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205 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Generic of Avastin
bevacizumab
Generic of Erbitux
Cetuximab
Generic of Rituxan
rituximab
Generic of Gleevec
Imatinib
Generic of Herceptin
trastuzumab
Generic of Yervoy
ipilimumab
Generic of Tykerb
iapatinib
Pre treatment for monoclonal antibodies infusion:
APAP, Benadryl, corticosteroid, and meperidine(regrugs and chills)
MOA of Rituximab
Binds to CD20+ antigen on B-lymphocytes
Antibody dependent cytotoxicity
Consideration of Rituximab infusion:
- First exposure is the worse
- it may take up to 8 hrs
Toxicities of Rituximab
Infusion related reactions
Possible anaphylactic reactions
(Pretreat APAP and diphenhydramine)
- Tumor lysis syndrome (black box warning)
Allopurinol and monitor electrolytes
- Reactivation of Hep B, CMV, etc…
(Must check for previous Hep B)
MOA of Tositumomab
Binds to CD20+ cells
Linked to Iodine-131
Indication for Tositumomab
NHL refractory to rituximab
Toxicities of Tositumomab:
Premedicate with APAP and Benadryl
Give thyro-protective agent: Potassium iodide (SSKI) drops at least one day prior to giving
Prolonged pancytopenia (nadir 4-7 WEEKS)
- Pregnancy category X
- High incidence of secondary malignancies
MOA of ofatumumab
Bind to CD20+ antigen on B-cells
Causes B-cell lysis
Indication for ofatumumab
CLL
Second line after rituximab
Toxicities of ofatumumab
Severe infusion reactions (44%) although is a human antibody.

Prolonged thrombocytopenia and neutropenia

Reactivation of Hepatitis B

Severe infections (70%) (even being a fully human AB)

Very long infusion administration ( 8-9 hrs)
MOA of alemtuzumab
Binds to CD 52+ on malignant lymphocytes
Toxicities of alemtuzumab
- PROLONGED immunosuppression

- HSV and PCP prophylaxis (fungal?)

- CMV reactivation (prophylaxis w/ ganciclovir)

Infusion related reactions
Cell surface cycloprotein monoclonal antibodies:
Rituximab
Ibritumomab tiuxetan
Tositumomab
Ofatumumab
Alemtuzumab
Anti-angiogenesis agents (VEGF):
Bevacizumab
MOA of Bevacizumab:
Binds to vascular endothelial cell growth factor in circulation

VEGF ligand binding antibody
Toxicities of Bevacizumab
May cause DVTs or PEs
GI perforation
Delayed wound healing
Thrombotic events
Hypertension
Bleeding
Proteinuria
MOA of cetuximab
Binds to cell surface of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR)

Prevents EGFR binding and signal transduction
Indication for cetuximab
Colon cancer (without KRAS mutation)
Head and neck
EGFR should be avoided in the treatment of cancer with what specific mutation:
K-RAS
Toxicities of cetuximab
Acneiform skin rash
N/V
Mucositis
Characteristics of cetuximab rash:
starts within 1st week
No bacteria found
Treatment:
- Creams
- Anti-inflammatory
MOA of Panitumumab:
Binds to EGFR similar to cetuximab
Used after cetuximab
toxicities of panitumumab
Acneiform skin rash
N/V
Mucositis
Indication for panitumumab
Colon cancer
MOA of trastuzumab
HER2/neu
Oncogene overexpressed in 25% breast Ca
Herceptin binds and leads to antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity
Indication for trastuzumab
Breast Cancer that overexpress HER2/neu
Toxicities of trastuzumab:
DLT is cardiovascular
Not given in combination with Doxorubicin
Infusion reactions:
- Rash
- Myelosuppression
MOA of pertuzumab
HER dimerization inhibitor (HER2/neu receptor antagonist)
Toxicities of pertuzumab:
Left ventricular dysfunction (CHF) but it is still given in combination with trastuzumab

Rash
Myelosuppression
Pregnancy D: Fetal death and birth defects
MOA of ipilimumab
Increase T-cell activation and response
Toxicity of ipilimumab:
Severe and fatal immune reactions due to T-cell activation/proliferation
- Enterocolitis/diarrhea/abdominal pain
- High dose steroids for treatment
How to recognized Tyrosine kinase inhibitors?
AKA ...nibs = oral agents
MOA of gefitinib and erlotinib
Tyrosine kinase inhibitors
- Inhibit phosphorylation of EGFR (EGFR-TK)
Indication for erlotinib
NSCLC and pancreatic cancer (increase survival 12 days in combination with gemcitabine)
Toxicities of erlotinib
Diarrhea
Rash (acneiform)
Interstitial lung disease (SOB or pneumonia type symptoms), rare but fatal
CYP 3A4
- Increases INR
Drugs that bind to CD20
Rituximab
Ibritumomab tiuxetan
Tositumomab
Ofatumumab
What VEGF stands for?
Vascular endothelial growth factor
MOA of imatinib:
Inhibit bcr-abl tyrosine kinase
- Stops proliferation
Toxicities of imatinib
Myalgias/Arthralgias (affects compliance)
Myelosuppression
N/V
Edema (CHF)
BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase inhibitors
Imatinib
Dasatinib
Nilotinib
Bosutinib
Ponatinib
Toxicities of Dasatinib and Nilotinib:
- Toxicities and dosing similar to imatinib

- Don’t use with PPIS or H2

- QT prolongation black box warning
Characteristic of Ponatinib
BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase inhibitors
- 3rd generation
- Does target T3151 mutation (it can be used in CML resistant to the other TKIs
MOA of Lapatinib
Inhibits Her2/Neu phosphorylation
Toxicity of Lapatinib
Hand Foot syndrome
MOA of Crizotinib
ALK (anaplastic lymphoma kinase) tyrosine kinase
Indication for Crizotinib
ALK+ NSCLC
- EML4–ALK fusion
- Must have FDA approved test done to confirm ALK+
Toxicity of Crizotinib
Severe and fatal pneumonitis
Hepatotoxicity
QT-prolongation
MOA of Vemurafenib
Inhibits BRAF serine thireonine kinase
Indication for Vemurafenib
Malignant melanoma
- (V600E mutation of the BRAF gene)
Drugs approved for renal cell
Sunitinib
Sorafenib
Pazopanib
Axitinib
Temsirolius
Everolimus
Bevacizumab
Toxicities of Sunitinib
GI
Skin discoloration (yellowish)
CYP 3A4
Hypothyroidism (txt with levothyroxine)
Toxicities of Pazopanib
Severe and fatal hepatotoxicity—black box warning
Prolonged QT-intervals
Fatal hemorrhagic events
Hypertension
Hypothyroidism
GI perforations
Agents that inhibit numerous TK including VEGF, platelet derived GF
Sunitinib
Sorafenib
MOA of Pazopanib and Axitinib
Binds to VEGF, PDGFR, c-KIT, etc…
Typical treatment for anticipatory N/V:
Benzo
(Ativan) Lorazepam
Type of N/V produced by cisplatin:
Delayed N/V
The most emetic cancer medication
High emetic drugs
Cisplatin
Cyclophosphamide (> 1500mg/m2)
AC combination (doxorubicin/cyclophosphamide)
Dacarbazine/Nitrogen mustards
Moderate emetic drugs
Carboplatin
Most anthracyclines alone
Low emetic drugs
Taxanes
5-FU
Topoisomerase inhibitors
5-HT3 antagonist agents used for N/V:
Dolasetron
Granisetron
Ondansetron
Palonosetron
Role of 5-HT3 antag. agents in the txt of N/V:
Effective for prevention of ACUTE (first 24hrs) CINV

Prevention of post-op nausea and vomiting (PONV) and radiation induced N/V
Palonosetron used:
IV
prevention of acute and delayed in moderately emetogenic chemo
Trade name for Dolasetron
Anzemet
Trade name for Granisetron
Kytril
Trade name for Ondansetron
Zofran
Trade name for Palonosetron
Aloxi
Preferred route of admin for 5-HT3 antag.
Oral
Dose of ondasetron
Ondansetron 16 to 24 mg orally or 8 to 16 mg IV daily
Dose of Dolasetron
Dolasetron 100 mg PO QD
Dose of Granisetron
Granisetron 2 mg QD or 1mg BID
Dose of Palonsetron
Palonsetron 0.25mg IV x 1 dose
Adverse effects of 5-HT antag.
QT-prolongation
Constipation (pregnancy)
Diarrhea (chemo txt)
Patient education on 5-HT3 antag.
Take 30 minutes prior to chemo and on a scheduled basis after that OR 1x during surgery

PRN basis not recommended
Used on corticosteroids in the txt of n/v
Prevention of Chemotherapy induced N/V (not FDA-approved)

Synergistic with 5HT-3 and metoclopramide
Doses of corticosteriods when adding to a 5HT-3 or alone:
Highly emetogenic: 12-20 mg x 1 dose 30 min prior to chemo

Moderately emetogenic: 8-10 mg 1 dose 30 min prior to chemo

Continue 4-8 mg BID x ~3 days after chemo
rare corticosteriod AE:
Anal burning
(txt: slow infusion rate)
Neurokinin-1 Receptor Antagonists agents:
Aprepitant and Fosaprepitant (Emend)
Uses of NK-1 antag.
Used in combination with steroids and 5HT-3 for prevention of acute and delayed N/V associated with highly and moderately emetogenic chemotherapy (3 drug regimen for cisplatin)
What kind of medications are affected by the use of NK-1 antag.?
Oral contraceptives

Warfarin: it may derease INR
Dose of Aprepitant
125mg PO day 1

80mg PO day 2

80mg PO day 3
Dose of Fosaprepitant
150mg IV once
Dose of dexamethasone for high emetic chemotherapy:
12mg IV day 1

8mg IV/PO day 2

8mg IV/PO on days 3 and 4 (if fosaprepitant is used then BID)
When does aprepitant should be given to patients?
1 hour prior to chemo with the 5-HT3 antag. and the corticosteriod
Aprepitant AE:
Diarrhea / constipation

Hiccups (may use a dopamine antagonist for txt)

Bradycardia
Most commonly used dopamine antagonists:
Prochlorperazine (Compazine)

Promethazine (Phenergan)

Metoclopramide (Reglan)
Dose of Prochlorperazine
10mg IV/PO Q6H scheduled or PRN
IV/PO/PR
Dose of Promethazine
12.5-25 mg Q4-6 H scheduled or PRN
Iv/PO/PR
Dose of Haloperidol
Haldol: 1-3mg IV/PO q 2-4 H prn
Dose of metoclopramide
10-40mg IV/PO Q6H With higher doses consider diphenhydramine 25-50mg to prevent EPS
SE of metoclopramide
EPS and excessive sedation

Irreversible tardive dyskinesias
SE of droperidol
black box warning for QT prolongation
SE of promethazine
Severe extravasation can occur

Must dilute with 10 ml NS if giving IV

Try to use oral if possible
Dose of lorazepam
Lorazepam 1-2mg IV/PO/SL q4-6 H prn OR 1 dose prior to chemo
Prevention of CINV with highly emetogenic drugs:
Aprepitant + 5-HT3 antagonist + dexamethasone
Prevention of CINV with moderately emetogenic drugs:
5-HT3 antagonist + dexamethasone +/- aprepitant
Prevention of CINV with low emetogenic drugs:
Dexamethasone or prochlorperazine or metoclopramide
Prevention of CINV with minimal emetogenic drugs:
None
Options for breakthrough N/V:
Dopaminergic agents

Haloperidol

Dronabinol

(Scheduled medications)
How 5-HT3 antag. should be used in multiple day chemo regimens?
Every day chemo is given a 5-HT3 antagonist should be given

(for moderate to highly emetic drugs)
Agents used on pregnancy induced N/V
Histamine antagonists and Phenothiazines are effective and equal to 5HT-3 in efficacy
What is the name of the cells used to identify HL?
Reed-Sternberg cells
(Multi-nucleated giant cells)
Signs and Symptoms of HL:
Painless adenopathy usually in lymph nodes above the diaphragm (cervical)
Orderly spread from one node to contiguous node
What are B-symptoms?
Fever
Unexplained weight loss
Night sweats
Stage I HL:
Single node or site
Stage II HL:
Two or more lymph node or sites on same side of diaphragm
Stage III HL:
Lymph node involvement on both sides of diaphragm
Stage IV HL:
Diffuse or disseminated involvement of organs/tissues
What is the meaning of A, B, and X in HL?
A = No fever (asymptomatic)

B = B-symptoms

X = Bulky disease (nodal mass >10 cm)
Prognosis factors in HL:
Serum albumin (< 4 g/dL)
Hemoglobin (< 10.5 g/dL)
Male
Stage IV disease
Age (> 45 yo)
Leukocytosis (WBC >15,000/mm3)
Lymphocytopenia (< 600/mm3)
ABVD regimen:
Doxorubicin (Adriamycin)
Bleomycin (pulmonary toxicity)
Vinblastine (myelosuppression)
Dacarbazine (N/V)
Treatment of relapsing HL:
ABVD if relapse is more than 12 months later

Brentuximab (CD30+ antibody-conjugate used if two chemo regimens failed or failed stem cell transplant)
Short term Effects of treatment for HL:
Infection
Tumor Lysis Syndrome (hydration and electrolytes)
Pulmonary function
Cardiac function
Mycositis
Neurotoxicities
Overall survival of HD:
Good prognosis:
Stage I: 90-95%
Stage II: 90-95%
Stage III: 80-85%
Stage IV: 60-70%
Incidence for NHL:
Age: average 66yo
Males > females
Whites > blacks
Risk factors for NHL:
H. pylori, HIV, EBV, HHV-8
Chemicals exposures
Immune dysregulation
Chromosomal abnormalities
What are the most common types of NHL:
Diffuse Large B cell Lymphoma

Follicular lymphoma
What type of lymphoma is caused by H. pylori?
MALT lymphoma
(Mucos Assoc Lymphoid Tissue )
Type of indolent lymphoma:
Follicular
(hard to cure)
Type of Highly aggressive lymphoma:
Burkitt's lymphoma
(curable but tumor may double in size in 48 hrs)
What type of regimen can be used for a indolent lymphoma advance disease (stage III and IV):
No standard therapy

Rituximab based therapy
Regimen for DLBC lymphoma:
R-CHOP
What does R-CHOP stands for?
Rituximab - (reactivation of HepB)
Cyclophosphamide (renal function)
doxorubicin (hydroxydanorubicin) (liver function)
vincristine (neuropathies)
prednisone (blood sugar)
additional therapy when using R-CHOP:
Rituximab as maintenance
CNS prophylaxis with methotrexate
Length of therapy using R-CHOP
6 cycles
Characteristics of Tumor Lysis syndrome:
High potassium
High phosphate
High uric acid
Low calcium
Treatment of high uric acid:
Allopurinol:
- affects only new production
- takes days to have effect

Rasburicase:
- affects new and existent production
- Takes just hours to work
Difference in treatment between Acute and chronic leukemias:
Acute are a medical emergency while chronic may or may not require immediate treatment.
What type of leukemia is most common in childhood?
ALL
Prognostic risk factors for ALL:
Age (less than 1 and more than 10= high risk)

WBC (more than 50K = high risk)

Philadelphia chromosome (high risk)

Male
Treatment of ALL:
Remmision induction (4 weeks)

Consolidation (4weeks)

Delayed intensificacion (3-9 mo)

Maintenance (2-3 yrs)

CNS prophylaxis given in all phases
REmission induction in ALL txt:
Vincristine IV
Dexamethasone PO
L-asparaginase (pegaspargase)

If High risk add to standard:
Daunorubicin or doxorubicin IV
What are the drugs for CNS prophylaxis in ALL:
Intrathecal cytarabine, hydrocortisone and/or methotrexate
What phase of treatment is important in ALL but it is not used in AML?
Maintenance phase (2-3 yrs)
Drugs used in maintenance therapy for ALL:
Mercaptopurine po q evening
Methotrexate po or IM q week
Dexamethasone 5 days/month
Vincristine IV q month
Intrathecal meds q 3 months
What is the AML that has a better prognosis?
M3 acute promyelocytic leukemia
Treatment phases for AML:
Remission induction

Consolidation (2-4)

(No maintenance phase)
Standard induction of AML:
7 + 3
7 days of continuous infusion cytarabine (low dose)

3 days of Idarubicin or Daunorubicin

SE: prolonged neutropenia
Consolidation treatment for AML:
High dose cytarabine

SE: Conjuctivitis (steroid eye drops) and Cerebral toxicity (test before every dose)

3-4 cycles
AML M3 treatment:
All-trans retinoic acid (ATRA) (PO)
- differentiation syndrome

Arsenic trioxide (IV)
- QT prolongation
- Differentiation syndrome
Role of SCT in leukemia treatment:
For relapse disease especially for ALL in young patients
What causes CML:
Philadelphia Chromosome Abnormality
What is the translocation related to philadelphia chromosome:
BCR-ABL that encodes for a tyrosine kinase that has 100x more actiivty than the normal.
Effects of BCR-ABL translocation:
Increases proliferation
Affects differentiation
Blocks apoptosis
What Hematologic response indicates?
Normalization of peripheral blood count
WBC < 10 x 10^9/L
Platelets <450 X 10^9/L
No immature cells
What Cytogenetic response inidicates?
Complete: elimination of Ph+ cells
What Molecular response indicates?
Absence of bcr-abl by RT-PCR
What is hydroxyurea used for in CML?
Used to reduce high circulating WBC and all cell lines
(for short term therapy)
First line therapy drugs for CML
Imatinib mesylate (STI 571; Gleevec)
Dasatinib (Sprycel)
Nilotinib (Tasigna)
Dosage of gleevec:
400mg/day with food and water
CHR: 3 mo
CCR: 9-12 mo
Few achieve molecular remission
SE for Gleevec:
Myelosuppression
Rash
GI side effects
Edema
Arthralgias and myalgias
Headaches
Rare cardiotoxicity/CHF
What TKI are used in patient that developed mutations or resistance to gleevec?
Dasatinib and Nilotinib
2nd generation tyrosine-kinase inhibitors
Indicated first-line for chronic phase, accelerated and blast crisis
SE of dasatinib:
Pleura effusions and bleeding

Avoid PPI and H2 blockers
SE of nilotinib:
QT prolongation

take on empty stomach
Bosutinib indication:
2nd generation bcr-abl TKI
Indications: CML that failed 1 TKI
Ponatinib indication:
BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase inhibitors
3rd generation
Does target T3151 mutation

Indications: CML that failed 1 TKI
What is the only option for cure for CML?
Allogeneic stem cell transplant
Characteristics of CLL:
Indolent disease

Elderly patients

Many times patient forgo treatment
When to treat CLL:
Treatment would be very aggressive if it is diagnosed in younger patients and/or it presents molecular markers
What drug to use in the treatment of CLL if patient has deletion of p17?
alemtuzumab
If a CLL patient is younger than 70 what is the treatment:
FCR:
- Fludarabine
- cyclophosphamide
- rituximab
Risk factors for colon cancer:
Age
Family hx
Personal hx of breast, ovarian, or endometrial cancer
Colon polyps
IBD (especially Ulcerative colitis)
Genetic predisposition
Prevention of colon cancer:
High-fiber; low-fat diet
Chemoprevention:
- Calcium
- Folate
- COX-2
- NSAIDS
Screening for Colon Cancer
Start at 50 yo
- FOBT = once a year
- Digital rectal exam = once a year
- Flexible sigmoidoscopy = q 5 yeats
- Colonoscopy = q10yrs
Common S/S of advance colon cancer:
Change in bowel habits
Rectal bleeding
Abdominal pain
Weight loss
How many node are biopsied in the diagnosis of colon cancer?
All 12 nodes
What mutation has to be tested for in colon cancer?
K-RAS (Unresponsive to EGFR-inhibitors: Cetuximab or panitumumab)
Stage I colon cancer txt:
Superficial lession

Surgery and nothing else
Stage II colon cancer txt:
Surgery and nothing else
Stage III colon cancer txt:
Lymph node involvement

Surgery AND chemo right after

FOLFOX or CapeOX
What adjuvant therapy mean:
Therapy given after surgery with the intention to cure the patient. No place in metastatic disease.
What does FOLFOX stands for?
Oxaliplatin IV over 2 hours on Day 1 (PN - cold)
Leucovorin IV over 2 hours on Days 1 and 2
5-FU IV bolus and continuous infusion (48 hours)
Repeat every two weeks
what does CapeOX stands for?
Capacitabine (PO) (hand foot symdrome)
Oxaliplatin (PN)
What drugs should not be used for adjuvant colon cancer therapy?
irinotecan
cetuximab
bevacizumab
Why is Bevacizumab never given right after surgery? One more time - what's the trade name?
Bevacizumab delays wound healing (give 6 weeks later). Avastin is the Trade name.
Stage IV colon cancer txt:
incurable (Unless resectable liver mets)

Chemotherapy is mainstay:
FOLFOX
FOLFIRI
CapeOX
Infusional 5FU/LV
FOLFOXIRI

always add biologics bevacizumab, cetuximab or panitumumab
Treat of isolated hepatic mets in colon cancer:
Single lesions resected
Hepatic artery infusion of 5-FU or FUDR
Chemoembolization (mixed in Gelfoam)
Mitomycin C
Doxorubicin
Cisplatin
Important signs for skin cancer:
A sore that does not heal

Obvious change in wart or mole
ABCDE of melanoma:
A: Asymmetric
B: Irregular Borders
C: Color of lesion (not uniform)
D: Diameter > 6mm or size of pencil eraser
E: Evolving characteristics of lesion
Guidelines for surgery in melanoma patients:
<1 mm in thickness, require 1 cm margin
2 mm in thickness, require 2 cm margin
Role of chemotherapy in melanoma:
Not recommended
Treatment options for metastatic melanoma:
Clinical trial
Ipilimumab
Vemurafenib (BRAF mutation)
Aldesleukin (IL-2)

chemo is 2nd or 3rd option
MOA of ipilimumab
Increase T-cell activation and response to stimulate immune reaction
SE of ipilimumab
Severe enterocholitis (txt high dose steroids)

Immune AE
What is the common mutation in melanoma:
BRAF (involve in cell growth) 45%
MOA of Vemurafenib
Inhibits BRAF serine threonine kinase

- mutation has to be confirmed by an FDA approved test
How many doses of IL-2 are recommended for the txt of metastatic melanoma?
14 doses
(but most patients cannot tolerate more than 10-12)
Survival rates with melanoma:
Localized dz: 98% (5yr)
Regional spread: 60%
Metastatic spread: 16%
How to calculate SPF:
# of min normally burn x (spf) = min of protection from the sun
How much UVB is blocked by SPF 15?
93%
How much UVB is blocked by SPF 30?
97%
Indication for Vismodegib:
Basal cell carcinoma; after failing other options
What is the type of skin cancer that is serious and fatal?
Melanoma
(non-melanoma rarely mets)
Define pharmacogenomics:
differences in MULTIPLE genes influence variability in drug response (i.e., efficacy and toxicity)
CYP 2D6:
-Metabolizes 25-50% of drugs

- Substrates:
Antidepressants
Antiarrhythmics
B-adrenergic antagonists
Prodrugs such as codeine, tramadol and tamoxifen
CYP 2C19:
Poor metabolizers common in Chinese and Japanese

Drugs involved include:
Omeprazole
Voriconazole
Phenytoin
Clopidogrel
CYP 2C9:
2-10% are homozygous for low-activity

Drugs metabolized:
- Warfarin
- Losartan
VLOR and Warfarin pharmacogenomic relationship:
Polymorphisms of VKOR account for 25-30% of dose variability
Some patients may require >100mg/week or never achieve anticoagulation
What two drugs can be used for medullary thyroid cancer?
Vandetinib and Cabozantinib.