constipation, pinpoint pupils, and seizures may be signs of what type of intoxication?
anxiety, insomnia, anorexia, sweating, dilated pupils, fever, rhinorrhea, piloerection, nausea, cramps, diarrhea, yawning are signs of withdrawal from what type of drug?
psychomotor agitation, impaired judgement, pupillary dilation, hypertension, tachycardia, euphoria, prolonged wakefulness and attention, cardiac arrythmias, delusions, hallucinations, and fever may be signs of what type of intoxication?
post use crash, including depression, lethargy, headache, stomach cramps, hunger, and hypersomnolence are characteristic of withdrawal from what?
euphoria, psychomotor agitation, impaired judgment, tachycardia, pupillary dilation, hypertension, hallucinations (including tactile), paranoid ideations, angina, and sudden cardiac death may be signs of intoxication with what drug?
post use crash, including severe depression and suicidality, hpersomnolence, fatigue, malaise, severe psychologial craving are characteristic of withdrawal from what?
belligerence, impulsiveness, fever, pschomotor agitation, vertical and horizontal nystagmus, tachycardia, ataxia, homicidality, psychosis, and delerium are indicative of intoxication with what drug?
recurrence of intoxication symptoms due to reabsorption in GI tract, sudden onset of severe, random, homicidal violence may occur with withdrawal from what substance?
what 2 drugs are not typically associated with withdrawal symptoms?
marijuana, LSD
marked anxiety or depression, delusions, visual hallucinations, flashbacks, and pupil dilation are characteristic of intoxication with what substance?
euphoria, anxiety, paranoid delusions, perception of slowed time, impaired judgment, social withdrawal, increased appetite, dry mouth, and hallucinations are characteristics of what type of substance use?
which has a higher safety margin: barbiturates or benzodiazepines?
anxiety, seizures, delerium, life-threatening CV collapse are potential side effects of withdrawal from what?
what drug inhibits opiods?
this drug of abuse causes pupillary constriction/pinpoint pupils
these 3 drugs of abuse can cause pupillary dilation
amphetamines, cocaine, LSD
this drug of abuse can cause vertical and horizontal nystagmus
this drug of abuse can cause angina and sudden cardiac death
which drug of abuse is associated wtih homicidality?
which epilepsy drug can cause kidney stones?
name two MAOIs
phenelzine, tranylcypormine
what class of benzodiazepines are the most appropriate for acute insomnia and jet lag?
short-acting, e.g. triazolam
alpazolam is what type of benzodiazepine and what is it most often used for?
intermediate-acting; panic attacks
is secobarbital short- or long-acting?
what is xerostomia?
dry mouth
what type of drug is benztropine?
anticholinergic - leads to anti-SLUDG side effects
how do methamphetamine/amphetamine work?
gain entrance to dopamine and NE nerve terminals, causing the release of these NTs via the uptake carriers; DA is a significant factor in the reinforcing effects of stimulants
how does supatriptan work?
serotonin1D agonist