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92 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Direct Diagnosis of a Parasite
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e.g. Fecal floatation, relies on direct observation of the parasite or egg
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Indirect Diagnosis of a Parasite
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e.g. ELISA , relies on detection of Ag, Ab, or NA rather than direct observation of the parasite or egg
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Melena(digested blood in feces) can indicate what general type of parasite
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Hookworms
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Hematochezia(undigested blood in feces) can indicate what general type of parasite
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Whipworms
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Control (or Prevention) of a parasite
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at least 80% efficacy, or prevents establishment of infection
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Treatment (or Removal) of a parasite
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90% or greater efficacy
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Advantage of using centrifugation with fecal float
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concentrates the eggs better
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Advantages of direct smear
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can see motile trophozoites or larvae, and staining helps see morphology
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What does the Baermann funnel technique allow you to see?
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motile larvae
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What technique do you use to see heavy eggs (e.g. trematodes, some cestodes, some nematodes)
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Fecal sedimentation
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Benefits of Giardia SNAP test
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can diagnose infection when they are hard to find
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Disadvantages of Giardia SNAP test
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Cysts are not shed all the time, and are therefore not detectable all the time
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refugia
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portion of the parasite population not exposed to the treatment
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resistance
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genetic mutation in parasite population that is selected for by successive treatments over time
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4 causes of treatment failure
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1.Inadequate dosing or application
2.Failure of absorption or spread 3.Unreasonable expectations of success 4.Large environmental parasite populations |
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EPG
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egg per gram of feces (used in LA fecal eval to limit the number of parasites)
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technique used for quantifying a LA High parasite load
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McMaster's
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technique used for quantifying a LA Low parasite load
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Wisconsin
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Why are cestodes difficult to detect on fecal float? (3 reasons)
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1. released intermittently
2. not evenly distributed in fecal mass 3. do not float well in standard solutions |
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therapeutic use of anthelmintics
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to treat current infection, goal is to eliminate all parasites
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Prophylactic use of anthelminitcs
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routine regular use, to prevent clinical disease
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Disadvantages of prophylactic anthelmintic use
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cost, limits acquired immunity, may lead to resistance
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Strategic deworming
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time treatment to interrupt parasite life cycle, effective when used on whole herd and with other control strategies. goal is to limit environmental contamination
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Considerations in deworming programs
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time of year, geographic location, age of animal, category of animal, type of operation, grazing history of pastures
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How do you "clean" a pasture?
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grazing rest for a season, hay or plow and reseed or burn, co-grazing sheep/cattle and goats/horses.
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endectoside
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can affect parasites on the inside and outside of the host, but cannot kill all of both.
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therapeutic index
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dose producing UNdesired effect/dose producing desired effect
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High therapeutic index
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it takes a very high dose to kill a patient, this is desirable
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Low therapeutic index
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it takes a low dose to kill a patient, can be dangerous.
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compound collie-type dogs are sensitive to:
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ivermectin
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Organophosphates can be toxic to: (3)
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Brahman cattle, greyhounds, whippets
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monensin toxic to:
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horses
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can cause idiosyncratic reactions in individual animals (e.g. teratogenic in Rums and aplastic anemia in SA)
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albendazole, oxibendazole
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a drench refers to:
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a oral method of drug administration
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aka probenzimidazole, gets metabolized into fenbendazole(active)
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Febantel
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5x dose of praziquantel treats what?
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pseudophyllideans like Spirometra mansonoides and Diphyllobothrium latum
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macrolide endectocide used in horses that is erroneously given to SA causing toxicity
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doramectin
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toxic to chelonians(turtles) and sloths?
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avermectins/milbemycin (macrolide endectocides)
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What is the pathophysiology of Giardiasis?
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it occludes the intestinal villi leading to atrophy, malabsorption, maldigestion
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antiprotozoal that is neurotoxic in high doses and prolonged use and slightly toxic in low doses
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Metronidazole
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Marquis
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coccidioCIDAL rather than coccidiostatic used for horses
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EPM
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equine protozoal myelitis - treated by Marquis
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Sulfonamide toxicity related to:
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crystalluria, renal toxicity, and hematopoietic disorders
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Sulfonamides effective against which stage:
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schizont (asexual)
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competitive inhibitor of thiamine most effective against the first generation schizonts
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Amprolium
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Pet more likely to be Dirofilaria Ag positive
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Cat
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Shelter animal more likely to be Dirofilaria Ag positive
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Dog
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number of heartworms found in an infected cat
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1-3
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number of heartworms found in an infected dog
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1-250
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PPP for Dirofilaria immitis in dogs
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6-7 months
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PPP for Dirofilaria immitis in cats
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7-8 months(transient)
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reason why cats do not have as many adult heartworms as dogs infected with same amount of L3
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The cat immune system can clear a lot of the immature forms as well as impair function of the adult worms and clear microfilaria
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When is most severe pathology seen in heartworm infection and disease?
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During treatment
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Effect of heartworm disease on the pulmonary artery?
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intimal proliferative response +/- thrombosis
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intimal proliferative response seen in the pulmonary arteries of HW positive dogs can directly lead to:
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chronic, passive pulmonary congestion AND pulmonary hypertension
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Pulmonary hypertension due to heartworm disease can lead to:
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right heart enlargement
hepatomegaly ascites congestive heart failure |
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Class I heartworm disease
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no clinical signs
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Class II heartworm disease
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moderate: chronic cough, dyspnea, decreased exercise tolerance
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Class III heartworm disease
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severe: syncope(fainting), hemoptyses, congestive heart failure, ascites, etc.
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Class IV heartworm disease
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Vena Caval syndrome (worms backed up into the vena cava) in dogs
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Vena Caval syndrome symptoms
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sudden lethargy, hemoglobinemia, and hemoglobinuria in 3-5yo dog with heavy infx.
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Vena Caval syndrome treatment
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surgery, removal of worms through the jugular vein.
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When do you start giving puppies heartworm prevention?
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as soon as you can
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when do you not do a heartworm Ag test?
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ONLY if it is a puppy less than 6mo
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difference between heartworm infection and heartworm disease
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disease=pathology and clinically detectable, infection is essentially just prepatent or Ag positive class I
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How to diagnose Heartworm infection?
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Ag tests, Ab tests(cats), direct smear, modified Knott's test
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Occult infections of heartworm:
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1. single sex of adults
2. PPP 3. misapplication of preventive 4. immune system clearance |
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Heartworm Ag tests detect what?
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Ag from adult female reproductive tract
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How to diagnose heartworm disease?
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Ag positive, microfilaria positive, and clinical signs, PE, thoracic rads +/-echocardiography, bloodwork
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Goals of heartworm treatment: (3)
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Kill larval and adult heartworms
Kill the microfilaria (dont select for resistance-one class of drugs) dont kill the dog |
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what makes melarsomine toxic to the animal?
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it is an arsenical (major problem if they have liver disease), and the dead worms could become embolic
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does melarsomine kill adult heartworms, microfilaria, and immature worms?
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No only adults
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What is the 2 dose regimen (with melarsomine) and when do you use it?
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2 injections 24 hours apart, on class I and Class II disease
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What is the 3 dose regimen (with melarsomine) and when do you use it?
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single injection at diagnosis followed by 2 dose regimen 30 days later, on ALL dogs now, previously Class II and Class III.
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What is the importance of exercise restriction during heartworm treatment?
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reduce the risk of thromboembolism
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How do you reduce the risk of thromboembolism during heartworm treatment in addition to exercise restriction?
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corticosteriods to manage itis
fluids as needed NOT aspirin, affect ability of drug |
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what adjunctive therapy during melarsomine treatment weakens HW and melarsomine works better
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low dose ivermectin
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what adjunctive therapy during melarsomine treatment kills commensal bacteria of the heartworm, helping melarsomine work better?
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doxycycline
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soft kill/slow kill refers to:
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soft on the heartworms not on the dog, typically meaning ivermectin.
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prevalence of cat heartworm infection compared to dogs
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10% compared to dogs
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if cats are less susceptible to heartworm infection than dogs (fewer worms and smaller, shorter lived, rarely patent worms) why is it still recommended that they be on preventive?
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it is still a pathogen and a risk factor for a severe disease that could be easily prevented.
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Do cats get Right heart failure from heartworm infection?
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Typically not, it is more of a lung disease for cats.
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Are cats a reservoir host for Dirofilaria immitis? why/why not?
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No, the microfilaria can normally be cleared by the cat's immune system producing occult infection and thus why cats need to be tested by Ag and Ab tests.
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Why would you be able to find larval Dirofilaria immitis in the ocular cavity or abdomen of a cat?
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aberant migration of the heartworm larvae is common bc the cat is not a definitive host.
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What does the acronym HARD stand for in relation tocats and heartworms?
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Heartworm Associated Respiratory Disease
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heartworm disease in cats presents as feline asthma, what is the cause?
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interstitial lung disease, +/- acute respiratory distress syndrome,
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clinical signs of heartworm disease in cats:
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coughing, dyspnea, chronic vomitting, lethargy, anorexia, weight loss
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Feline heartworm Ab test can detect infection as soon as:
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~2 months postinfection, and wanes after about 4 months
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Feline heartworm Ag test can detect heartworms as soon as:
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6-8months, wax to positive
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What indicates heartworm disease in a cat radiograph?
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a VD showing enlarged lobar and peripheral pulmonary arteries
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supportive care provided for cats in time of acute crises:
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fluids, corticosteroids, bronchodilators, O2 supplementation, +/- leukotriene antagonist.
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when melarsomine is unavailable, these should be subsequently prescribed indefinitely(until melarsomie available):
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prednisone to manage itis
doxycycline to kill heartworm commensals and tick borne agents |
