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143 Cards in this Set

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A 6-month-old baby has oral thrush. The minimum licensed age for Daktarin Sugar-Free Oral Gel in months is..

4 months


The maximum number of times per day that hydrocortisone cream should be used is.

Twice a day

A 16-year-old girl has menstrual cramps and wants to purchase naproxen. The minimum licensed age for naproxen 250 mg tablet OTC in years is.

15 years


A 64-year-old man suffers from migraines and is asking to purchase sumatriptan. The maximum licensed age for sumatriptan 50 mg tablets OTC.

65 years

What drug class is morphine sulphate liquid at the strength 10mg/5ml ONLY

Schedule 5

The maximum number of days of treatment that can be supplied to a 36-year old patient has asked you to issue an emergency supply of diazepam 2 mg tablets.

CD4-1 can be given a max of 5 days

You are reviewing old Prescription Only Medicine (POM) Register entries to establish when the Register is no longer required to be retained in the pharmacy. The POM register contains a most recent entry of the supply of POM for animal use under the veterinary cascade.


How long should it be kept if no Vet meds were present.

5 years with vet meds


2 years without vet meds


You have supplied a patient with a part-supply of a prescribed quantity of Pregabalin for neuropathic pain and they have yet to collect the remainder of the supply. From the appropriate date on the prescription, what time period do you use to calculate the last possible collection date.

28 days

You are the Responsible Pharmacist (R) in a community pharmacy that has recently started supplying certain licensed animal medicines (POM-VPS and POM-V) and you supply animal medicines under the veterinary cascade. How often should an audit be undertaken for the POM-V and POM-VPS supplies?.

1 year

Why is amlodipine unsuitable in cardinogenic shock (MI/unstable angina)

It can cause a reflex increase in cardiac contractility and heart rate, which can increase the demand for oxygen

Which asthma medication can cause a stutter

Montelukast

A 37-year-old female patient who uses a Novorapid Flexpen presents at the pharmacy to show you her abdomen which contains a solid and firm lump where she has been injecting. You recall reading an MHRA Drug Safety Update in September 2020 about insulin and suspecthat it may not be lipodystrophy.


Which of the following is a differential diagnosis of lipodystrophy?. Single choice.


(0/1 Point)


A cutaneous amyloidosis


B dermatitis


C eczema


D hernia


E lipoma

Cutaneous amyloidosis

What are some dangers about fentanyl patches

- should not be cut


- hands should be washed after application


- should not be applied after a hot shower


- should not be used in opioid naive patients

What is the interaction between amoxicillin and methotrexate

Amoxicillin increases methotrexate levels cause methotrexate toxicity - nausea, headaches, fatigue, mucostis and hair loss

What are the legal requirements for a POM prescription?

- written or printed in indelible ink


- be a valid date


- signed in ink by prescriber


- state the address of prescriber and an indication of the type of prescriber


- state name and address of patient


Age if under 12

How long after taking ulipristal can a parent breastfeed?

One week

What electrolyte imbalance is associated with trimethoprim?

Hyperkalaemia

How long before intercourse should sildenafil be taken

1 hour

A young man with epilepsy is traveling to an overseas region with a risk of malaria. Assuming there is no drug resistance in the region of travel, which of the following options would you recommend?. Single choice.


(1/1 Point)


A atovaguone with proguanil


B chemoprophylaxis not recommended, avoid mosquito bites


C chloroquine


D chloroquine with proguanil


E mefloquine

A atovaguone with proguanil

What should patients with diabetes take if trying for a baby?

Folic acid 5mg when trying and up until week 12 of pregnancy

What can you give a 4 year old child with bullous impetigo who are not systemically unwell or at high risk of complications?

Hydrogen peroxide 1% cream

What does Boostrix-IPV protect against?

Whooping cough

When will the contraceptive patch fail?

If it has been detached or removed for more than 48 hours - ECH required if this occurs in week one or if patches aren’t used correct for 7 days after

When can the combined hormonal contraceptive pill fail?

If two or more pills are missed in week one or if the pill free interval has been extended to more than 7 days

What could cause the combined pill, progesterone only pill, the progesterone only implant, a patch or a vaginal ring to fail?

The use of liver enzyme-inducing medicines (28 days after this)


- rifampicin


- epilepsy (phenytoin, carbamazepine, topiramate, phenolbarbital and primidone)


- hiv medicine


- orlistat (not by inducing though)


- St John’s wort

What contraceptive methods are not affected by enzyme-inducing drugs?

• the progestogen-only injection


• an intrauterine device (IUD) (copper coil)


• an intrauterine system (IUS). (Marina coil)

What could cause the preogestetone only pill to fail?

If it has been more than 27 hours since the last pill

What medicines can cause taste alteration?

Amiodarone, ACEls, carbimazole, clarithromycin, lithium, metformin, metronidazole, protease inhibitors, terbinafine, zopiclone

What drugs can cause a decrease in saliva production and what can this cause?

- Antimuscarinics, TCA, SSRIs, a blockers, antihistamines, antipsychotics, baciofen, bupropion, clonidine, 5HT: agonists, opioids, tizanidine and excessive use of diuretics



persistently dry mouth may have poor oral hygiene - risk of dental caries, oral infections (candidiasis)

Can lithium cause thyroid problems

Yes it can cause hypo/hyperthyroidism

Can lithium cause thyroid problems

Yes it can cause hypo/hyperthyroidism

What should extensive, severe or bullous impetigo be treated with?

Flucloxacillin or clarythromycin if allergic for 5 days (can be 7)

With regards to the processing of prescriptions/orders in the pharmacy, how must the following be processed?


Private prescription for a Schedule 2 CD.

Submitted to the relevant NHS agency

With regards to the processing of prescriptions/orders in the pharmacy, how must the fol lowing be processed?


A veterinary prescription for a Schedule 2 CD.

Retained for 5 years

With regards to the processing of prescriptions/orders in the pharmacy, how must the following be processed?


An NHS prescription for a Schedule 2 CD.

Submitted to the relevant NHS agency

With regards to the processing of prescriptions/orders in the pharmacy, how must the fol lowing be processed?


A requisition for a Schedule 2 CD from a registered doctor.

Submitted to the relevant NHS agency

With regards to the processing of prescriptions/orders in the pharmacy, how must the fol lowing be processed?


A requisition for a Schedule 2 CD from a veterinarian.

Retained for 5 years

Why is guaifenesin not recommended in a 4 year old

The risk of using the medicine outward the benefits

Is oxytetracycline safe in pregnancy

No - it can cause damage to skeletal development

Miss WQ is a regular patient of your pharmacy and comes to collect her weekly instal-ment of methadone. She returns, an hour later, asking for another to be dispensed as she dropped the bottle containing methadone. She shows you pieces of the broken bottle.

Advise Miss WQ that she needs to obtain another prescription from her prescriber

Which antibiotic can cause severe optic neuropathy?

Linezolid

What to put on ringworm?

Canesten HC (clotrimazole 1% and Hydrocortisone 1%)

Which antibiotic is used in infections where anaerobic bacteria is the cause - commonly used in acute pericoronitis

Metronidazole

What is the interaction between citalopram and sildenafil

QT prolongation

Which antibiotic is contraindicated in acute porphyrias?

Chloramphenicol

Which drug causes gingival hyperplasia (swollen gums)

Ciclosporin

What medicine can cause blurred vision after taking?

Hydroxychloroquine

For each of the following descriptions, select the condition that is most accurate


Cluster headache


Medication-overuse headache


Meningitis


Migraine


Sinusitis


Sub-arachnoid haemorrhage


Temporal arteritis


Tension-type headache

Temporal arteritis is the only condition listed which is strongly associated with advancing age and is also more common in women.

Is associated with a blocked or runny nostril and excruciating attacks of pain one side of the head.



Cluster headache


Medication-overuse headache


Meningitis


Migraine


Sinusitis


Sub-arachnoid haemorrhage


Temporal arteritis


Tension-type headache

Accompanying symptoms with headache are useful in helping with a differential diagnosis. Nasal congestion associated with headache is not common and the only conditions listed where this would be seen is in sinusitis and cluster headache. As the pain is described as severe, then this points to cluster headache being the most likely diagnosis.

Patients may experience a dull, overall headache for over a week but can also be charac-terised by a sudden severe headache


Cluster headache


Medication-overuse headache


Meningitis


Migraine


Sinusitis


Sub-arachnoid haemorrhage


Temporal arteritis


Tension-type headache

Sub-arachnoid haemorrhage


Sinusitis, cluster headache, migraine and temporal arteritis are associated with frontal headache; meningitis, tension-type headache and medication overuse headache are more generalised in nature.

Why should spironolactone and potassium chloride be avoided together?

Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and, taken together with potassium supplements, increases the risk of developing hyperkalaemia which may cause cardiac arrhythmias. This is a well-known drug interaction which may be fatal.

What is the incubation period for chicken pox?

11-20 days

What can be used for vaginal thrush?

Canesten 2% cream.

What is the incubation period for slapped cheek disease

13-18 days

What is the incubation period for whooping cough?

7-10 days

What is the incubation period for mumps?

15-24 days

Which epilepsy drug can cause overheating?

Zonisamide

This medication is used at a continuing dose of 1 mg daily in the management of Parkinson's disease.

Rasagiline

Which Parkinson drug may stain the urine reddish-brown?

Entacapone

Early treatment with this drug can delay the need for levodopa therapy in Parkinson's disease

Selegiline hydrochloride

This Parkinson’s drug may exacerbate edema and because of this is cautioned for use in congestive heart failure.

Amantadine hydrochloride

This Parkinson’s drug may cause hair loss as a side effect.

Selegiline hydrochloride

When should patients with vaginal thrush be referred?

- More than 2 cases in 6 months (could indicate diabetes)


- pregnancy (otc products aren’t licensed)

What should be put on a nappy rash with confirmed candida infection?

Clotrimazole 1% cream

Interactions with fluconazole

(Inc QT interval)


Amiodarone


Citalopram/escitalopram


• Clarithromycin/erythromycin


Domperidone


- Haloperidol - both haloperidol and fluconazole increase the QT interval.


• Hydroxyzine - both hydroxyzine and fluconazole increase the QT interval.


• Lithium - both lithium and fluconazole increase the QT interval.


. Ondansetron - both ondansetron and fluconazole increase the QT interval.


• Quinine - both quinine and fluconazole increase the QT interval.


. Risperidone - both risperidone and fluconazole increase the QT interval.


. Sildenafil - both sildenafil and fluconazole increase the QT interval.


• Sotalol - both sotalol and fluconazole increase the QT interval.


• Tolterodine - both tolterodine and fluconazole increase the QT interval.


• Venlafaxine - both venlafazine and fluconazole increase the QT interval.

Inhibits cytochrome P450 (potently CYP2C9, moderately CYP3A4, CYP2C19)

Is fluconazole safe in pregnancy

No - congenital abnormalities


No to breastfeeding too esp high or repeated doses

What antibiotic to give for a cat/dog/ human bite

Prophylaxis = co-amoxiclav for 3 days (over 1 month)


If infected = co-amoxiclav for 5 days


Allergy - doxycycline + metronidazole with same

An 18-month old child with acute bilateral otitis media who has no known allergies.

Amoxicillin for 5-7 days


Or clarithromycin/erythromycin (E preferred in pregnancy)

How would you treat localised non-bullous impetigo?

Fusidic acid 2% three times a day until resolved


Lesions should be soaked in warm soapy water prior to application of product


Children should be excluded from school/nursery until 48 hours after treatment started

What prescription drugs are valid for 28 days?

CD 2,3,4

Otc hydrocortisone


Indication, restrictions and contraindications

- It can be sold to treat allergic contact dermatitis , irritant dermatitis, insect bite reactions and mild to moderate eczema.


- may not old to children under 10 or in pregnancy.


-Contraindications include use on eye or face, anogenital region, broken or infected skin, acne or athletes foot.


Use is restricted to a max. of 1 week.

What are baclofen common side effects?

Confusion; constipation; depression; diarrhea; dizziness; drowsiness; dry mouth; euphoric mood; hallucination; headache; hyperhidrosis; hypotension; nausea; paraesthesia; skin reactions; urinary disorders; vision disorders; vomiting

What colour does stain you urine? - senna

Red/yellow

What colour does stain you urine? - senna

Red/yellow

What colour does stain you urine? Dantron containing products (co-drantharmer, co-danthrusate)

Red

What colour does stain you urine? - senna

/yellow

What colour does stain you urine? Dantron containing products (co-drantharmer, co-danthrusate)

Red

What colour does stain you urine? Sulfazalazine

Yellow-orange

What colour does stain you urine? Entacapone/opicapone

Red/orange

What colour does stain you urine? Methyldopa

May darken when exposed to air

What colour does stain you urine? Methyldopa

May darken when exposed to air

What colour does stain you urine? Nitrofurantoin

Red

What colour does stain you urine? Methyldopa

May darken when exposed to air

What colour does stain you urine? Nitrofurantoin

Red

What colour does stain you urine?


Rifampicin

Red

How long must the electronic pharmacy record be kept for?

At least 5 years from the day it was created

What is eurax cream for (crotaminton cream)

Scabies (prevent itching and causing a secondary infection)

How many times can a private prescription for oral contraceptives with the word repeat on be dispensed?

6 times

What disease must pregnant people avoid as it can cause congenital abnormalities?

German measles (rubella)

Which warning label should be placed on lamotragine and azathropine?

Immediately report signs or symptoms of anaemia, bruising or infection to doctor

Which warning label should be placed on lamotragine and azathropine?

Immediately report signs or symptoms of anaemia, bruising or infection to doctor

Name a c antibiotic that shouldn’t be taken with dairy products?

Ciprofloxacin

What electrolyte can enoxaparin change?

High potassium

Which drugs are affected by smoking?

Theophylline, cinacelet, ropinerole, some antipsychotics

What frequency should oxycodone be prescribed at if immediate release?

Qds

Aside from the antibiotics (tetracycline, quinolones and sulfonamides) which drugs increase sensitivity to sun?

Amiodarone, chlorpromazine, nsaids and diuretics

Which blood test is looked at to see how heparin is working?

APTT

Can heparins (including dalteparin) cause osteoporosis?

Yes especially with long term use

What should lipid profile be in a healthy person and those with CVD risk?

Normal:


Total cholesterol = less than 5


LDL = less than 3


CVD risk:


Total cholesterol = less than 4


LDL = less than 2

Which schedule 2 drug doesn’t need to be kept in safe custody

Quinalbarbitone

Which schedule 2 drug doesn’t need to be kept in safe custody

Quinalbarbitone

What requirements for schedule 2 drugs

Store in cupboard and keep in a register

Which schedule 2 drug doesn’t need to be kept in safe custody

Quinalbarbitone

What requirements for schedule 2 drugs

Store in cupboard and keep in a register

Which drug types does the address of the prescriber have to be in the UK?

CD schedule 2+3

Which schedule 2 drug doesn’t need to be kept in safe custody

Quinalbarbitone

What requirements for schedule 2 drugs

Store in cupboard and keep in a register

Which drug types does the address of the prescriber have to be in the UK?

CD schedule 2+3

Which schedule drugs are invoices required to be kept and for how long?

Schedule 3+5 CD for two years

Which schedule 2 drug doesn’t need to be kept in safe custody

Quinalbarbitone

What requirements for schedule 2 drugs

Store in cupboard and keep in a register

Which drug types does the address of the prescriber have to be in the UK?

CD schedule 2+3

Which schedule drugs are invoices required to be kept and for how long?

Schedule 3+5 CD for two years

What needs to be on a requisition form for CD schedule 2+3

1 Signature of the recipient


2 Name of the recipient


3 Address of the recipient


4 Profession or occupation


5 Total quantity of drug


6 Purpose of the requisition

Which schedule 3 drugs require safe custody?

Temazepam and buprenorphine

Requirements for a valid CD prescription (2+3)

- name and address of a patient


- name, form and strength of drug


- The dose


Quantity in words and figures


Signature of prescriber


Address of prescriber


Particulars of what kind of prescriber they are


Date

Name 3 bulk forming laxatives

Ispaghula husk


Methyl cellulose


Sterculia

What laxative are phosphate and sodium citrate enemas

Osmotic

What laxative are phosphate and sodium citrate enemas

Osmotic

Name 3 stimulant laxatives and how long until they work

Senna (colonic nerves) 8-12


Bisacodyl and sodium picosulfate (same metabolite) - 6-12 hours


Docusate (is mostly stool softener but has stimulant effect) - 12-72 hours

What laxative is prucalopride?

Prokinetic - last line if other laxatives have failed

When are bisacodyl suppositories indicated?

For soft stools only - no softening effect

What to prescribe for acute constipation (less than 3 months)

1 bulk forming (drink lots of water)


2 add or switch to osmotic laxative


3 if stools are soft but difficult to pass add stimulant laxative

What is first line for opioid induced constipation and what should not be given

Osmotic and stimulant is first line - bulk forming laxatives shouldn’t be given

When to take other medicines in relation to colestyramine (bile acid sequestrant)

1 hour before or 4 hours after

Why is cimetidine potentially contraindicated in a patient with epilepsy?

Phenytoin interacts with it

How long to use an ointment containing a corticosteroid and an astringent?

7 days

Which drug causes constipation out of aluminium containing antacids or magnesium containing?

Aluminium (closer to c for constipation)

What should be considered when taking orlistat?

A vitamin and mineral supplement if concerns around inadequate vitamin intake

If the trough is too high

Increase dosage interval

If the peak is too high

Decrease dose

When are bisacodyl suppositories indicated?

For soft stools only - no softening effect

What vitamins can phenytoin decrease

Folate and B12


Vitamin D

What to prescribe for acute constipation (less than 3 months)

1 bulk forming (drink lots of water)


2 add or switch to osmotic laxative


3 if stools are soft but difficult to pass add stimulant laxative

What is first line for opioid induced constipation and what should not be given

Osmotic and stimulant is first line - bulk forming laxatives shouldn’t be given

When to take other medicines in relation to colestyramine (bile acid sequestrant)

1 hour before or 4 hours after

Why is cimetidine potentially contraindicated in a patient with epilepsy?

Phenytoin interacts with it

How long to use an ointment containing a corticosteroid and an astringent?

7 days

Which drug causes constipation out of aluminium containing antacids or magnesium containing?

Aluminium (closer to c for constipation)

If the trough is too high

Decrease dosage interval (further apart)

If the trough is too high

Increase dosage interval

If the peak is too high

Decrease dose

What strength of epipen is used in adults?

0.5mg